USMLE Step 2: HEME/ONC Flashcards

1
Q

Effects of Heparain

A

Increases PTT, activates antithrombin III and affects the INTRINSIC pathway, and decreases fibrinogen.

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2
Q

Antidote for heparin

A

Protamine Sulfate

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3
Q

Effects of Warfarin

A

Increases PT, extrinsic pathway

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4
Q

How is the intrinsic pathway measured?

A

PTT

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5
Q

How is intrinsic pathway initiated?

A

By exposure of collagen following vascular trauma

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6
Q

how is extrinsic pathway measured?

A

by PT

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7
Q

How is extrinsic pathway initiated?

A

By endothelium-produced tissue factor

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8
Q

intrinsic pathway

A

12, 11, 9, 8

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9
Q

Intrinsic pathway

A

7 (3 is cofactor)

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10
Q

Common pathway

A

10 (activated by 8 and 7), 5, prothrombin, thrombin

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11
Q

What does thrombin activate?

A

Fibrinogen & 13 (13 does cross linking of fibrin)

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12
Q

Labs in hemophilia

A

PT, thrombin time, fibrinogen, and bleeding time are NORMAL.

aPTT is PROLONGED!!

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13
Q

What is the inheritance of hemophilia?

A

X-linked

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14
Q

What is the inheritance of von Willebrand’s Disease?

A

Autosomal dominant

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15
Q

Labs in vWD

A

Platlet count and PT are NORMAL

aPTT and Bleeding time are PROLONGED

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16
Q

What is DIC?

A

Deposition of fibrin in small blood vessels leading to thrombosis and end-organ damage. Depletion of clotting factors and platlets leads to a bleeding diathesis

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17
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

A bleeding disorder due to platelet microthrombi that block off small blood vessels, leading to end-organ ischemia and dysfunction
**similar to DIC

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18
Q

What happens to RBCs in TTP?

A

They become fragmented by contact with the microthrombi leading to hemolysis (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)

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19
Q

What are the 5 s/sx of TTP?

A
  1. Low platlet count
  2. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  3. Neurologic Changes
  4. Impaired Renal Function
  5. Fever
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20
Q

How is TTP diagnosed?

A

3/5 of the s/sx + schistocytes, low platlets, and rising creatinine

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21
Q

What else is on the same spectrum of disease as TTP?

A

HUS (which has more severe elevations of creatinine) & HELLP

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22
Q

What are the 3 causes of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

A

HUS, TTP, DIC

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23
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura?

A

IgG antibodies formed against the patient’s platelets

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24
Q

What do lymphoblasts differentiate into?

A

B & T Cells

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25
What do myeloblasts differenciate into?
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils
26
What is the value of looking at the retic?
2.5 hemolysis/hemorrhage
27
Causes of microcytic anemia?
TICS: thalassemia, iron deficiency, chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia
28
What is the Schilling test?
The patient is first given unlabeled B12 IM to saturate B12 receptors in the liver, followed by an oral challenge of radiolabeled B12. The radiolabeled B12 will pass into the urine if it is properly absorbed, as the liver's B12 receptors will be saturated from the IM dose
29
What does it mean is radiolabeled B12 is in the urine for the schilling test?
It means there is a dietary B12 deficiency
30
What doe sit mean if there is no radiolabeled B12 in the urine for the schilling test?
Consider pernicious anemia, bacterial overgrowth, or pancreatic enzyme deficienc
31
What happens to MMA and homocysteine in B12 deficiency?
Both are elevated
32
What happens to MMA and homocysteine in folate deficiency
MMA is normal & homocysteine is elevated
33
What is PNH?
A disorder in which blood cell sensitivity to complement activation is increased; patients are prone to thrombotic events
34
LDH, indirect bilirubin, and haptoglobin in hemolytic anemia
LDH: elevated Indirect bilirubin: elevated Haptoglobin: decreased
35
how do patients with aplastic anemia present?
Pancytopenic- lack of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
36
What does the indirect Coombs' Test detect?
Antibodies to RBCs in the patients serum
37
What does the direct Coombs test detect?
Sensitized erythrocytes
38
What is the #1 and #2 cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cel disease?
``` #1: S. aureus #2: Salmonella ```
39
Health maintenance in patients with sickle cell disease?
Treating cholelithiasis with lap chole, chronic folate supplementation, pneumococcal vaccination
40
Thalassemia: 0/4 alpha-chain
hydrops fetalis- patients die in utero
41
Thalassemia: 1/4 alpha-chain
Hemoglobin H disease (severe hypochromic, microcyticc anemia with chronic hemolysis, splenomegaly, jaundice, and cholelithiasis; skeletal changes
42
Thalassemia: 2/4 alpha
Alpha-thal trait; patients have low MCV but are usually asymptomatic
43
Thalassemia: 3/4 alpha
Silent carrier patients have no s/sx of disease
44
What is polycythemia vera from?
Clonal proliferation of a pluripotent marrow stem cell due to a JAK2 mutation
45
What cell line is affected in polycythemia vera?
ALL cell lines are affected- RBCs are most affected
46
What are the types of porphyrias?
1. Acute Intermittent 2. Porphyria cutanea tarda 3 Erythropoietic porphyria
47
Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP)
Elevated from a leukemoid reaction and decreased in hematologic malignancy
48
Effective of glucose on porphyria
Glucose provides negative feedback to the heme synthetic pathway, so high doses may be administered to decrease heme synthesis during an attack
49
AML and ALL
Marrow that is infiltrated wtih blast cells (>20-30%); in AML the leukemic cells are myeloblasts; in ALL they are lymphoblasts
50
What is the treatment for M3 AML?
all-trans-retinoic acid
51
Genetic mutation in M3 AML?
Translocation involving chromosomes 15 & 17
52
What do myeloblasts look like?
Large (2-4x RBC), lots of cytoplasm, conspicuous nucleoli, fine granules, +myeloperoxidase
53
What do lymphoblasts look like?
Smaller (1.5-3x RBC), less cytoplasm, inconspicuous nucleoli, =myeloperoxidase
54
Age groups for leukemia's
ALL: 60
55
Triad for multiple myeloma
Anemia, renal failure, and bone pain
56
What is neutropenia?
Absolute neutrophil count <1500
57
How is ANC calculated?
(WBC) X (%bands + % segmented neutrophils)
58
What bacterial infections are associated with acute neutropenia?
S. aureus, Pseudomonas, E coli, Proteus, Klebsiella
59
How is fever in a patient with neuropenia treated?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic (cefepime)
60
Pathomechanism of hyperacute rejection
Preformed antibodies
61
Pathomechanism of acute rejection
T-cell mediated
62
Pathomechanism of chronic rejection
Chronic immune reaction causing fibrosis
63
Neoplasm associated with down syndrome
ALL (we ALL go down)
64
Neoplasm associated with xeroderma pigmentosum
SCC and BCC carcinomas of the skin
65
Neoplasm associated with pernicious anemia
gastric adenocarcinoma
66
Neoplasm associated with tuberous sclerosis
astrocytoma and cardiac rhabdomyoma
67
Neoplasm associated with actinic keratosis
SCC of skin
68
Neoplasm associated with Plummer-vinson syndrome
SCC of esophagus
69
Neoplasm associated with Paget's disease of bone
secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma
70
Neoplasm associated with AIDS
Aggressive malignant NHLs and Kaposi's sarcoma
71
Neoplasm associated with acanthosis nigricans
Visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)