usmle success Flashcards by Deleted Deleted

Which of the following chromosomes is associated with familial
hypercholesterolemia?
A. Chromosome 17
B. Chromosome 18
C. Chromosome 19
D. Chromosome 20
E. Chromosome 21

C. Chromosome 19 (Correct)

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Which of the following drug combinations is recommended for the treatment of
gonorrheal infections?
A. Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone
B. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime
C. Azithromycin + Gentamicin
D. Amikacin + Ceftriaxone
E. Ceftriaxone + Penicillin

A. Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone (Correct)

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Which of the following is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. PKU
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
E. MELAS syndrome

A. Myotonic dystrophy (Correct)

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At which of the following CD4 counts would you most likely expect to see a
Mycobacterium Avium infection?

A. 0-50
B. 51-100
C. 101-150
D. 151-200
E. 200-300

A. 0-50 (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following works by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase?
A. Linezolid
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Cefotetan
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Aztreonam

D. Ciprofloxacin

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Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for Erlichiosis?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ampicillin
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin G
E. Chloramphenicol

C. Doxycycline (Correct)

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Which of the following genes are mutated in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, leading to
a defective bilirubin pump?
A.BCL2
B. ABCC2
C. CACNA1A
D. FGF21
E. HBP1

B. ABCC2 (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following amino acids is most importantly affected by Hartnup’s
disease?
A. Leucine
B. Tryptophan
C. Histidine
D. Glutamate
E. Asparagine

B. Tryptophan (Correct)

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Which of the following genitourinary structures fails to develop properly in patients
with cystic fibrosis?
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Cowper’s glands
C. Epididymus
D. Leydig cells
E. Vas deferens

E. Vas deferens (Correct)

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Which of the following most accurately represents the odds that two carriers of a
disorder characterized by homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency will have a child
who inherits the disorder?
A. 0%
B. 12.5%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 66%

C. 25% (Correct)

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Which of the following is most closely associated with a treponema pallidum
infection?
A. Anti-nuclear antibodies
B. Anti ds-DNA antibodies
C. Anti ribonucleoprotein antibody
D. Anti Sm antibodies
E. Cardiolipin antibodies

E. Cardiolipin antibodies (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following oxidase-negative bacteria does not produce hydrogen
sulfide?
A. Salmonella
B. Proteus
C. Shigella
D. Pseudomonas
E. Pasteurella

C. Shigella (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following bacteria is a diplococcic that does not ferment maltose?
A. N. Meningitidis
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Enterobacter
D. C. Jejuni
E. N. Gonorrhea (

E. N. Gonorrhea (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following correctly describes the position whereby a replacement of
arginine for glycine leads to Achondroplasia?
A. 181st position
B. 380th position
C. 508th position
D. 509th position
E. 612th position

B. 380th position (Correct)

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Which of the following is both effective at increasing HDL and a cause of skin
flushing?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B4
E. Vitamin B5

C. Vitamin B3 (Correct)

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Which of the following is associated with severe anal pruritis?
A. Echinococcus
B. Ascaris Lumbricoides
C. Paragonimus Westermani
D. Cutanea Larva Migrans
E. Enterobius Vermicularis

E. Enterobius Vermicularis (Your Answer)(Correct)

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Which of the following metabolites is responsible for the dense pigments found
within the liver in cases of Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Glucagon
E. Glycogen

A. Epinephrine (Correct)

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Which of the following receptor types is found on the pre-synaptic axons, providing
negative feedback by binding norepinephrine?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2
E. Muscarinic

B. Alpha 2 (Correct)

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Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a 35-year old male with a
diagnosis of Alkaptonuria?
A. Arthritis of the knees and wrists
B. Increased risk of ascending aortic dissection
C. Increased risk of skin cancer
D. Increased risk of renal stone formation
E. Recurring pulmonary infections

A. Arthritis of the knees and wrists (Correct)

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Which of the following is a slow fermenter of lactose?
A. Klebsiella
B. Serratia
C. E. Coli
D. Pseudomonas
E. Enterobacte

B. Serratia (Correct)

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Which of the following trinucleotide repeats is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia?
A. CGG
B. GAA
C. CAG
D. CAC
E. CGC

B. GAA (Correct)

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Which of the following anti-seizure medications is most closely associated with
Steven-Johnson syndrome?
A. Ethosuxamide
B. Carbamazepine
C. Gabapentin
D. Oxcarbazepine
E. Lamotrigine

E. Lamotrigine (Correct)

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Which of the following genes is responsible for the development of Wilson
disease?
A. IL2-RG
B. FBN-1
C. ATP7B
D. SOX11
E. SHOX

C. ATP7B (Your Answer)(Correct)

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When the sperm encounters an egg, the acrosomal reaction is initiated once the
sperm cell binds to this glycoprotein:
A. ZP1
B. ZP2
C. ZP3
D. ZP4
E. ZP5

C. ZP3 (Your Answer)(Correct)

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It is recommended that your 15-year old female patient with severe cystic acne is started on Isotretinoin. Prior to prescribing this medication, checking which of the following is mandatory? A. Serum AFP B. Beta hCG C. Liver function tests D. Pulmonary function tests E. BUN/C

B. Beta hCG (Correct)

Which of the following medications is a known cause of tendon damage? A. Erythromycin B. Aztreonam C. Ciprofloxacin D. Meropenem E. Amikacin

C. Ciprofloxacin (Correct)

Which of the following parasites is known to lead to neurocysticercosis once reaching the brain? A. Echinococcus B. Taenia solium C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Ascaris lumbricoides E. Strongyloides stercoralis

B. Taenia solium (Correct)

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for causing an ectopic pregnancy? A. N. Gonorrhea B. S. Saprophyticus C. Vibrio Vulnificus D. Chlamydia Trachomatis E. Chlamydia Psittaci

D. Chlamydia Trachomatis (Correct)

Which of the following would most effectively manage the adverse effects associated with Grave's disease? A. Isoprenaline B. Tamsulosin C. Bisoprolol D. Nicardipine E. Oxymetazoline

C. Bisoprolol (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 50s ribosome? A. Amikacin B. Minocycline C. Nalidixic acid D. Metronidazole E. Clarithromycin

E. Clarithromycin (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following most accurately describes the number of amino acids found in GH? A. 188 B. 189 C. 190 D. 191 E. 192

D. 191 (Correct)

Decreased expression of which of the following is most likely seen in an infant who has delayed detachment of the umbilical cord? A. CD10 B. CD12 C. CD18 D. CD20 E. CD54

c. CD18

Which of the following is an inducer of the CYP450 system? A. Ketoconazole B. Isoniazid C. Ritonavir D. Griseofulvin E. Cimetidine

D. Griseofulvin (Correct) St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses greasy carbs and chronic alcohol

Which of the following is an inducer of the CYP450 system? A. Ketoconazole B. Isoniazid C. Ritonavir D. Griseofulvin E. Cimetidine

D. Griseofulvin (Correct) St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses greasy carbs and chronic alcohol St. John’s wort Phenytoin Phenobarbital Modafinil Nevirapine Rifampin Griseofulvin Carbamazepine Chronic alcohol overuse

Which of the following gastrointestinal disorders is seen in approximately 10% of all cystic fibrosis patients? A. Intussusception B. Rectal prolapse C. Pyloric stenosis D. Volvulus E. Meckel's diverticulum

B. Rectal prolapse (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following is the most appropriate antidote for streptokinase toxicity? A. Aminocaproic acid B. N-Acetylcysteine C. Dimercaprol D. Deferoxamine E. EDTA

A. Aminocaproic acid (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following organisms is most closely linked to the development of colon cancer? A. Staph Saprophyticus B. Strep Agalactiae C. Strep Bovis (Gallolyticus) D. Clostridium Difficile E. Corynbacterium species

C. Strep Bovis (Gallolyticus) (Correct)

Which of the following genes is responsible for early-onset Alzheimer's disease in Down syndrome? A. ARP B. APP C. APB7 D. IL2-RG E. SURF-1

B. APP (Correct)

Which of the following is most closely associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis? A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Azithromycin D. Levofloxacin E. Ciprofloxacin

A. Ampicillin (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following is most closely associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis? A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Azithromycin D. Levofloxacin E. Ciprofloxacin

A. Ampicillin (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following amino acid alterations is responsible for the presence of an overactive FGFR3 gene? A. Arginine replaces Glycine B. Glycine replaces Arginine C. Arginine replaces Glutamine D. Glycine replaces Asparagine E. Leucine replaces Lysine

A. Arginine replaces Glycine (Correct)

A patient of yours is diagnosed as having a mutation of the LDLR gene, and is therefore at greater risk than the general population of early development of which of the following? A. Otosclerosis B. Osteoporosis C. Visual deterioration D. Atherosclerosis E. Hearing loss

D. Atherosclerosis (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following most accurately describes the physical findings associated with disseminated histoplasmosis? A. Ulcerated lesions of the tongue B. Bullous lesions of the lung apices C. Cardiac fibrosis D. Pulmonary fibrosis E. Undulating fever

A. Ulcerated lesions of the tongue (Correct)

A gene located on which of the following chromosomes is associated with cystic fibrosis? A. Chromosome 5 B. Chromosome 6 (Your Answer)(Incorrect) C. Chromosome 7 (Correct) D. Chromosome 8 E. Chromosome 9

C. Chromosome 7 (Correct)

Which of the following is not a member of the Flavivirus family? A. Dengue fever B. Rhinovirus C. Yellow fever D. West Nile E. St. Louis encephalitis

B. Rhinovirus (Correct)

Which of the following genetic conditions is caused by a mutation to the MECP2 gene? A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency B. GM1 gangliosidosis C. Rett syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Hemochromatosis

C. Rett syndrome (Your Answer)(Correct)

Iron-deficiency anemia may be the result of infection/infestation with which of the following organisms? A. Ancylostoma Duodenale B. Enterobius Vermicularis C. Trypanosoma Cruzii D. Trypanosoma Brucei E. Listeria Monocytogenes

A. Ancylostoma Duodenale (Correct)

Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity? A. Penicillamine B. Vitamin K & fresh frozen plasma C. Phenoxybenzamine D. N-Acetylcysteine E. Protamine Sulfate

E. Protamine Sulfate (Correct)

Marfan syndrome can be linked to a gene mutation found on which of the following chromosomes? A. 5 B. 13 C. 15 D. 19 E. 21

C. 15 (Correct)

Which of the following is a prophylactic for plasmodium infection that acts as an inhibitor of the dihydrofolate reductase enzyme? A. Mefloquine B. Quinine C. Piperaquine D. Pyrimethamine E. Lumefantrine

D. Pyrimethamine (Correct)

Which of the following types of collagen is most closely related to Alport syndrome? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5

D. Type 4 (Correct)

Which of the following medications is a known inhibitor of ADP release from the platelets? A. Abciximab B. Aspirin C. Tirofiban D. Eptifibatide E. Clopidogrel

E. Clopidogrel (Correct)

Which of the following recurring dermatologic findings is characteristic of X-linked SCID? A. Psoriasis B. Cutaneous candidiasis C. Cellulitis D. Eczema-like rash E. Erysipelas

D. Eczema-like rash (Correct)

Which of the following is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in 10-30 year olds? A. C. Pneumonia B. S. Pneumonia C. H. Influenza D. M. Pneumonia E. S. Aureus

D. M. Pneumonia (Correct)

Which of the following parasites lays eggs large enough to be visualized in the feces? A. Ascaris Lumbricoides B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Strongyloides Stercoralis D. Trichinella Spiralis E. Dracunculus Medinensis

A. Ascaris Lumbricoides (Correct)

Which of the following cutaneous signs is most telling of Tuberous Sclerosis? A. Café-Au-Lait spots B. Ash-leaf spots C. Port-wine stain D. Seborrheic dermatitis E. Eczematous rash

B. Ash-leaf spots (Correct)

) Which of the following receptors is blocked by either Eptifibatide or Abciximab? A. ADP receptor B. TXA2 receptor C. gpIb receptor D. gpIIb/IIIa receptor E. gpIa receptor

D. gpIIb/IIIa receptor (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following medications is not a common cause of photosensitivity? A. Amiloride B. Sulfonamides C. Tetracycline D. 5-Fluorouracil E. Amiodarone

A. Amiloride (Correct)

Which of the following is deficient in cases of Christmas disease? A. Factor 8 B. Factor 9 (Your Answer)(Correct) C. Factor Xa D. Factor 7 E. Protein C

B. Factor 9

Which of the following is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? A. Flumazenil B. Penicillamine C. Dimercaprol D. N-Acetylcysteine E. Sodium Bicarbonate

D. N-Acetylcysteine (Correct)

Which of the following alpha 2 agonists is safe for use in pregnant patients? A. Clonidine B. Tizanidine C. Guanoxabenz D. Methyldopa E. Guanabenz

D. Methyldopa (Correct)

Which of the following is most closely associated with a renal angiomyolipoma? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome D. Dupin-Johnson syndrome E. Friedreich's ataxia

A. Tuberous sclerosis (Your Answer)(Correct)

The Presenilin 1 and Presenilin 2 genes are located on which two chromosomes? A. 1 and 15 B. 2 and 14 C. 1 and 14 D. 14 and 21 E. 1 and 21

C. 1 and 14 (Correct)

Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by Thiabendazole? A. Xanthine Oxidase B. Ornithine Transcarbamoylase C. Squalene mono-oxygenase D. Squalene Epoxidase E. Mitochondrial fumarate reductase

E. Mitochondrial fumarate reductase (Correct)

Hartnup's disease most closely mimics the signs and symptoms associated with deficiency of which of the following? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin B9 F. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin B3 (Correct)

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 30s ribosome? A. Doxycycline B. Linezolid C. Piperacillin D. Nafcillin E. Azithromycin

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 30s ribosome? A. Doxycycline (Correct)

Which of the following street drugs is known to induce a coronary artery vasospasm, and is a known cause of myocardial infarction in younger people? A. Lysergic acid diethylamide B. Phencyclidine C. Methamphetamine D. Cocaine E. Marijuana

D. Cocaine (Correct)

Retinoblastoma can be most closely linked to a mutation of this chromosome? A. 13 B. 14 C. 15 D. 16 E. 17

Retinoblastoma can be most closely linked to a mutation of this chromosome? A. 13 (Correct)

Which of the following findings are most consistent with MEN1 syndrome? A. Pituitary adenoma, Pheocromocytoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia B. Pituitary adenoma, Marfanoid body habitus, Medullary thyroid carcinoma C. Pancreatic tumors, Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia D. Pheocromocytoma, Pituitary adenoma, Marfanoid body habitus E. Parathyroid hyperplasia, Mucosal neuromas, Pancreatic tumors

C. Pancreatic tumors, Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia (Your Answer)(Correct)

Which of the following timeframes most accurately describes that in which the emetic toxin from B. Cereus may begin to exhibit symptoms? A. 30 minutes - 6hrs B. 6-12hrs C. 12-18hrs D. 18-24hrs E. 24-72hrs

Which of the following timeframes most accurately describes that in which the emetic toxin from B. Cereus may begin to exhibit symptoms? A. 30 minutes - 6hrs (Correct)

Dural ectasia, a condition characterized by weakening of the connective tissue of the dural sac, is commonly associated with which of the following? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome D. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome E. Marfan syndrome

E. Marfan syndrome (Correct)

Which of the following is the most likely initial presentation of Alport syndrome? A. Hematuria B. Hemoptysis C. Visual decline D. Loss of hearing (high-pitched frequency) E. Loss of hearing (low-pitched frequency)

A. Hematuria (Correct)

Which of the following neurocutaneous syndromes is most closely associated with a port-wine stain? A. Osler-Weber-Rendu B. Neurofibromatosis 1 C. Von Hippel Lindau D. Sturge-Weber E. Neurofibromatosis 2

D. Sturge-Weber (Correct)

PKU is caused by a deficiency of this enzyme:

phenylalanine hydroxylase

name the oxygen containing amino acids

serine threonine tyrosine

the conversion of 5 methyltetrahydrofolate into tetrahydrofolate requires vitamin b12 and this enzyme

methionine synthase

fill out the table

name 3 pathways that occur in both the cytosol and mitochondria

I. heme synthesis II. gluconeogenesis III. urea cycle

this splits PIP2 into IP3 and DAG

phospholipase C

name the nitrogen-containing amino acids

glutamine, asparagine

name the 2 shuttles and the enzymes that can get NADH into the mitochondria

malate=aspartate;enzyme is malate dehydrogenase glycerol 3 phosphate; enzyme is glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

name the allosteric activator of the pfk-1 enzyme:

amp, f26bp

name the enzyme that converts 1,3bpg into 2,3bpg under stressful circumstances

bisphosphoglycerate mutase

a full thickness wound will see contraction beginning as late as this many days post injury

14 days

In phosphorylating the myosin light chain, activation the enzyme responsible for this phosphorylation is achieved by the binding of these two structures:

calcium & calmodulin

coenzymes required to convert pyruvate into acetyl coa requires this number of co-enzymes:

I. TPP thiamine-vitamin B1) - carboxylation II. lipoic acid (vitamin b4)-accept 2 carbon unit III. CoA (Pantothenic acid-vitamin b5)- final 2 carbon acceptor IV. riboflavin (vitamin b2) - oxidize lipoic acid V. Nicacin (vitamin B3) - oxidize FADH2

name the aromatic amino acids (hint:PTT mnemonic)

phenylalanine, tryptophan, tyrosine

This enzyme adds guanine residues to the 5'5' triphosphate link during formation of the 7-methylguanosine cap:

guanosyl transferase. it ensures protection of 5'end from ribonuclease attack. pg. 54 biochemistry

the mitotic phase is characterized by chromosomes lining up along a centrally located plate:

metaphase

name the 3 pre mRNA modifications made prior to translation:

I.intron removal II.addition of poly A tail III. addition of methyguanosine cap

this is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle:

isocitrate dehydrogenase

per turn of the citric acid cycle, this total number of ATP is generated:

10 ATPs per turn

in converting pyruvate into acetyl coa, this number of ATPs is generated:

5 atps

this is the total number of nadh molecules made per turn of the citric acid cycle:

3 NADH. it is coming from the isocitrate -->alpha ketoglutarate alphaketoglutarate--> succinyl coa malate--> oxaloacetate enzymes in order: isocitrate dh akg-dH malate DH

disulfiram exerts its effects by inhibiting this enzyme:

acetaldehyde DH pg 97 in usmle success biochemistry

accumulation fo F-I-P is associated with deficiency of this enzyme;

Aldolase B. fructose metabolism if deficient leads to fructosemia. evidents when baby started on fruits pg 94-95 biochemistry usmle success

this pathway reduces glucose into sorbitol

aldose reductase pathway. can lead to cataract in galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase pg 94 biochemistry usmle success

which of the following is both rod shaped and a fast fermenter of lactose? A. Citrobacter B. Serratia C. Pseudomonas D. Yersinia E. Klebsiella

E. Klebsiella (Correct)

Which of the following syndromes is not inherited in a mitochondrial fashion? A. MELAS syndrome B. MERRF syndrome C. LHON D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy E. Leigh syndrome

D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Correct)

name the allosteric activators of the glycolytic pathway

fructose 26bp, amp

autosomal dominant diseases mneumonic

Jobs liver mocha stnd p job syndrome li fraumeni acute intermittent porphyria vhl vwd essential tremor retinoblastoma marfan syndrome olssier weber rendu cholesterolemia familial huntington disease, hypokalemia periodic paralysis achondroplasia, acute polycystic kidney disease spherocytosis surge weber tuberculosis sclerosis neurofibromatosis dystrophy (myotonic) familial adenidosis polytosis

inducer cyp450

St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses greasy carbs and chronic alcohol

usmle success Flashcards

(103 cards)