USMLE World Flashcards
(201 cards)
A 28 y/o G2P2 at 26 wks comes in with 4 days of right flank pain that radiates to her groin. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far, has a PMHx significant for PID, and has moderate right flank percussion tenderness with microscopic hematuria without nitrites or leukocyte esterase in the urine. Next step?
Patient likely has renal colic - aka. stones. She needs a US of her kidneys and renal pelvis. Shockwave lithotripsy is CI’d in pregnancy. Can consider low-dose CT urography in second and third trimesters only.
37 y/o with LMP -25days comes in with a BP 130/80, HR 110, RR25, T 36.8, and bilateral lower quadrant pain with mild guarding. She describes pain in the periumbilical area that localized to the lower abdomen. Her WC# is 10,9. What is the next step?
Even though it is unlikely, a B-HCG is necessary to rule out pregnancy. It can pick up a pregnancy within 4 days of implantation. She would need a US if the pregnancy test was positive, or an abdominal CT if it was negative.
47 y/o with history of mastitis with her first child 20 years ago, comes in with left breast swelling and pain. She has a 7x6 cm area of edema and erythema, and a poorly localized mass without fluctuation. She has scant non-bloody discharge at the nipple and several large axillary LNs. What do we do next?
This patient likely has Peau d’ orange on her breast which is a sign of inflammatory breast carcinoma. It is often associated with axillary LAD, spontaneous nipple d/c. Do histology on a biopsy to exclude or confirm the diagnosis, then treat. 1/4 of patients have mets at presentation.
Patient comes to you looking for emergency contraception options. What can you offer her?
Copper IUD (99% effective within 5d), Ulipristal pill (anti-progestin, delays ovulation, >85% effective within 5d), Levonorgestrel pill (progestin, delays ovulation, 85% effective within 3d), OCPs (75% effective within 3 d).
What cancers does Tamoxifen increase the risk for?
Endometrial Cancer and Uterine Sarcoma.
What are the options for prenatal testing for a female with a family history of Down syndrome to rule out aneuploidy?
If the Patient is >34, give Cell-free fetal DNA testing (cffDNA), ~99% for trisomy 21, ~92% for Trisomy 18, ~80% for Trisomy 13. If
A 22 y/o G1P0 at 13 weeks comes in with vaginal bleeding without tissue passage. She has no history of trauma, tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She has a closed cervix, a slightly tender uterus c/w gestational age, and free adnexae. US shows normal fetal heart motion. dx?
Threatened Abortion: term used to describe hemorrhage before 20 weeks, closed cervix, no passage of fetal tissue. Incomplete Abortion includes passage of some, but not all tissue. Inevitable abortion has vaginal bleeding, cramps that radiate to the back and perineum, dilated cervix, and US shows no fetal heart motion and a collapsed gestational sac. Follow this up Outpatient.
A 49 y/o woman presents with a strange, itchy rash on her left nipple; an excezematous plaque. Biopsy shows halo-like areas invading the epidermis. Dx?
Adenocarcinoma. The skin finding is Paget Disease of the breast, which results from infiltration of a ductal carcinoma into a dermal lymphatic system.
A woman with hypertension during pregnancy. What meds can you use?
Methyldopa, labetalol (B-blockers), Hydralazine, CCBs. Thiazides and Clonidine are second line.
What is the most accurate way to measure gestational age in a pregnant woman?
First trimester ultrasound with crown-rump length. Ideally it should be done from 7-10 weeks (which gives accuracy of +/- 3 d).
39 y/o primiparum comes in with 3 weeks of nausea and vomiting that have progressively worsened. She has had intermittent vaginal bleeding since her most recent period, 2 months ago, and has been having intercourse with her husband without protection in order to conceive. She is dehydrated and has a 10week uterus. What does she have?
Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
Risk Factors: HG in prior pregnancy, multiple gestation, molar pregancy.
Clinical: Severe, persistent vomiting, fluid/electrolyte abnormalities, ketonuria, >5% wt loss.
Workup: Orthostatic vitals, serum lytes, BUN, Cr, TSH, UA.
Trt: Diet, hydration, ginger, B6 +/- doxylamine.
Patient with postpartum hemmorhage with passage of large blood clots. She had normal labor, normal placental pathology, and has a soft fundus at the umbilicus. What is the cause?
Atony of the uterus. 80% of PPH is caused by this. Next step is fundal massage, IV access, oxytocin. If still uncontrolled, uterine packing (ballooning) can be used.
When should CVS be completed in order to give a definitive karyotype?
10-13 weeks
Patient has abnormal values on a quad-screen. Whats the next step?
US. Then Amnio (15-20 weeks) or CVS (10-13 weeks).
Neonate is born with a birth weight of 2080g, a temp of 37.2, and a HR of 190. Mother had a surgically resected thyroid for graves disease 6 months prior, and became hypothyroid post-surgery for which she took levothyroxine. What is the best treatment?
Methimazole PLUS B-blocker. Will self-resolve within 3 months; Neonatal Thyrotoxicosis from transplacental TSH-receptor Ab.
A 22 y/o shows up after her first few experiences with intercourse stating that she had intense pain during sexual activity due to tensing of her vagina. Speculum exam is not possible due to tense perineal musculature. Dx and trt?
Vaginismus; prescribe kegel exercises and gradual dilatation. Most often caused by strict, negative upbringings towards sex, leading to involuntary contraction of the perineal musculature; psychological cause.
A 28 y/o comes in for a pap smear and ASC-US is found. Next step?
> 25 y/o, HPV testing. Colposcopy if abnormal.21-24 should get repeat pap at 12 months.
73 year old female presents with foul-smelling, bloody vaginal d/c for several months. She has a 40 year pack history of smoking, has not been sexually active for the past 10 years, and has an atrophic vagina with an irregular lesion of 1cm in the upper 1/3 of the posterior wall. Whats next?
She likely has a squamous cell carcinoma (HPV 16/18), which is caused by cig use, age >60, and often is found in the upper 1/3 of the posterior wall (vice upper 1/3 of anterior wall and history of DES in utero in a young woman for clear cell carcinoma). She should get a biopsy.
Woman presents at 37th week with a breech fetus. What is a contraindication to external version?
Placental abnormalities, fetopelvic disporportion, hyperextended fetal head. Note that prior to 37th week, no intervention would be completed. Failure leads to C-S.
Woman comes in with urinary frequency x2 days, suprapubic tenderness, and UA significant for nitrite, leukocyte esterase, and bacteria. Why do women get this problem more than men?
UTI: women> men due to shorter urethra. Other predisposing factors include altered normal flora by recent Abx, sexual intercourse, spermicide use, FHx.
A 29 y/o nulligravida comes in with a contraceptive history of OCPs until 1 year ago, and >6months of amennorhea. She had irregular periods before OCPs, but got off them in an effort to conceive . She eats well, exercises regularly, has a BMI of 22, and is not pregnant (negative B-HCG). Next step?
Amenorrhea for >3 cycles or >6 months = secondary amenorrhea. If Negative Pregnancy test, check PRL, TSH, FSH to check for need for MRI, hypothyroid, Premature ovarian failure. Prior history of an intrauterine infection could indicate a need for a hysteroscopy.
A 30 y/o G2P1 at 37wks comes in with sudden vaginal bleeding and painful uterine contractions. Her pregnancy was uncomplicated, though she has been trying to quit smoking. Her VS are wnl, PE shows a 3cm dilated cervix, vaginal bleeding, and a vertex presentation. Contractions are every 3 minutes. Fetal heart tracing is 140bpm, good variability, access no decels. Whats next?
Vaginal delivery. This patient has had a placental abruption, which can be caused by maternal HTN, abdominal trauma, cocaine + tobacco use. It presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding, abdominal/back pain, high frequency/low intensity contractions, hypertonic tender uterus. Treatment depends on mom’s stability - unstable - go to Cesarian (emergency), stable and >34wks - try vaginal birth.
A 32 y/o nullip comes in for an epidural placement for pain control during delivery. After induction, she feels light-headed, has a pressure drop from 120/90 to 90/55, and her HR spikes to 120 with RR of 12. She has normal strength and sensation in her upper extremities. Whats the cause and treatment?
This patient has hypotension as a side effect of epidural anesthesia. It causes vasodilation and venous pooling, which can be combatted by good hydration (IV fluids) and left uterine displacement (position patient on their left) to improve venous return. Pressors can also be used.
A 24 year old comes in with a self-palpated breast lump. She found it in the shower, and says that it is mildly tender. She has regular periods every 26 days, and her LMP was 3 weeks ago. She has no family history of breast cancer, has no LAD. Next step?
Have her come back after her menstrual period. The probability of benign disease is very high if the mass decreases in size, and therefore is a good first step before more invasive diagnostic techniques are done.