UW Notes 4 Flashcards

(162 cards)

1
Q

What is the shape of cystine renal stones?

How do you diagnose cystinuria?

A

hexagonal opaque

diagnose with urine cyanide nitroprusside test

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2
Q

what’s the difference between acute otitis media and otitis media with effusion?

A

AOM is acutely inflammed and can/likely have effusion

otitis media with effusion is not acutely inflammed

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3
Q

what is the time frame for PCI s/p MI?

A

12 hours since symptoms started
90 minutes door (aka medical contact) to balloon time.
or 120 minutes door to thrombolytic therapy

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4
Q

why is it that small for gestation babies can have hypoglycemia? AND hyperglycemia?

A

hypoglycemia because they’re small with little glycogen store.

hyperglycemia because they have insufficient insulin

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5
Q

If pt is brain dead. who do you need permission from before removing support?

A

no one

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6
Q

If you’re worried about pancreatic cancer how do you evaluate it?

A

CT scan. If there’s obstructive chole then you can do an US first

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7
Q

can LMWH cause HIT?

A

yes

Sx of thrombocytopenia + thrombosis of A &V

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8
Q

ADHD is associated with what other psych disorder?

A

oppositional defiant

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9
Q

ankylosing spondylitis. you do an xray to test for it even though it might not show anything at first… but why don’t you do a HLAB27 to start with?

A

only few people with HLA b27 have ankylosing spondylitis; but almost al AS patients have HLA b27

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10
Q

what med is used to treat pericaditis?

A

ibuprofen

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11
Q

what are the two options for bioplar longterm maintenance therapy? which is preferred when?

A

lithium is the standard. but Valproate is preferred when pt’s RENAL function is bad

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12
Q

is goodpastures nephrotic or nephritic?

A

nephritic

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13
Q

nitroprusside can precipitate what poisoning? what are the sx?

A

cyanide poisoning. it can precipitate seizure, AMS, coma, actic acidosis

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14
Q

what is spinal shock?

A

it is where spinal injury initially result in flaccid paralysis. This will change over the next days into UMN defect

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15
Q

what are the recommended vaccines for an older person with HIV?

A

influenza, hepB, varicella if CD4>200; Td q10y; and PCV13/PPSV23

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16
Q

There’s an increased incidence of what with erythromycin in infants?

A

pyloric stenosis

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17
Q

class IC, like flecainide, are “use dependent”. In faster heart rates they can’t dissociate as well from the Na channels… what change can be seen on ECG?

A

widenened QRS complex

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18
Q

Odds ratio is calculated for case control studies; Relative risk is calculated for cohort studies. Odds ratio is a a good approximation of relative risk when what is true?

A

when disease is rare the RR is a good approximation of OR

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19
Q

antithyroperoxidase antibodies are seen in what disease?

A

Hashimoto

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20
Q

orchipexy for cryptochidism removes chances of hernia and torsion but does not remove chances of waht?

A

lowered sperm count and cancer

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21
Q

what should you do if pt develops tardive dyskinesia while on antipsychs?

A

wean to a lower dose.

If you NEED it then you switch to CLOZAPINE

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22
Q

young person with kyphosis, high arch, hammer toe, ataxia. what is this?

A

Freidrich’s ataxia.

cardiac and resipiratory problems are most common.

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23
Q

what are the quad findings in Trisomy 21?

A

betahCG high, inhibin A high, estriol low, AFP low

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24
Q

What are the quad findings in Edward syndrome Trisomy 18

A

beta hcg low, inhibin A normal, estriol low, AFP low

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25
what does high AFP in quad screen mean?
abd wall defect, neurotube defect, or multiple gestation
26
what is the Epo level like in Polycythemia vera?
Epo is low. Epo is upstream activator of JAK2... thus jak2 mutation will constitutively activation RBC synthesis... and Epo will be suppressed via neg feedback
27
what are three saline resistant metabolic alkalosis etiologies?
Cushing's primary hyperaldosterone severe hypokalemia
28
what should you give to step pneumo meningitis pt other than abx
dexamethasone
29
empiric tx for meningitis
cefipime, vanco, +/- ampi
30
Secondary amyloidosis (AA)... what is the treatment?
colchicine
31
what are the sx of amyloidosis ?
hypertrophy of heart, 4th heart sound, palpable kidney, hepatomegaly
32
What are some complications from pos pressure mechanical ventilation?
ARDS, pneumonia, pneumothorax
33
kidney stone in a pregnant person. how to dx?
US
34
what organism is the most common in CF children for pneumonia? treatment?
staph aureus. vanco IV
35
what is the empric abx treatment for
floroquinolone (moxi); OR ceftriaxone + azithromycin
36
boy with gout
lysch nyhan
37
pt with Guillain barre... what test should you do to assess breathing?
Spirometry
38
what condition is most strongly associated with stroke
hypertension
39
how do you treat myesthenia crisis?
you do plasmaphoresis; also ABCs
40
what is the biggest cause for cerebral palsy?
prematurity (intrapartum hypoxia accounts for a small number)
41
abortive migraine treatments? name 2
prochlorperazine, tryptans
42
prophylactic migraine treatment?
propranolol
43
immunoCOMPETENT person with ring enhancing lesion. what is it?
brain abscess. | if associated with sinusitis-->think viridans strep
44
Rh incompatibility could be a huge deal. However, ABO isn't. why?
ABO incompatibility usually only cause very mild disease in infants. They can develop some neonatal jaundice and can be treated with photothreapy
45
Simple cystitis UTI can be treated empirically and no cultures are needed. what are the drug choices
SMX-TMP for 5 days; nitrofurantoin for 3 days, or fosfomycin single dose
46
What is complicated UTI/cystitis? and how should you treat it?
pregnancy, immunocompromised, caused by procedure, hospital acquired, diabetes, chronic kidney disease you need a culture before abx... which should be floroquinolones
47
what is the treatment of choice for SCFE?
surgical fixation
48
who should get meningococcal vaccination? age and population?
age: 12 and booster at 16 group: college dorm, military recruits, and subsaharan african
49
Light's criteria is used to do what? what is it?
it's used to determine exudate versus transudate. fluid/serum protein >0.5; and fluid/serum LDH >0.6 is exudate
50
what's the acid base disturbance associated with Conn's syndrome?
metabolic alkalosis
51
baby with mousy odor
PKU
52
what deficiency caues abnormal taste?
zinc. along with alopecia, poor wound healing
53
wallenberg syndrome is blockage of what vessels? x2
PICA or vertebral art
54
TB can cause adrenal insufficiency via infiltration. What pH problem can develop?
metabolic acidosis due to decreased aldosterone--> decreased rid of K and H
55
nephrotic syndrome in the presence of organ enlargement (liver/kidney)
amyloidosis
56
Hypothyroidism can cause what effects on lipids? sodium? creatinine and liver enzymes?
it can cause hyperlipidemia, hyponatremia, and asymptomatic elevation of creatinine and liver enzymes
57
schizophrenia CT head findings?
enlarged ventricles decreased cortical volume
58
define hypertensive urgency? hypertensive emergency? malignant hypertension?
urgency is BP >180/120 emergency is any sx + the BP malignant HTN is BP + retinal exudates, hemorrhage, papilloedema
59
what are some long term sequelae of meningititis?
``` hearing loss cognition loss seizures mental retardation spasticity/paresis ```
60
primary biliary cirrhosis. what is the treatment?
ursodeoxycholic acid
61
how do you diagnose avascular necrosis of the fem head?
MRI
62
3 features of wernicke's encephalopathy?
confusion nystagmus ataxia
63
why can IV acyclovir be associated with renal failure? what should you do to prevent this?
it can cause crystal precipitation. | you should aggressively hydrate to prevent
64
immunecompromised people can get invasive aspergilosis of the lungs. Sx include fever, hemoptysis, chest pain. What does it look like on Xray?
nodule with surrounding ground glass opacity
65
What are the signs of felty syndrome? what is this associated with?
Felty is arthritis, spenomegaly, and neutropenia. | it's associated with severe rheumatoid arthritis
66
renal tubular acidosis type 1 is where and what's the defect?
it's distal tubule; decreased excretion of H
67
renal tubular acidosis type 2. where is it and what's the defect?
proximal tubule decreased reabsoprtion of bicarb
68
what are some ototoxic drugs?
aminoglycoside loop diuretics asprin chemo agents
69
when should babies regain their birthweight?
by 2 weeks
70
features of wiskot aldrich?
thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections
71
chronic granulomatous diseae is defect in NADPH oxidase enzyme leading to inability to kill catalase positive organisms. how to dx?
dx via dihydrorhodamine test or | nitroblue tetrazolium test
72
what's the most accurate method of estimating gestational age?
1st trimester US
73
cutaneous larva migrans is caused by what?
hook worm
74
hypercalcemia that's NOT related to parathyroid is msot likely due to what
malignancy
75
Immediate anticoagulation in a pt with renal disease...what med should you use?
heparin is preferred; NOT LMWH
76
what do you use to encourage weight gain in cachexic patients?
progestrone analogs
77
pulseless electrical activity should be treated how?
Chest compressions with vasopressors
78
what are the 5Ts and 5Hs that can cause PEA?
hypovolemia, hypoxia, hyper/hypokalemia, hypothermia, hydrogen ions (acidosis) Trauma, Thrombosis, Tension pneumo, Tamponade, toxins
79
exertional heat stroke definition
Temp >104 and encephalopathy
80
skin TB test. how big does the indurated area have to be to be psoitive if the pt is HIV+
5mm
81
NAFLD is associated with what condition?
insulin resistance
82
systemic sclerosis antibody?
anti topoisomerase I
83
pt without vaccination for hep B is exposed, what should you do?
immunoglobulin AND vaccinaion immediately
84
scabies treatment?
Ivermectin or permetherin cream
85
allergic rhinitis treatment?
intranasal glucocorticoid spray
86
what meds should you hold for a stress test?
for 48 hours: betablockers, calcium channel blockers, nitrates, vasodilators for 12 hours: hold caffeine
87
mechanism of diphenhydramine?
antihistamine and anticholinergic
88
what are appropriate treatments for asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?
cephalexin, amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin
89
type 4 renal tubular acidosis is characterized by what
hyperkalemia with non anion gap metabolic acidosis, and moderate renal insuff
90
croup has cough bronchiolitis does not. how do you treat croup?
steroids and racemic epi
91
asplenia predisposes to what kind of organisms?
encapsulated. strep pneumo, hemophilus, neisseria
92
hyperpigmentation occurs with what kind of adrenal disease?
primary adrenal insufficiency ONLY. not secondary. pigment is due to over production of ACTH
93
lung nodules of what size are worrisome for malig?
>2cm
94
parvo 19 in adults involve 1 or many joints
many
95
how should ticks be removed?
with tweezers
96
what diseases are carried by ixodes?
lyme, babesiosis, anaplasmosis
97
criteria for prophylaxis in lyme disease
attached tick, >36 hours or engorged, endemic area, prophylaxis started within 72 hours of tick removal, no doxy contraindication (<8, preg, or lactating)
98
sensory defects followed by allodynia...where is the stroke?
thalamus
99
what allows the confidence interval to narrow?
increased sample size
100
how does HIT present in pts s/p subQ LMWH?
necrotic patches of purple and red on abd
101
what meds other than isotretinoin can cause pseudotumor cerebri?
tetracyclins | growth hormone
102
what's the mutation in CML?
BCR-ABL 9:22
103
what class of drugs can you use to treat CML
imatinib; tyrosine kinase inhibitors
104
HIV linear esophageal ulcers (AKA YOU HAVE TO DO endoscopy to see it)
CMV esophagitis
105
what are the 4 emergency contraception methods?
Copper IUD Ulipristal Levoprogestrel Oral contraceptive pill
106
B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency can cause sideroblastic anemia. Why?
because it inhibits protoporphyrin synthesis. | you can see "dimorphic RBC population' of normochromic and hypochromic
107
microcytic anemia. how can you tell if it's thalassemia versus iron deficiency?
iron deficiency will have increased RDW >20; | thalassemia will have normal RDW
108
what's the treatment for atropic vaginitis? what's the treatment for lichen sclerosis?
atrophic is low dose topical steroids; | lichen is high dose topical steroids
109
Dopamine inhibits prolactin. What two things stimulate prolactin?
serotonin and TRH
110
painless bloody stools in infants
milk protein colitis; or it could be meckles
111
mets to the brain... what's the most likely source?
lung...then melanoma, colon, breast
112
pt in stable vtach. tx?
amiodarone
113
torsade de ponte tx?
magnesium sulfate/ defibrillation
114
sinus bradycardia. tx?
atropine
115
torsade depointe due to quinidine?
sodium bicarb
116
sx of babesiosis
fatigue, malaise, fever, hemolytic anemia and jaundice. treat with atovaquon + azithromycin or quinine do blood smear to visualize maltese cross
117
pregnant person got rubella vaccination on accident. how do you treat
expectant management
118
methemaglobinemia tx
methylene blue
119
cyanide poisoning treatment?
sodium thiosulfate
120
ethylene glycol treamtnt?
fomepizole
121
the triad findings of hereditary spherocytosis
splene enlargement, jaundice, negative coombsn, also elevated mchc
122
what blood abnomrlaities are associated with mono?
autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia
123
major side effects of cyclosporin?
nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, hypertension, gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, tremor
124
major toxicity of azathioprine
diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotoxicty
125
mycophenolate toxcity
marrow suppression
126
heat can damage what vitamin?
folate
127
what's mech of flutamide?
androgen receptor blocker
128
social anxiety treatment if it's performance related? if it's not performance related?
performance related-->propranolol | performance unrelated-->behaviroal therapy; SSRI
129
galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase deficiecy sx?
hypoglycemia, cataracts, jaundice, failure to thrive
130
galactokinase deficiency sx
only cataracts
131
tca antidote?
sodium bicarb
132
cluster HAprevention and tx?
prevent with lithium, verapamil, ergotamine
133
tx of bartholin cyst w/o infection?
observe
134
euthyroid sick syndrome is characterized by what?
low T3 level normal T4 and TSH
135
subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by what?
low T4 level, normal TSH
136
how to diagnose lactose intolerance?
breath hydrogen test, increased stool reducing agents, and increased stool osmotic gap
137
factor V leiden mechanism?
increased resistance to fantithrombin C
138
criteria for long term O2 therapy
Hct >55%, Sat O2 <89%, PaO2 <59
139
measles...what kind of precaution is needed?
airborne (neg air pressure)...not droplet
140
what marker in Hep b remains present during the window period? what are the two ebst tests for new hep B diagnosis?
HBc antibody IgM will be positive in the window period there fore Core IgM and surface antigen is the best.
141
how do you treat botulinum poisoning?
horse derived antitoxin antibody for passive immunity
142
how many percent is in 1 SD, 2SD, and 3SD?
68%, 95%, 99.7%
143
criteria for actue liver failure?
marked elevated ast/alt; encephalopathy; synthetic dysfunction
144
you suspect spinal cord compression. what should you do first? what should you do to image?
Give steroids; THEN do MRI
145
hyponatremic patient...what's the highest rate you can go up by?
0.5 meq/L/hour
146
myastheniua gravis can be brought on by infections and what drug?
floroquinolones
147
renal cyst filled with fluid...what do you do?
observe.
148
most common congenital cyanotic disease... egg on string? Single S2
transposition of great vessel.
149
acute bronchitis treatment?
symptomatic only. | typically Abronchitis is >5 days of coughing that easily mobilizes sputum
150
Lyme treatment in preg or lactating?
amoxicillin
151
patient presenting with pyelo...what's first, second? when do you image?
first collect urine, second give abx empirically. Image if they don't improve in 2-3 days
152
what does CMV viremia look like?
pneumonitis, gastritis, hepatitis
153
most common opportunistic organisms associated with transplants
CMV, PCP
154
splenomegaly and elevated alk phos with nonspecific symptoms in CD4<50? prophylaxis drug?
MAC infection; prophylax with Azithromycin
155
patient with PCP should be started on TMP-SMX at CD4 <200 and steroid should be added when?
if PaO2 is lower than 70
156
name the live vaccines?
MMR, varicella, rotavirus, nasal influenza
157
name the toxoid vaccines?
tetanus, diphtheria
158
name the killed vaccines?
hep A, polio
159
kids should be vaccinated according to their what age?
chronological
160
back pain in third trimester is because of?
increased lordosis and increased laxity of pelvic joints
161
if there's one brain metastasis, but the patient is functioning well what should you do?
resect it?
162
what should you do after a kid was exposed to varicella but currently has no sx?
vaccinate as prophylaxis