UWorld Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

how to treat squamous cell carcinoma

A

best is always surgery but you can also do cryotherapy, electrosurgery, and radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who is at greatest risk for postop pulmonary complications

A

COPD
smoking (they should stop > 4wks prior to surgery)
sleep apnea
heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

first line treatment for PCP agitation and also catatonia

A

benzos (you can add haloperidol if that doesnt help for PCP agitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

biventricular pacing device for pts in sinus rhythm who meet what three criteria?

A
  • LV ejection fraction < 35%
  • NYHA class 2,3,4, heart failure symptoms
  • Left bundle branch block with QRS duration > 150msec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does absent or reversed placental umbilical artery end-diastolic flow suggest?

A

placental insufficiency and impending fetal hypoxia

- indication for delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pain on deep vaginal penetration is a sign of what…

A

endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

corrected calcium

A

= measured total calcium + 0.8 (4 - measured albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to treat lactational mastitis

A

most commonly due to staph aureus
-first line: PO dicloxacillin and PO cephalexin
(both safe during breastfeeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

antibiotics in pediatric sepsis

A

= 28 days old (amp and gent or cefotaxime)

> 28 days (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime +/- vanc if meningeal involvement is suspected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

distinct p waves of at least 3 different morphologies with atrial rate > 100bpm

A

multifocal atrial tachycardia

  • correct underlying disturbance
  • AV nodal blockade (verapamil) if persistent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does digoxin toxicity look like

A

n/v, anorexia, fatigue, confusion, visual disturbances (color), and cardiac abnormalities

meds that can cause toxicity: verapamil, quinidine, and amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

vulvodynia and treatment

A
  • chronic > 3 months raw/burning vulvar pain , positive Q-tip test, pain with labial separation, no other signs of symptoms
  • tx: behavior modification, pelvic floor PT, CBT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

perimenopausal woman with intense vulvar pruritus

A

inflammatory vulvar disorder (lichen sclerosus, lichen planus, psoriasis)

-tx w/ topical steroid (clobetasol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

citalopram

A

SSRI that treats depression and associated insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

androgenetic alopecia (male pattern baldness)

A

starts in the frontal or temporal areas and progresses gradually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

alopecia areata

A

smooth and discrete areas of complete hair loss (no associated scaling, scarring, or inflammation)

-likely due to T-cell infiltration around the hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

best imaging modality for osteonecrosis/avascular necrosis of the femoral head

18
Q

pemphigoid gestationis

A

autoimmune disease pregnant ladies get in 2-3rd trimester

  • starts with itching
  • then develop rash, mainly periumbilical with some satellite lesions
19
Q

baby less than 2yo gets UTI… next step?

A

treat then do renal ultrasound

if the ultrasound shows abnormality OR recurrent infections then do voiding cysturethrogram

20
Q

postviral inflammation of thyroid that has prominent fevers and hyperthyroid symptoms with painful/tender goiter

A

subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain)

  • elevated ESR and CRP
  • low radioiodine uptake
21
Q

treatment for acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina)

A

dual antiplatelet therapy
anticoagulation
beta blocker (unless they have acute decompensated heart failure)
high intensity statin

22
Q

What is and how do you treat a blepharospasm

A

Focal form of dystonia with involuntary eye closure triggered by bright lights and irritants
Treat with botulinum toxin

23
Q

what is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in pt w/ hx of abdominal surgery

24
Q

first-line treatment for borderline personality disorder

A

dialectical behavior therapy

25
3 stages of HIV and cryptococcal meningitis treatment
1. induction (amp B and flucytosine for 2+ weeks until sxs ablate and CSF is sterile) 2. consolidation (8 weeks high dose fluconazole) 3. maintenance (1+ year low dose fluconazole)
26
first line treatment for insomnia
CBT
27
dermatomyositis is associated with what?
malignancy | - most commonly: adenocarcinoma cervix, ovaries, lung, pancreas, bladder, and stomach
28
lobular carcinoma in situ
nonmalignant lesion in terminal ducts of breasts | - associated with future cancer
29
alt and ast ratio in alcoholism
ast:alt will be 2:1 (give lorazepam prn)
30
treatment for postpartum endometritis
clinda and gent
31
microcytic, hypochromic anemia, mildly elevated ferritin, normal red cell distribution width
thalassemia trait
32
technitium-99
test for meckel's diverticulum (rule of 2s)
33
popping sensation in knee
ACL tear | - confirmed with MRI
34
catching/locking knee sensation
meniscal tear
35
knee struck from lateral side with planted foot
MCL tear
36
neuro issues + high mcv
B12 deficiency
37
how to diagnose acute myelopathy
spinal MRI to determine if its structural or inflammatory (gadolinium enhanced)
38
bowel/bladder dysfunction after URI
transverse myelitis (get MRI)
39
solitary pulmonary nodules
size <0.6cm do not need follow up size >0.8cm do require surveillance/additional management size >2cm is more than 50% likely to be cancer (do biopsy or surgical excision)
40
treatment of thyroid cancer
ultrasound to stage disease - < 1cm thyroid lobectomy - > = 1 cm, metastases, or radiation exposure then do total thyroidectomy
41
harsh holosystolic murmur in 4th left intercostal space
VSD
42
microcytic anemia > how do you differentiate between heme or globin deficiency
mentzer index (MCV/RBC count) > 13 = iron deficiency