UWorld Medicine Flashcards
(565 cards)
1
Q
Complications of acute pancreatitis
A
Effusion, ileus, pseudocyst, abscess, necrosis, renal failure, ARDS
2
Q
Immediate treatment for CRAO/amarousis fugax
A
Ocular massage, high flow oxygen
3
Q
Treatment for Prinzmetal’s angina
A
Cardizem
4
Q
Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by
A
HHV-8
5
Q
Ventricular arrhythmias 2/2 AMI Type IA vs IB
A
1A: re-entrant
1B: abnormal automaticity
6
Q
HBV treatment indicated when… Treat with…
A
Cirrhosis, CTX/IS, acute liver failure. Tenofovir
7
Q
Tinnitus, hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, cafe-au-lait spots
A
NF
8
Q
Which fungal infection mimics sarcoid?
A
Histoplasmosis
9
Q
NC granulomas are characteristic of which fungal infection?
A
Histoplasmosis
10
Q
The 2 fungal infections that mimic TB
A
Histo-cough/nodosum/NC gran; and Blasto
Blasto: skin lesions, osteolytic, prostate
11
Q
This fungal infection is endemic to SW USA.
A
Coccidocymycosis
12
Q
What types of screening should be performed in patients with compensated cirrhosis?
A
U/S, EGD, AFP q 6 months
13
Q
Medical therapy for variceal hemorrhage
A
Beta blockers
14
Q
Treatment for ascites
A
Paracentesis, Na restriction
15
Q
Oligoclonal bands in CSF
A
MS
16
Q
Albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF
A
GBS
17
Q
Decreased FEV1:FVC
A
Obstructive lung disease; decreased DLCO: COPD vs . non-decreased=asthma
18
Q
Normal FEV1:FVC
A
Restrictive lung disease; Decreased DLCO: ILD vs. non-decreased: OHS, MG, ALS, chest wall
19
Q
Winter’s formula
A
Determines appropriate respiratory compensation
PaCO2 = (1.5 x HCO3) + 8 +/-2
20
Q
Polyarthralgias, tenosynovitis, vesiculopustular lesions
A
Disseminated gonococcal infection
21
Q
Erythema migrans
A
Lyme
22
Q
What type of rash in disseminated meningococcal infection/
A
Petechial
23
Q
The major blood transfusion reactions
A
Immediate: IgA, anaphylactic
1-hour: Acute hemolytic 2/2 ABOi, fever/flank/DIC
Urticarial: 2-3 hours, IgE
Febrile: 1-6 houts 2/2 WBC releasing cytokines (leukocyte reduced)
2-10 days: Delayed hemolytic; anamestic Ab/sensitized
ALI: donor anti-leukocyte Ab; respiratory distress
24
Q
Which nephrotic syndrome a/w AA’s, HIV, heroin?
A
FSGS
25
Which nephrotic syndrome a/w HBV?
MN
26
Differentiate between 2 types of esophageal ca.
Adenoca: GE junction 2/2 Barrett's
Squamous: Anywhere, smoking/EtOH
27
Low risk vs high risk for esophageal cancer studies
Low risk: Barium esophagram
| High risk: Endoscopy
28
Initial treatment of a prolactinoma with no visual symptoms.
Cabergoline, bromocriptine
29
Beck's triad
Hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds
30
Pulsus paradoxus
Decrease in SBP by 10 with inspiration
31
Leukemoid reaction vs. CML
L: 50,000, high LAP
CM: 100,000 bcr-abl; basophilia
32
Most ideal treatment for HTN
Weight loss
33
Live attenuated vaccines
MMR, VZV, Yellow fever, IN influenza, Oral polio, Rota
34
Klinefelter has high or low FSH/LH
High
35
What combination of drugs can be used to correct K abnormalities in treatment of CHF?
Lasix, ACEi
36
Anti-topoisomerase Ab
Scleroderma
37
Anti-mitochondrial Ab
PBC
38
Anti-smooth muscle Ab
AI hepatitis
39
What is ichthytosis
Dry and rough skin with horny plates on the limbs
40
CYP Inducers
Phenobarbital, Carbamzepine, Rifampin, OCP, Ginsing, St. Johns
41
CYP Inhibitors
Tyl, Flagyl, NSAIDS, Amiodarione, Cranbery, SSSI, Omeprazole
42
What drug relieves symptoms of diffuse esophageal spasm?
NG
43
Where is angiotensinogen made?
Liver
44
Why should you avoid NSAID's in acute kidney injury?
PG's help dilate the afferent arteriole
45
Pulmonary hypertension in obesity hypoventilation syndrome is 2/2
Hypoxic vasoconstriction
46
Major potential adverse effect of PTU/Methimazole
Agranulocytosis
47
Broca's aphasia vs. Wenicke's aphasia
Broca's: Expressive
| Wernicke's: Comprehension
48
Greatest risk factor for CVA
Hypertension
49
What converts angiotensinogen into A1?
Renin
50
Where is ACE enzyme located?
Lung
51
What infection is common to gardeners?
Sporothrix
52
Hepatic hydrothorax can lead to R or L effusion?
R
53
Do you need a contrast CT for nephrolithiasis?
No
54
Does lupus anti-coagulant leads to increased or decreased PTT?
Increased
55
What is d-dimer
It is cross-linking fibrin, when the clot dissolves, d-dimer goes up
56
A potential complication of mono, besides splenic rupture.
AIHA (Cold, IgM)
57
How do you treat severe uremic pericarditis?
Dialysis
58
Long-term use of NSAIDS can lead to...
Peptic ulcers
59
What is the FDA approved drug to use in cancer cachexia?
Progesterone analogues: megestrol
60
For what is Marinol approved?
AIDS wasting
61
Does hyper or hypothyroid predispose to carpal tunnel syndrome?
Hypothyroid
62
Differentiate Mobitz 1 vs 2
1: Increasingly long PR interval --> dropped
2: Dropped QRS every x-time
63
What skin findings is a/w glucagonoma?
Necrolytic migratory erythema
64
Differentiate Boerheave from MW.
Boerheave: painful, perforation
65
Reactive arthritis
Can't pee, see, climb a tree
66
What substance is indicated in hepato-renal syndrome?
NO; try to induce splanchnic vasoconstriction
67
HIT is 2/2
Conformational change of PF4 --> IgG platelet activation, thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
68
CMV ppx
Valgancyclovir
69
PCP ppx
Bactrim
70
Smudge cells are pathognomic for...
CLL
71
3 major AE's of Amiodarone
TFT, LFT, PFT
72
Where is angiodysplasia most likely to be located in colon?
Right colon
73
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase Ab
DM1
74
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Fever, AMS, abdominal pain
| PMN's > 250; +CX; Protein 1.1
75
T/F Angiodysplasia is a/w aortic stenosis
True; AS --> VW disease/renal disease
76
FAP is AD/AR. What is the colon cancer risk? When is total proctocolectomy indicated?
AD; risk is 100%; at the time of diagnosis
77
T/F Any patient with an acute, severe illness may have abnormal thyroid function tests
True
78
The pathogenesis of ACEi induced cough...
Increase in circulating inflammatory mediators: bradykinin, substance P, PG's
79
Rapidly progrssive dementia, myoclonus, sharp, triphasic synchronus discharges on EEG
Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
80
Dementia caused by a defect in AD gene on ch 4
Huntington's: striatal neuro-degeneration
81
Histopathological findings of neurfibrilary tangles and amyloid plaques
Alzheimer's
82
Neurodegeneration of frontal and temporal lobes
Pick's disease
83
Bitter almond breath indicates inhaled...
CN
84
This toxin, when inhaled, results in a pinkish-red skin hue
CO
85
This inhalation results in cyanosis and bluish discoloration of skin and mucus membranes
MethHgb
86
This syndrome is caused by excessive intake of Ca and absorable alkali
Milk Alkali Syndrome
87
Major effect of Angiotensin 2 in the renal artery...
Preferential vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles, resulting in increased intra-glomerular pressure
88
A young obese female with headaches and shrunken ventricles...
Pseudotumor cerebri
89
Examples of first generation anti-histamines
Diphenhydramine, doxepin, hydroxyzine
90
T/F Acyclovir can result in crystal-induced kidney injury
True, along with sulfonamides, MTX, protease inhibitiors
91
The most common cause of isolated aortic regurg in young adults in developed countries... And in developing countries
Bicuspid aortic valve
| - Rheumatic heart disease
92
Wide, fixed and split S2
ASD
93
Harsh creschendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at apex
HOCOM (Valsalva and standing decrease PL and increase intensity of murmur)
94
Treatment of stable VT (wide complex, fusion beats)
IV Amiodarone (procainamide, sotalol, lidocaine)
95
Treatment of paroxsysmal SVT
Carotid massage
96
Upper vs. lower lip; BCC vs. SCC
Basal cell: upper lip; SCC: lower lip
97
Most common cause of esophageal rupture
Endoscopy
98
What is the best study to demonstrate esophageal perforation?
Contrast esophagram with water soluble contrast (barium has higher sensitivity, but is second line)
99
Acute chest pain, subcutaenous emphysema, left-pleural effusion classically represents
Esophageal perforation
100
Major complication of pseudotumor cerebri
Blindness
101
The pathophysiology of pseudotumor cerebri
Impaired absorption of CSF by arachnoid villi
102
Medical treatment of pseudotumor cerebri
Weight reduction and acetazolamide
103
Surgical treatment of pseudotumor cerebri
Shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration
104
Complications of pneumonia
Complicated parapneumonic effusions, empyema
105
Do complicated parapneumonic effusions have positive or negative pleural fluid gram stain?
Negative
106
This tick-borne illness is a/w leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, elevated LDH and transaminitis
Ehrlichia; treat with doxy (SE US)
107
CT scan after TBI that shows numerous minute punctate hemorrhages with blurring of grey-white interface
DAI
108
T/F Heterophile Ab can be negative early in the course of infectious mononucleosis
True
109
Common cause of false positive VDRL in pregnant women
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
110
Is Warfarin contraindicated in pregnancy?
Yes
111
Anti-thyroid peroxidase Ab
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
112
This type of skin cancer arises from an enlargening nodule, and can display early perineural invasion
SCC
113
Which skin cancer is especially common in patients on chronic IS therapy?
SCC
114
The most popular treatment for hyperthyroidism in the USA
Radioactive I.
115
The greatest risk of developing hypothyroidism following radioactive I treatment is seen in patients with...
Graves disease
116
Contact-lens keratitis is usually secondary to...
Gram negative organisms, i.e Pseudomonas
117
In keratitis, is the cornea spared?
No. Whereas in conjunctivitis, it is spared
118
Pityriasis rosea vs. Pityriasis versicolor
Rosea: Xmas tree herald patch
Versicolor: Malassexia, hypopigmented, don't tan
119
Spaghetti and meatball pattern on KOH
Pityriseas versicolor
120
Hashimoto's thyroiditis can lead to...
Lymphoma of the thyroid
121
Thyroid cancer of C cell origin
MTC
122
Initial treatment of severe hypovolemic hypernatremia? What about less severe?
IV NS; less severe are treated with D51/2NS
123
Treatment for euvolemic/hypervolemic hypernatremia
D5W
124
Treatment of hypernatremia based on volume status
Hypovolemic-Severe: IV NS
Hypovolemic-Mild: D5 1/2 NS
Euvolemic/Hypervolemic: D5W
125
Anti-histone Ab
Drug-induced lupus
126
Anti-CCP
RA
127
Triad of inflammatory arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia
Felty syndrome (patients with long-standing RA)
128
What is the anion gap?
Na - (Cl+HCO3)
129
MGUS vs. Waldenstrom's macroglobulimemia
MGUS: no end organ anemi, HSM, LAD, systemic symptoms
130
Overdose: hyperthermia, dilated pupils, intestinal ileus, QRS prolongation
TCA
131
QT prolongation 2/2 TDP is treated with
Mg
132
Overdose: Bradycardia, miosis, salivation
Cholingergic toxicity - treat with atropine
133
Crohn's vs. UC: bloody diarrhea, pseudopolyps, non-rectal sparing, no skip lesions, mucosal/SM involvement, crypt absecess
UC
134
T/F Tick borne paralysis usually progresses over hours
True
135
Descending paralysis and CN involvment
Botulism
136
Rapidly progressive ascending paralysis (asymmetrical), absence of fever/sensory abnormalities, normal CSF
Tick-borne paralysis
| * Remove the tick!
137
Trihexyphenidyl
Anti-cholinergic used in younger Parkinson's patients for whom tremor is the predominant symptom
138
First-line treatment for essential tremor
Propranolol
139
Treatment of Warm AIHA
CS
140
Treatment of Cold AIHA
Rituxan
141
Butterfly appearance of a brain tumor
GBM
142
Treatment of Nocardia vs. Actinomyces
Nocardia: Bactrim
Actinomyces: PCN
143
Anaerobic, filamentous branching bcteria that colonizes the oral cavity
Actinomyces
144
Aerobic cs. Anaerobic: Nocardia/Actinomyces
Nocardia: Aerobic
Actinomyces: Anaerobic
145
Cervicofacial involvement in a diabetic patient undergoing dental procedure
Actinomyces
146
Describe how a patient with a PE can experience signs/symptoms of hypocalcemia.
Respiratory alkalosis results in albumin letting go of H+, and then it picks up Ca.
147
Three forms of Ca in the blood
Ionized (active), albumin, inorganic anions
148
TRAP+, CD11a+ leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia
149
Reed-Sterberg cells are characteristic of...
Hodgkin's lymphoma
150
Vagal maneuvers can abolish PSVT by...
Decreasing AV nodal conductivity (also adenosine)
151
Activated charcoal within X hours of Tylenol ingestion
4
152
What is the toxic dose of Tylenol ingestion?
7.5 g
153
When do you I&D a stye?
After 48 hours of non-improvement with warm compresses
154
Bird-beak narrowing on barium swallow
Achalasia
155
Foul smelling sputum along with an indolent course of fever, malaise, cough
Aspiration pneumonia caused by anaerobes
156
Drug of choice for PCP pneumonia
Bactrim
157
3 options for anaerobic coverage from oral pathogens
Amoxicillin, Augmentin, Clinda
158
Diastolic decrescendo murmur with widened pulse pressure
Aortic regurgitation
159
Pulsus parvus and tardus
Aortic stenosis
160
Valve surgery is indicated in native valve bacterial endocarditis when...
Valvular dysfunction resulting in CHF, infection persistent or difficult to treat medically, recurrent septic embolization
161
Causes of microscopic hematuria
Renal (cancer, nephropathy), Ureteral (stricture, stone), bladder (cancer, cystitis), prostate/uretheral (BPH, prostate cancer, uretheritis)
162
Most important risk factor for bladder cancer
Cigarette smoking
163
Rectal sparing: UC or Crohn's
Crohn's
164
Intestinal complications of Crohn's vs. UC
Crohn's: Fistulas, strictures, abscesses
| UC: Toxic megacolon
165
Crohn's vs. UC: Absence of perianal abnormalities
UC
166
Crohn's vs. UC: Continuous inflammation
UC
167
Crohn's vs. UC: Bloody diarrhea
UC
168
Crohn's vs. UC: Rectal inflammation
UC
169
Crohn's vs. UC: Pseudopolyps
UC
170
Crohn's vs. UC: NC granulomas
Crohn's
171
Crohn's vs. UC: Cobblestoning
Crohn's
172
Reduced spermatogenesis, gynecomastia, mood disturbances, aggressive behavior
Androgen abuse
173
Immediate synchronized direct current cardioversion is indicated when patients p/w
Tachyarrhythmia causing hemodynamic instability (hypotension, shock, AMS, pulmonary edema)
174
A patient with RA with a soft, tender mass in the popliteal fossa
Baker's cyst (2/2 excessive fluid production by inflamed synovium)
175
The hallmark of frostbite treatment
Rapid rewarming in a warm water bath
176
Overdose: dry as a bone, blind as a bat, hot as a hare, full as a flask
Anti-cholinergic
177
Hypotension, pigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, eosinophilia, high ACTH, and low corisol
Primary adrenal insufficiency
178
Most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries
Autoimmune adrenalitis
179
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome is 2/2
Auto-antibodies to presynaptic membrane voltage-gated Ca channels: diminished or absent deep-tendon reflexes
180
Dematomyositis is a paraneoplastic syndrome resulting from
Muscle fiber injury
181
Gottron papules, heliotrope rash
Dermatomyositis
182
All patients with CRF and HCT
Fe deficiency
183
Most common AE's of EPO therapy
Worsening of hypertension, headache, flu-like, red cell aplasia
184
Leading cause of ESRD in US
DM: glomerular hyperperfusion/hypertrophy; GBM thickening; microalbuminuria--> nephropathy
185
Bence-Jones proteinuria
MM
186
________________ common in travelers in tropical regions, characterized by pruritic, serpiginous lesions on the skin; contact with sand
Cutaneous larva migrans
187
Lateral chest leads
I, avL
188
Anterior chest leads
V1-V4
189
Inferior chest leads
2, 3, avF
190
Strongest predictor of cardiac stent thrombosis within 12 months
Premature discontinuation of (dual) anti-platelet therpay
191
T/F Tylenol potentiates the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin
True
192
What is prothrombin complex concentrate?
Kcentra' contains vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10)
193
To reverse Coumadin immediately
Kcentra, FFP, (Vitamin K)
194
Urgent reversal of heparin
Protamine sulfate
195
Pulmonary infection PLUS impaired bacterial clearance (obstruction of airway, impairment of drainage, defect in immune response)
Bronchiectasis
196
Lower lobe emphysema is c/w
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
197
Periodic febrile paroxysms coupled with nonspecific malaise, headache, n/v, abdominal pain, HSM
Malaria (Plasmodium falciparum)
198
First line treatment for Alzheimer's
Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine)
199
Side effect of high-dose niacin for severe hypertriglyceridemia; how do you prevent it?
Cutaneous flushing and intensive generalized pruritis 2/2 peripheral vasodilation. Can be prevented with ASA
200
What is doxazosin? Caution should be used in prescribing this with what other drug?
Alpha-blocker; caution in Rx with Viagra
201
First line treatment for Giardia
Flagyl
202
Valsalva, abrupt standing, and NG effect on HOCM murmur
Increase intensity 2/2 decreased preload
203
Two most common mutations in HOCM
Cardiac myosin binding protein C gene; cardiac beta-myosin heavy chain gene
204
AE Methotrexate
Purine antimetabolite; hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, cytopenias
205
AE Leflunomide
Pyridine synthesis inhibitor; hepatotoxicity, cytopenias
206
AE Hydroxychloroquine
TNF/IL-1; Retinopathy
207
AE TNF inhibitiors: Adalimumab, Etanercept, Infliximab
Anti-cytokine agents; Infection, demylination, CHF, malignancy
208
The conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires
B12/Folate
209
To differentiate between folate or B12 deficiency, order the blood level of this substance
MMA
210
Most common primary immune deficiency
IgA deficiency
211
Patients with IgA deficiency p/w these 2 types of infection
Sinopulmonary, GI (Giardia)
212
Syndrome: recurrent sinopulmonary infections, eczema, thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-Aldrich
213
Symptoms of theophylline toxicity
CNS stimulation (ha, insomnia, seizures), GI disturbances, arrhythmia
214
Beta vs. Alpha thal geography
Beta: Mediterranean
Alpha: SE Asia
215
HIV: White plaques in esophagus
Candida
216
HIV: Large linear ulcers in esophagus (intranuclear and intracytoplasmic)
CMV/Gancyclovir
217
HIV: Vesicles; round; ovoid ulcers
HSV/Acyclovir
218
Mild oral thrush in HIV can be empirically treated with
Fluconazole
219
Scrombroid p/w
Flushing, urticria
220
Listeria p/w
meningitis
221
Ciguateriap/w
Paresthesia
222
On flow cytometry, absence of CD55 and CD59
PNH; these proteins normally inhibit the activation of complement
223
Treatment of PNH
Fe, Folate; Eculizumab (Mab that inhibits complement activation)
224
Hemolysis, Cytopenia, Portal Vein Thrombosis
PNH
225
Third most common cause of acute pancreatitis
Hypertriglyceridemia
226
Three most common causes of AS
1. Bicuspid
2. Senile plaques
3. Rheumatic
227
Most common valvular manifestation of rheumatic fever
MS
228
What type of diuretic can decrease the amount of Ca excreted in the urine?
Thiazide
229
In areas with chloroquine resistant malaria, which drugs are preferred for chemoppx?
Mefloquine, atovaquone-prograunil, doxy
230
Name the bug: Periorbital edema, myositis, eosinophilia (with GI complaints)
Trichinellosis
231
In PCP pneumonia, what is characteristically elevated in the blood?
LDH
232
Progressive and bilateral loss of central vision; peripheral fields maintained
Macular degeneraation
233
Gradual loss of peripheral vision over a period of years and consequent tunnel vision
Open angle glaucoma
234
Do cataracts recur?
No
235
Visual hallucinations and spontaneous Parkinsonism
Lewy body dementia
236
Most frequent location of ectopic foci that cause atrial fibrillation? Atrial flutter
Pulmonary veins
| - Flutter: tricuspid annulus
237
How is a myasthenic crisis treated?
Intubation; plasmapheresis/IVIG and corticosteroids
238
Inherited disease causing recurrent renal stone formation; hard/radioopaque stones showing hexagonal crystals with + cyanide nitroprusside test
Cystinuria
239
Most common etiologies of cirrhosis
HBV/HCV, EtOH, NAFLD, Hemochromatosis
| AI, PBC, PSC, A1AT, cardiac cirrhosis, MTX/INH, Wilson disease
240
How often should women 50-75 years old get mammograms?
q 2 years
241
Post-stroke sensory pain syndrome can be seen with strokes in this area of the brain
Thalamus (PCA)
242
Two possible agents for diabetic gastroparesis.
1. Reglan
| 2. Erythromycin
243
Reglan AE
EPS // tardive dyskinesia
244
Acute unilateral painless loss of vision
Central retinal vein occlusion 2/2 thrombosis
245
Underlying pathophysiology behind G6PD leading to hemolysis
Oxidative stress
246
Most common valve effected in endocarditis
Mitral (MVP/MR)
247
IVDU's have endocarditis of this valve
TCV
248
Preferred therapy for central DI
Desmopressin (Intranasal)
249
SIADH treatment
Demeclocycline
250
Preferred therapy for nephrogenic DI
HCTZ
251
Treatment of Toxoplasmosis
Sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine (plus leucovorin)
252
PPX Toxo
Bactrim
253
Multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI w/ CD4 count
Toxo
254
Treatment of neurocysticercosis
Albendazole
255
Treatment of cryptococal meningitis
Amphoteracin B, flucytosine
256
Treatment of MAC
Clarithromycin, ethambutol
257
Severe retinitis in AIDS patients (keratitis and conjunctivitis followed by rapidly progressive visual loss)
Herpes (HSV/VZV)
258
T/F CMV retinitis in AIDS patients is painless
True
259
What is coronary steal?
Dipyridamole is used during myocardial perfusion scanning to reveal areas of restricted myocardial perfusion. The redistribution is called steal b/c vessels distal to the obstruction are already maximally dilated
260
T/F Patients with cirrhosis are itnravascularly depleted and impressive salt retainers
True
261
AD disorder characterized by diffuse teleangiectasias, recurrent epistaxis and widespread AVM's
```
Hereditary teleangiectasis (Osler-Weber-Rendu)
- AVM's in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to left heart causing hypoxemia and reactive polycythemia
```
262
>20 mm Hg variation in SBP arms
Acute aortic dissection
263
Hemi-neglect syndrome is caused by a stroke to which brain cortex?
Parietal
264
Succs is a depol/non-depol NM blocker
Depolarizing
265
Succs shouldn't be used in which patients for RSI...
Hyperkalemia
266
Alpha-1 antagonist that relaxes ureteral muscle and decreases intra-ureteral pressure
Tamsulosin
267
Does PSGN have low C3?
Yes
268
Malignant necrotizing otitis externa in DM patients caused by... What is the treatment of choice?
Pseudomonas (Cipro = treatment of choice)
269
2 anti-cholinergics used for PD
Benztropine/Trihexyphenidyl
270
MAC PPX
Azirthromycin
271
Most common middle ear pathology in patients with AIDS
Serous otitis media
272
Demyelinating disease seen in AIDS patients
PML 2/2 JC virus
273
Sensory ataxia, lancinating pains, neurogenic incontinence, Argyll Robertson pupil
Tabes dorsalis
274
These types of testicular tumors secrete testosterone and are capable of estrogen production 2/2 markedly increased aromatase expression
Leydig
275
Patients with HOCM have this abnormality to the Mitral Valve
Abnormal mitral leaflet motion
276
Ascites
- Bloody
- Milky
- Turbid
- Straw
Bloody: trauma, malignancy
Milky: chylous, pancreatic
Turbid: infection
Straw: benign
277
What is SAAG?
Serum-to-ascites albumin gradient
Serum albumin minus peritoneal fluid albumin
(>1.1 = portal HTN)
278
Pneumonia w/ high fever, relative bradycardia, hyponatremia, hepatitis. Treatment?
- Legionella pneumonia
| - ML/FQ
279
Management of cocaine-induced chest pain. Are beta-blockers indicated?
Benzo's
| - Beta-blockers contraindicated
280
Complications of acute diverticulitis
Abscess, obstruction, fistula, perforation
281
Risk factors for diverticular disease
Chronic constipation, high-fat diet
282
Watery diarrhea, c-scope shows dark brown discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches [melanosis coli]
Factitious diarrhea/laxitive abuse
283
History of gastrectomy and presence of glossitis is c/w
B12 deficiency
284
In _____, there is an accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) that directly connects the atria to the ventriclces bypassing the AV node.
WPW Syndrome
| * Short PR, delta wave (slurred upstroke QRS), QRS widening
285
Empiric antibiotics for HAP/VAP
Gram positive, negative/pseudomonal, MRSA
286
Solid liver mass: a/w anomolous arteries; arterial flow and central scar on imaging
FNH
287
Solid liver mass: women on LTM OCP's; possible hemorrhage or malignant transformation
Hepatic adenoma
288
Tumor marker for HCC
AFP
289
Most common malignancy of the liver
Mets from another primary
290
Where is Zn digested? What are the symptoms of its deficiency?
Jejunum; lopecia, abnormal taste, bullous lesions, impaired wound healing
291
Vitamin deficiency: blindness, dry skin, impaired immunity
Vitamin A
292
AE of PTU
Agranulocytosis, hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis
293
Ramsay Hunt syndrome
A form of herpes zoster that causes Bell's palsy
294
MEN 1
Pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas
295
MEN 2A
MTC, pheo, parathyroid
296
MEN 2B
MTC, pheo, marfanoid
297
First two treatments for SIADH
Fluid restriction; Demeclocycline
298
Triad of fever, leukocytosis, LUQ pain
Splenic abscess (Staph, strep, Salmonella)
299
Methanol vs. Ethylene glycol ingestion
Methanol: Visual blurring
| Ethylene glycol: Flank pain; Ca oxalate crystal
300
Treatment of choice Ethylene glycol poisoning
Fomepazole
301
Treatment for methemoglobinemia
Methylene blue
302
Antidote for CN poisoning
Sodium thiosulfate
303
Treatment for PMR
Low dose glucocorticoids
304
Toxic ingestion: optic disk hyperemia and high anion gap metabolic acidosis
Methanol
305
Tropical infection: high fever, severe polyarthralgia, headahe, rash, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia
Chikungunya
306
High urobilinogen is indicative of C or UC bilirubin
UC
307
Positive urine bilirubin assay is indicative of C or UC bilirubin
C
308
Can TB cause pericarditis?
Yes
309
Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries
TB
310
Common etiologies of contrictive pericarditis in the US
Viral, cardiac surgery, chest radiation
311
Osteoclast dysfunction is characteristic of what disease?
Paget disease
312
80% of all carcinoids are in what location...
Small intestine
313
Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
Gastrinoma, multiple gastric ulcers
314
Pancreatic cholera, watery diarhea, hypokalemia
VIPoma
315
Which class of antibiotics is a/w tendinopathy/tendon rupture?
FQ
316
Sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters in a patient with diabetic retinopathy
Vitreous hemorrhage
317
Upper, lower respiratory symptoms, renal GN, skin non-healing ulcers
Wegener's granulomatosis with polyangiitis
| * ANCA+
318
In HD stable patients with WPW and rapid Afib, the ideal treatment is...
Procainamide
319
What is the mutation in polycythemia vera?
JAK2
320
Mainstay treatment for polycythemia vera?
Phlebotomy
321
What IV medication is used for suspected variceal hemorrhage?
IV octreotide (Somatostatin analogues inhibit release of vasodilator hormes, which leads indirectly to splanchnic vasoconstriction and decreased portal flow)
322
What do these medications have in common? Beta-blockers, ACEi, ARB's, K-sparing diuretics, digoxin, NSAIDS
Can cause hyperkalemia
323
Amebic liver abscess p/w RUQ pain and colitis. Treatment?
Enantomeba histolytica; Flagyl
324
Areflexic upper extremity weakness and dissociated sensory loss following a cape-like distribution
Syringomyelia
325
Rapidly progressive bilateral cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces
Ludwig angina
326
AE nitroprusside gtt. Treatment?
CN toxicity; sodium thiosulfate
327
What shortens the QRS interval in TCA overose?
Biacarb
328
Most significant environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer
Cigarette smoking
329
T/F Serotonin syndrome has myoclonus and hyperreflexia
True
330
T/F Thyroid storm can be precipitated by iodinated contrast
True
331
Drug approved for ALS
Riluzole/Glutamate inhibitor
332
Post-cataract eye pain/decreased visual acuity, swollen eyelids, conjunctivaa
Post-operative endopthalmitis; vitreous infection
333
Chronic low back pain and limited chest expansion w/ elevated ESR
Ankylosing spondylitis
334
Normal or decreased DLCO: Chronic bronchitis, asthma
Normal
335
Normal or decreased DLCO: Sarcoid, Asbestosis, ILD
Decreased
336
Subacute onset of AMS and multifocal neurological deficits in a transplant recipient
PML
337
Examples of saline resistant metabolic alkalosis
Primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing's syndrome
338
Name the gait: Ataxic, staggering, wide-based gait
Cerebellar
339
Name the gait: Foot drop, excessive hip and knee flexion while walking, slapping quality, falls
Steppage (Motor neuropathy)
340
Name the gait: Unsteady/falling to one side
Acute labyrinthitis, Menieres disease
341
Can S4 be heard during AMI?
Yes
342
MOA Zofran
Serotonin receptor antagonist
343
Definition of neutropenia
ANC
344
Second line agents for nausea/vomiting after Zofran
Dopamine antagonists, i.e. Reglan; prochlorperazine
345
Type of neuropathy found in diabetics
Symmetrical distal polyneuropathy
346
Low Hgb, elevated retics, increased LDH, decreased haptoglobin
Intravascular hemolytic anemia
347
MEN2A+B are caused by a gain of function mutation involving which proto-oncogene on which chromosome?
RET/Ch 10
348
In suspecting acromegaly, the best first test to order is...
IGF-1 (GH can fluctuate throughout the day)
349
What is the confirmatory test in patients with elevated IGF-1?
75g oral glucose suppression test; will normally suppress GH to
350
Definition of acute liver failure
Severe liver injury without underlying liver disease; transaminitis, encephalopathy, synthetic dysfunction (INR > 1.5)
351
Most common cause of death in acute liver failure
Brain stem herniation 2/2 cerebral edema
352
In a cirrhotic patient, decreased glomerlar filtration in the absence of shock, proteinuria, or other cause of renal dysfunction and failure to respond to 1.5L NS bolus
Hepatorenal syndrome (Type 1 rapidly progressive, Type 2 3-6 months)
353
Most common causes of death from hepatorenal syndrome
Infeciton, hemorrhage
354
Aminoglycoside toxicity
Ototoxicity/Vestibulopathy
355
Most common cause of peptic ulcer in the developed world?
H. pylori
356
T/F Sialadenosis is commonly found in patients with advanced liver disease
T
357
Straight lines appear wavy in what ocular disorder?
Macular degeneration
358
Most common cause of back pain
Lumbrosacral strain
359
T/F Straight leg raise is usually positive in a herniated disk
True
360
Following an MI, sharp, pleuritic pain that is worse in the supine position and improved by siting up and leaning forward
Acute pericarditis
361
PEA and pericardial tamponade 3-7 days after an MI
Ventricular free wall rupture
362
New systolic murmur following an MI
Papillary muscle rupture
363
RV infarction following what type of MI
Inferior wall MI; p/w hypotension
364
Is phenytoin a teratogen?
Yes; causing fetal hydantoin syndrome (orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail/digit hypoplasia, cardiac defects)
365
What AE for the fetus are a/w valproate?
NTD's
366
A tea and toast diet is a/w deficiency...
Folate deficiency
367
Primary vs secondary adrenal insufficiency
Primary: glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, adrenal
Secondary: glucocorticoid and adrenal androgen (mineralocorticoid -- RAA -- not the pituitary)
368
SCC lung is a/w what paraneoplastic syndrome?
Hypercalcemia (2/2 PTHrP)
369
Small cell lung cancer is a/w which paraneoplastic syndromes?
ACTH/SIADH
370
P-ANCA is positive in which IBD?
UC
371
Anti-endomysial Ab
Celiac
372
Anti-TTG Ab
Celiac
373
Soap-bubble tumor of bone
Giant cell tumor (benign)
374
RLS treatment
Dopamind Ag (pramipexole)
375
INO in MS p/w
Dysconjugate horizontal gaze
376
Giving folate to a B12 deficient patient will correct the anemia, but...
Rapidly deteriorate neurological symptoms
377
T/F Hypercalcemia can occur in prolonged immobilization
True
378
Tenderness to gentle percussion over spinous processes
Vertebral osteo
379
Severe odynophagia without dysphagia or thrush
Viral esophagitis
380
Postural hypotension
>20/10 decrease in SBP/DBP
381
Murmur that gets louder with squatting (PL) & handgrip (AL)
AR, MR, VSD
382
A dehydrated patient with hyponatremia and elevated urine sodium
Salt wasting, i.e diuretics, CSW, adrenal insufficiency
383
What lab value is increased in PCP pneumonia?
LDH
384
When are CS indicated in the treatment of PCP pneumonia?
PaO2 35
385
Definition of SPN
Rounded opacity
386
Large anterior mediastinal mass with elevated beta-HCG and AFP
Nonseminomatous germ cell tumor
387
Mode of inheritance: Wilson's disease. Why neuro s/s?
AR; 2/2 copper deposition in the basal ganglia
388
Confirmation of Wilson's disease
Low serum cerruloplasmin + increased urine copper + KF rings
389
PAS+, diastase-resistant liver biopsy
A1AT
390
Parkinsonism, Autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, abnormal sweating, bowel/bladder, abnormal salivation, impotence), Widespread neurological signs (cerebellar, pyramidal, LMN)
Shy-Drager Syndrome/MSA
391
Treatment for MSA
Fludrocortisone, salt supplementation, alpha-Ag, constrictive garments
392
3 medication classes that reduce mortality in CHF
Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, Mineralocorticoid receptor antag
393
Low Ca and elevated PTH causes
Endo (Vitamin D deficiency, CKD), Inflammatory (Pancreatitis, sepsis), Oncology (tumor lysis)
394
Which kidney is easier to palpate, L or R
R: it lies lower than the L kidney
395
Multiple renal cysts, intermittent flank pain, hematuria, UTI, nephrolithiasis
ADPKD
396
Most common cause of macrocytic anemia in a patient with SCD
Folate deficiency
397
Severe anemia with reticulocytosis in SCD
Hyperhemolytic crisis
398
What type of glomerular nodules are pathognomonic for diabetic GN?
Kimmelstein-Wilson nodules
399
Bright red, firm, friable, exophytic nodules in an HIV+ patient
Bacillary angiomatosis
400
Most common cancer diagnosed in patients with asbestos exposure?
Bronchogenic carcinoma
401
US findings in acute cholecystitis
GBWT, pericholecystic fluid, sludge
402
In alcoholic hepatitis, how high are AST/ALT?
403
Anti-Jo Ab
Polymyositis
404
Triad: headache, focal neurological signs and fever. Bugs?
Brain abscess; S virians > Staph in ethmoid sinutitis
405
Cerebral infection in patients with poorly controlled DM
Rhizopus (Mucormycosis)
406
Can pulsus paradoxus be seen in severe asthma?
Yes
407
In HIV+ patient: pancytopenia, transaminitis, reticulonodule infliltrate, constitutional symptoms, HSM/LAD in Midwest USA
Disseminated histo
408
Treatment of disseminated histoplasmosis
Amphotericin B
409
Colon cancer screening recommendations
q annual FOBT; flex sig q 5 years with FOBT q3; C-scope 1 10 years
410
Colon cancer screening recommendations with cancer in a first-degree relative
Age 40 or 10 years before the age of the relative's diagnosis
411
UMN or LMN: Fasiculations
LMN
412
Most common cause of spontaneous brain lobar hemorrhage in adults > 60 years old
Amyloid angiopathy
413
Most common cause of SVC syndrome?
Malignancy, i.e. lung ca (SCLC), NHL
414
H's and T's
Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hypoglycemia, Hyper/Hypokalemia, H acidosis
Tension PTX, Tamponade, Toxins (Narc/Benzo), Trauma, Tbx (PE, MI)
415
Initial management of gastric outlet obstruction
NGT, IVF, endoscopy
416
Succussion splash
| diagnoses...
Gastric outlet obstruction
417
Primary LTM treatment for asthma vs. COPD
Asthma: ICS; COPD: Anti-cholinergics
418
Most common renal stones
Ca
419
Treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia? AE?
Carbamazepine; AE aplastic anemia
420
Electrical alternans with sinus tachy is pathognomic finding in...
Varying amplitudes of QRS complexes; seen in pericarditis
421
Reactive precancerous lesion that represents hyperplasia of oral squamous epithelium; risk of progression to SCC?
Leukoplakia (1-20% progress to cancer)
422
Is Clinda effective against gram negatives?
No
423
Drug of choice for dog bites.
Augmentin
424
When do you begin screening colonscopy in IBD? FAP? HNPCC?
8 years post-diagnosis (12-15 years if disease only in left colon); q 1-2 years; FAP-10-12 y.o.; HNPCC-20-25 y.o..
425
Most common presentation of a Pancoast tumor.
Shoulder pain
426
Definition for ARDS
Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, PaO2 to FiO2 ratio
427
Severe agitation, combativeness, psychosis, delerium, myoclonus for a prolonged duration of time
Bath salts
428
Multi-directional nystagmus toxic ingestion
PCP
429
Trousseau's syndrome
Hypercoagulable disorder p/w unexplained superficial venous thrombosis. Mucin is released from the tumor cells, which react with platelets to form platelet-rich microthrombi
430
The hallmark of shock liver, or ischemic hepatic injury
Rapid and massive increase in the transaminases with modest accompanying elevations in TBili and ALP.
431
Chronic malabsorptive diarrhea, protein-losing enteropathy, weight loss, migratory non-deforming arthritis, LAD, low-grade fever. Classic histology?
Whipple's disease; PAS+
432
Where are 80% of cardiac myxomas located?
Left atrium
433
2 major AE of INH
Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity
434
Timing to recognize B12 vs. Folate deficiency w/ dietary deficiency
B12: 4-5 years; Folate: 4-5 months
435
Syndrome with keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia. What Ab?
Sjogren's syndrome; Anti-SSA (Ro)/ SSB (La)
436
Most common cause of death in acromegaly
*congestive heart failure*
437
Bleeding stops spontaneously in what % of patients with MW tear?
90%
438
Pathogenesis of contrast-induced nephropathy
Renal vasoconstriction and tubular injury
439
Disseminated MAC is prophylaxed with...
Azithromycin
440
T/F There is an 18-fold increased risk of secondary cancers in patients initially treated for Hodgkin's Lymphoma
True
441
Accumulation of alpha-synuclein within the neurons of the substantia nigra
Parkinson disease
442
Indications for CEA
Men: Asx 60+; Sx: 70+
Women: 70+
443
Causes of hemopytiss
Pulmonary, Cardiac, Infectious, Coagulopathy, PE/AVM, Coagulopathy, trauma, cocaine
444
What kind of scan detects carcinoid mets?
Octreotide
445
Order of incerased mets-to-the-brain cancers
Lung, breast, unknown, melanoma, colon (Solitary- breast, colon, RCC); multiple (lung, melanoma); rare (prostate, esophageal, oral, HCC, skin ca)
446
Warfarin induced skin necrosis
Decrease in Protein C to 50% within first day, while factors 2, 7, 9, 10 decline more slowly; increased risk for Warfarin-induced skin necrosis with underlying protein C deficiency
447
Majority of superficial erysipelas are caused by...
GAS
448
Triad of encephalopathy, ocular dysfunction, and gait ataxia
WE; treat with thiamine before gluocse
449
Most common extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD
Hepatic cysts; MVP/AR; diverticula; hernia
450
First serologic marker in acute hep B infection
HBsAg
451
Panendoscopy
Esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, larngoscopy
452
T/F Optic glioma occurs with NF-1
| T
T
453
T/F Panacinar = Lower Lobes in A1AT
T
454
Action tremor in the absence of additional neurological signs
Essential tremor
455
First line treatment of essential tremor
Propranolol
456
>5, >10, >15 mm induration of PPD
>5: HIV, contacts, IS
>10: immigrants, IVDU, high-risk employees
>15: healthy individuals
457
Treatment for latent TB
INH+Rifapentine q weekly for 3 months
INH monotherapy for 6-9 months
Rifampin for 4 months
INH+Rifampin for 4 months
458
Active TB requires treatment for 4 drugs for how many months?
2 months; combo therapy for 4 months
459
Infection of the lacrimal sac
Dacryocystitis
460
Abscess lovated over the upper or lower eyelid
Hordeolum
461
Abrupt onset fever, proptosis, restriction of EOMI and swollen, red eyelids
Orbital cellulitis
462
What color does Rifampin turn urine?
Red/Orange
463
HPV vaccine age recommendations for men vs. women
Men: 11-21
Women: 9-26
464
Leuk esterase vs. Nitrates
LE: pyuria
Nitrates: Enterobacteria (convertes urinary nitrates to nitrites)
465
T/F A negative dipstick in a patient with symptoms of UTI should have urine cultures
T
466
Microcytic hypochromic anemia simulating iron-deficiency anemia
Acquired sideroblastic anemia (2/2 pyrodixine-B6/INH)
467
Weight gain, fatigue, constipation, hoarseness, memory changes
Hypothyroidism
468
When can you push TPA?
Within 3.5-4 hours of onset of stroke
469
Chronic phenytoin therapy can cause
Megaloblastic anemia
470
Which 3 drugs can cause megaloblastic anemia?
Bactrim, MTX, Phenytoin
471
INH can deplete...
Vitamin B6
472
Caudia equina syndrome is 2/2 compression of...
Spinal nerve roots
473
Cauda equina vs. Conus medularis syndromes
CE: LMN; asymmetric
CM: Upper and lower motor neuron; symmetric
474
Pseduoappendictis bug
Campylobacter
475
Stroke: Unilateral motor impairment, no sensory/cortical deficits, no visual field abnormalities
Posterior limb of IC (lacunar)
476
Contralateral somatosensory; motor deficit (face, arm, leg), conjugate eye deviation toward side of infarct, aphasia/hemineglect
MCA stroke
477
Contralateral somatosensory and motor; predominantly in lower extremity
ACA stroke
478
Alternate syndromes with contralateral hemiplegia and ipsilateral CN involvement, ataxia
Vertebrobasilar system
479
GI, neuro symptoms (neuropathy/psych) + anemia with basophilic stippling on peripheral smear
Lead poisoning
480
Most common cause of PTH-independent hypercalcemia
Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy
481
Tumor lysis syndrome electrolyte abnormalities
Hpocalcemia, Hyperphosphatemia, Hyperuricema, Hyperkalemia (Phosphate binds Ca)
482
Treatment of CO poisoning
100% oxygen
483
Alternative to IM penicillin for syphillis
Doxy x 14 days (unless pgx, CNS)
484
In a patient with a DVT 2/2 homocystinuria, what vitamin should be administered in addition to AC?
Vitamin B6
485
T/F Atropine should be avoided in acute glaucoma
True (Use mannitol, Diamox, Pilocarpine, Timolol)
486
T/F MS can p/w bilateral trigeminal neuralgia
T
487
Erythema nodosum is a/w
Sarcoid, TB, IBD
488
Anti-dote to Beta-blocker overdose? Refractory cases?
Atropine followed by Glucagon
489
Negatively birefringent
Yellow when parallel to polarizing axis, and blue when lying perpendicular
490
T/F Patients with large anterior STEMI are at highest risk of LV thrombus and anteroapical aneurysm formation
T
491
T/F Folate deficiency is the most common cause of megaloblastic anemia is alcoholics
T
492
Bouchard and Heberden nodes are a/w
a/w OA
493
Systolic hypertension in thyrotoxicosis is 2/2
Hyperdynamic circulation resulting from increased myocardial contractility and HR
494
Acute renal failure and malignant hypertension in a patient with systemic sclerosis...
Cutaneous systemic sclerosis
495
Two primary manifestations of Chagas disease
Megacolon/megaesophagus; cardiac disease
496
Antidote to organophosphate poisonoing
Atropine; Achesterase is non-functional
497
Straight leg raise tests positive for
Sciatica
498
MOA: Cyclosporine. AE?
IL-2 inhibitor; nephrotoxicity, HTN, neurotoxicity, glucose intolerance, infection, malignancy, gingival hypertrophy
499
Major AE MMF
Bone marrow suppression
500
Major AE Azathioprine
Diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotoxicity
501
Decreased ADAMSTS13 activity
TTP; large vWF multimers and resulting in diffiuce thrombi
502
TTP pentad
TBOpenia, Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal insufficiency, fever, neuro s/s
503
Approved for the treatment and PPX of amyloidosis
Colchicine
504
T/F Fluphenazine is a typical anti-psychotic that can cause hypothermia by inhibiting the body's shivering mechanism
True
505
EtoH withdrawal peaks during what day?
Second day following cessation
506
T/F Radioactive I ablation can worsen opthalmopathy
True
507
T/F Spinal stenosis is better with spine flexion
True
508
T/F Thiazide diuretics can lead to glucose intolerance
True
509
The d-xylose test is for...
Celiac disease/proximal small intestinal mucosal disease and cannot absorb D-xylose.
510
T/F PBC is a/w cholestasis, hepatomegaly, severe hyperlipidemia
True
511
Feared complication of temporal arteritis
Aortic aneurysm
512
Arrhythmia most specific for digitalis toxicity
Atrial tachycardia w/ AV block
513
Common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy
Sarcoid, amyloid, hemochromatotis, fibrosis, idiopathic
514
Etiology of diabetic oculomotor neuropathy
Ischemic
515
Treatment of Legionella pneumonia
Levaquin
516
MMSE score lower than this number is indicative of dementia
24
517
Neuroimaging demonstrating atrophy which is more prominent in the temporal and parietal lobes
Alzhemiers
518
Ulcers in this area are indicative of ZES
Jejunum
519
What is triple therapy treatment for H. pylori?
Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, PPI
520
Dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3 is a characteristic microscopic finding for...
MPGN (Persisent activation of alternative complement)
521
Atrophy of the caudate is a/w
Huntington's disease
522
Antibiotic class of Amikacin
Aminoglycoside
523
3 major mechanical complications of MI
Papillary muscle rupture: Soft systolic
LV free wall rupture: Tamponade
IV septum rupture: pansystolic
524
Life threatening complication of metformin
Lactic acidosis
525
AE TZD's
CHF
526
Best diabetic drug for weight loss
Exenatide, GLP-1 receptor agonist
527
AE Amantadine
Livedo reticularis
528
To treat the psychomotor agitation a/w PCP ingestion
Benzos
529
To differentiate CML from leukemoid reaction
LAP; basophilia
530
Auer rods
AML
531
Most common extraskeletal manifestation of AS
Episcleritis
532
Extrahepatic manifestations of HCV
Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia, MPGN, PCT, DM
533
A disorder of the inner ear characterized by increased volume and pressure of endolymph
Meniere disease
534
Does MG improve with ice pack?
Yes
535
Order of use of anti-HTN agents in acute dissection
Beta-blocker followed by nitroprusside
536
Anterior Mediastinum mass
Middle Mediastinum mass
Posterior Mediastinum mass
A: Thymoma, retrosternal thyroid, teratoma, lymphoma
M: Bronchogenic cyst, tracheal tumor, pericaridal cyst, LN, aneurysm
P: Neurogenic tumors, hernias
537
Drug of choice in PBC
Ursodeoxycholic acid
538
Hypok/Hyperkalemia potentiates the AE of digoxin
Hypokalemia
539
Most common type of radioopaque stone
Ca oxalate
540
PBC patients at risk of developing
Osteomalacia
541
Vertigo, nystagmus, loss pain/temp ipsilateral face/contralateral limb, hoarseness, Horner's syndrome
Lateral medullary syndrome
542
Tongue deviation toward side of lesion and contralateral paralysis
Medial medullary
543
Severe sore throat with odynophagia, drooling and airway obstruction
Epilogttis (H. flu/GAS)
544
Actinomyces vs. Nocardia
A: G+, Anerobic -- PCN
N: G+, AF -- Bactrim
545
Cyclophosphamide is a/w ... Prevent with
Hemorrhagic cystitis (Take MESNA)
546
Anti-RNP, anti-Jo-1, anti-Mi2
Dermatomyositis
547
In otherwise healthy patients who develop CHF, what should be considered high on the differential?
Viral myocarditis
548
Activated protein C resistance
Factor 5 Leiden
549
HIV PPX therapy with low CD4
Bactrim (PCP, Toxo), Azithro (MAC
550
Polyp a/w most pre-malignant condition
Villous adenoma
551
Multiple demyelinating, non-enhancing lesions with no mass effect in HIV+
PML/JC
552
Condition affecting new mothers who hold their infants with thumb outstretched
De Quervain tenosynovitis
553
3 major liver functions
Synthetic, metabolic, excreatory
554
Most common pathogen causing PNA in nursing home patients
S. pna
555
High pH on UA is concerning for infection with what bug?
Proteus
556
Can pseudotumor cerebri be caused by isotretinoin?
Yes
557
Palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria in HCV+
Mixed cryoglobulinemia
558
Treatment of Paget disease
Bisphosphonates
559
Very low MCV is seen in which microcytic anemia?
Thalassemia
560
Measles vs. Mumps
Measles: higher fever, no arthritis
Mumps: w/in 24 hours cranial-caudal spread
561
6 P's
Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pokilothermia
562
Pathogenesis Zenker diverticulum
Sphincter dysfunction and esophageal dysmotility
563
Which bug causes bacillary angiomatosis?
Bartonella henselae/quintana
564
T/F Positive H+ ion breath test in lactose intolerance
T
565
Untreated hyperthyroid patients at high risk for...
Bone disease
