uworld missed concepts Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

ventromedial hypothalamic nucleus

A

mediates satiety (destruction makes you always hungry)

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2
Q

lateral hypothalamic nucleus

A

mediates hunger (destruction makes you never hungry)

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3
Q

anterior hypothalamic nucleus

A

mediates heat dissipation (destruction makes you always hot)

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4
Q

posterior hypothalamic nucleus

A

mediates heat conservation (destruction makes you always cold)

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5
Q

arcuate hypothalamic nucleus

A

secretes dopamine (inhibits prolactin), secretes GHRH

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6
Q

medial preoptic hypothalamic nucleus

A

secretes GnRH, regulates sexual behavior

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7
Q

paraventricular hypothalamic nucleus

A

secretes oxytocin, TRH, CRH, some ADH

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8
Q

supraoptic hypothalamic nucleus

A

secretes ADH, some oxytocin

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9
Q

suprachiasmatic hypothalamic nucleus

A

circadian rhythm regulation, pineal gland function (melatonin)

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10
Q

ETEC

A

enterotoxigenic - traveler’s diarrhea (watery)
LT enterotoxin (cholera-like toxin, heat labile, increases cAMP)
ST enterotoxin (heat stable, increases cGMP)
colonizes and adheres to small intestine enterocytes via pili
increased chloride secretion and decreased sodium reabsorption by enterocytes

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11
Q

EHEC

A

enterohemorrhagic - bloody diarrhea from contaminated, undercooked meat
shiga-like toxin (inactivates 60s ribosomal subunit in host cells)

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12
Q

anaerobic glycolysis

A

occurs in oxygen-poor states
glucose -> pyruvate -> lactate in the cytosol
net 2 ATP / glucose
occurs in cancer cells and stem cells even in oxygen-rich states (causing tumor cells to take up more glucose, rapid cell division)

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13
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

occurs in oxygen-rich states
glucose -> pyruvate -> acetyl CoA -> TCA cycle -> NADH -> ETC
net 36 ATP / glucose

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14
Q

PDE5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil)

A

erectile dysfunction drugs
increase cGMP (mediates vascular smooth muscle relaxation) in penile corpora
side effect: can also inhibit PDE6 in retina causing vision to tint blue, sudden monocular vision loss with afferent pupillary defect (ischemic optic neuropathy)

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15
Q

phenotypic mixing

A

occurs when a host cell is co-infected with two viral strains
genome of virus A becomes coated with the surface proteins of virus B
progeny of virus A will have type A coat (not type B)

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16
Q

recombination

A

exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

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17
Q

reassortment

A

viruses with segmented genomes exchange an entire segment of genetic material
has potential to cause antigenic shift

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18
Q

complementation

A

1 of 2 viruses infecting a cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein, the nonmutated virus complements the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses

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19
Q

interference

A

one virus in a cell inhibits the release or replication of a second virus in the cell

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20
Q

transformation

A

incorporation of viral DNA into a host cell genome, altering genetic composition of host cell but not virus

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21
Q

adenosine action

A

vasodilation

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22
Q

nitric oxide action

A

vasodilation

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23
Q

atropine action

A

muscarinic antagonist

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24
Q

trisomy 13

A

patau syndrome
defect in fusion of prechordal mesoderm (midline defects)
severe intellectual disability, rocker-bottom feet, microphthalmia, microcephaly, holoprosencephaly, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, cutis aplasia, polycystic kidney disease, omphalocele

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25
trisomy 18
edwards syndrome prominent occiput, rocker-bottom feet, intellectual disability, clenched fists with overlapping fingers, low-set ears, micrognathia, congenital heart disease, omphalocele, myelomeningocele all prenatal screening markers are decreased
26
trisomy 21
down syndrome intellectual disability, flat facies, prominent epicanthal folds, single palmar crease, incurved 5th finger, gap between first two tows, duodenal atresia, hirschprung disease, congenital heart disease, brushfield spots, early-onset alzheimer's disease, increased risk of AML/ALL increased hCG and inhibin in prenatal screening
27
affinity maturation
B cell process process of enhancing the hypervariable region antigen binding affinity that occurs after initial binding of antigen to membrane-bound immunoglobulin on a naïve B lymphocyte and subsequent migration of that B-lymphocyte to a lymph node results in new immunoglobulins with similar, better, or worse affinity for the antigen; only antibodies with better affinity will be selected for occurs within the germinal center of the lymph node
28
isotype switching
B cell process switches out the heavy chain of an antibody
29
negative selection
occurs in the thymic medullary epithelial and dendritic cells (after positive selection) T cells with TCRs that bind with high affinity to self-antigen or self-MHC undergo apoptosis (eliminates overly-autoreactive cells, prevents autoimmunity)
30
positive selection
occurs in the thymic cortex only double positive (CD4+/CD8+) T cells expressing TCRs that are able to self-bind MHC on cortical epithelial cells are allowed to survive (eliminates non-reactive cells)
31
sulfonylurea
stimulates beta cells to secrete insulin side effects: hypoglycemia, dark colored urine, upset stomach, skin reactions
32
congenital syphilis
rhinorrhea, maculopapular rash, metaphyseal erosions, periosteal inflammation of long bones, pathologic fractures, swelling, pain, and limited movement of extremities, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
33
neonatal chlamydia
conjunctivitis or pneumonia
34
neonatal nosocomial staph aureus
osteomyelitis w fever; higher risk in prematurity, central line
35
12-24 hours post-ischemic stroke
red neurons (eosinophilic cytoplasm, pyknotic nuclei, loss of nissl substance)
36
24-72 hours post-ischemic stroke
neutrophilic infiltration
37
3-7 days post-ischemic stroke
macrophage/microglia infiltration, phagocytosis begins
38
1-2 weeks post-ischemic stroke
reactive gliosis, vascular proliferation around necrotic area (liquefactive necrosis)
39
>2 weeks post-ischemic stroke
glial scar formation (cystic area surrounded by dense glial fibers)
40
HHV8
causes Kaposi sarcoma in HIV+ patients
41
molluscum contagiosum
firm, shiny round papules with a central indentation caused by poxvirus
42
first-line treatment for gout attack
NSAIDs (inhibits COX, decreases prostaglandins)
43
why are people with silicosis predisposed to TB
impaired macrophage function
44
chronic granulomatous disease
x-linked recessive mutation of NADPH oxidase -> decreased radical oxygen species -> inhibition of phagocytic intracellular killing recurrent infections of lungs, skin, liver, lymph nodes diffuse granuloma formation
45
infantile hemangioma
benign proliferation of endothelial cells; lobules of densely packed capillaries appears days to weeks after birth, proliferates in infancy, involutes and regresses in size throughout childhood
46
abciximab
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist (inhibits binding of platelet to fibrinogen) used for treatment of unstable angina and acute coronary syndrome
47
glanzmann thrombasthenia
autosomal recessive disorder caused by defective glycoprotein IIb/IIIa on platelet
48
short-acting benzos (<6h)
triazolam, midazolam
49
intermediate-acting benzos (6-50h)
clonazepam, oxazepam, lorazepam, alprazolam (COLA)
50
long-acting benzos (>50h)
diazepam, flurazepam, chlordiazepoxide
51
pharyngeal/aortic arch 1
trigeminal nerve (CN V), maxillary artery
52
pharyngeal/aortic arch 2
facial nerve (CN VII), stapedial artery (regresses)
53
pharyngeal/aortic arch 3
glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), common carotid artery, proximal internal carotid artery
54
pharyngeal/aortic arch 4
superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X), arch of the aorta, subclavian arteries
55
pharyngeal/aortic arch 5
obliterated
56
pharyngeal/aortic arch 6
recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X), pulmonary arteries, ductus arteriosus
57
what causes spina bifida
failure in neurulation (vertebral arch fusion)
58
proto-oncogenes
one hit causes an oncogenic gain of function RAS, MYC, ERBB1(EGFR), ERBB2(HER2), ABR, BRAF
59
tumor suppressor genes
two hit causes loss of function (no longer protective) BRCA 1/2, APC, TP53, RB, WT1, VHL
60
RAS
proto-oncogene GTP binding protein cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic adenocarcinoma
61
MYC
proto-oncogene transcription factor Burkitt lymphoma
62
ERBB1 (EGFR)
proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase lung adenocarcinoma
63
ERBB2 (HER2)
proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase breast cancer
64
ABL
proto-oncogene nonreceptor tyrosine kinase chronic myelogenous leukemia
65
BRAF
proto-oncogene ras signal transduction hairy cell leukemia, melanoma
66
BRCA 1/2
tumor suppressor gene DNA repair genes breast cancer, ovarian cancer
67
APC (beta catenin)
tumor suppressor gene wnt signaling pathway colon cancer, gastric cancer, pancreatic cancer (familial adenomatous polyposis)
68
TP53
tumor suppressor gene genomic stability most cancers (Li Fraumeni syndrome)
69
RB
tumor suppressor gene G1/S phase transition inhibitor retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma
70
WT1
tumor suppressor gene urogenital differentiation wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)
71
VHL
tumor suppressor gene ubiquitin ligase component renal cell carcinoma (Von Hippel Lindau syndrome)
72
MEN 1
MEN1 tumor suppressor gene pituitary tumors, pancreas endocrine tumors, parathyroid adenomas
73
MEN2a
RET protooncogene parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma
74
MEN2b
RET protooncogene medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuroma (oral/intestinal lesions), marfanoid habitus
75
Lynch syndrome
colorectal cancer, uterine cancer, stomach cancer, liver cancer, kidney cancer, brain cancer, skin cancer