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Uworld > Uworld Qs > Flashcards

Uworld Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma - GENE mutation?

A

KRAS

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2
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis - GENE mutation?

A

APC

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3
Q

Follicular lymphoma - GENE mutation?

A

BCL2

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4
Q

Malignant melanoma - GENE MUTATION?

A

BRAF

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5
Q

Burkitt lymphoma - gene mutation?

A

c- MYC

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6
Q

Fusion of METANEPHROS in utero causes ?

A

Horse shoe kidney

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7
Q

Horse shoe kidney begin ascent in utero until physically restricted by what structure?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery- hence horse shoe kidney lies lower in abdomen

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8
Q

Dequervain tendinopathy - which structure is affected and which test can help diagnose?

A

Abductor policus brevis and extensor pollicus brevis
Finkelstein/ Eischhoff tests

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9
Q

Cardiac Output = ___ x ___

A

CO = SV x HR

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10
Q

Cardiac output formula according to Fick principle

A

CO = rate of o2 consumption / arteriovenous o2 content difference

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11
Q

Respiratory quotient is ratio of ?

A

CO2: O2 across the alveolar membrane . Normal value is 0.8

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12
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome manifestations?

A

Sinopulmonary infections, chronic diarrhea, opportunistic infections, minimal lymphoid tissue

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13
Q

Hyper igm lab findings?

A

Inc igm , dec igg, normal c3

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14
Q

Protein kinesin function and location?

A

Carries vesicles and organelles away from cell body and towards nerve terminal

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15
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Antibodies against desmosome of skin

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16
Q

Bulbous pemphigoid

A

Antibodies against hemidesmosome of skin

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17
Q

Fungal infection that forms hypopigmented, hyperpigmentaed or erythmatous maculae’s or patches on upper body?

A

Pityriasis vesicular caused by malassezia

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18
Q

Diagnosis lab to diagnose pityriasis versicolor? What is the characteristic finding?

A

KOH preparation of skin scrapings, spaghetti and meatballs appearance

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19
Q

Intertrigo infection - causative agent?

A

Candida albicans

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20
Q

Tinea capitis - causative agent?

A

Microsporum species

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21
Q

Mucormycosis - an invasive necrotic upper and lower resp infection in immuncomprimsed pts - causative agent?

A

Rhizopus

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22
Q

Which fungus is found in decaying horticultural matter? Acquired through breaks in the skin, forming nodular and ulcerating subcutaneous lesions

A

Sporothrix

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23
Q

Organophosphate poisoning treatment?

A

MUSCARINIC ANTAGONISTS Atropine or pralidoxime

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24
Q

organophosphate poisoning symptoms?

A

DUMBBELLS

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25
Q

Teripatide - Class and indication? MOA?

A

Recombinant PTH analogue, severe osteoporosis

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26
Q

Pulsatile pth like teripatide - action?

A

Anabolic effect - stimulates osteoblast proliferation and increases formation of new bone

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27
Q

Pleural fluid - fluid entry and exit?

A

Entry - intercostal micro vessels
Exit - parietal pleura lymph drainage

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28
Q

Metyropone stimulation test - which increases and decrease ?
Cortisol?
ACTH?

A

Cortisol decreases
ACTH increases

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29
Q

Attack rate definition

A

Ratio of number of ppl who contract an illness / no of ppl at risk of contracting the illness

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30
Q

Fev1/fvc- increased , decreased or normal in -

A. Obstructive —?
B restrictive —?

A

Obstructive - decreased
Restrictive - normal or increased

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31
Q

Exploratory flow rate is increased in pulmonary fibrosis in ILD. Why?

A

Bc of airway widening due to radial traction. This reduced airflow resistance - leading to high exp rate

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32
Q

Optimal site for obtaining vascular access to common femoral artery?

A

Below the inguinal ligament

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33
Q

Accidental puncture of the posterior Vascular access to the common femoral artery ABOVE the inguinal ligament can cause what to occur?

A

Retroperitoneal hemorrhage . (Bleeding into pelvic cavity will only happen in pelvic fractures and gyne hemorrhages)

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34
Q

Increased dopamine in mesolimbic pathway - disease?

A

Schizophrenia

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35
Q

Increases dopamine in NIGROSTRITAL pathway - disease?

A

Chorea and tics

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36
Q

Cytokines released by macrophage?

A

IL1, IL6, tnf alpha, IL8, IL12

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37
Q

B cells produced where and T cells reduced where?

A

B - bone marrow, T- thymus

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38
Q

LPS is seen in gram +, gram - or both?

A

Gram -ve ONLY

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39
Q

Opsonin? What is it? Example?

A

C3b. It marks the bacteria and makes it a target for detection by a nearby macrophage.

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40
Q

MHCII

A

CD4 t cell

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41
Q

CD40 responsible for

A

Class switching

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42
Q

What are the antigen presenting cells? APC

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells

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43
Q

Which complement is responsible for opsonization?

A

C3b

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44
Q

Mast cells are involved in which hypersensitivity type?

A

Type 1

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45
Q

Basophilia (increased no of basophils) may be seen in?

A

CML

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46
Q

What are the activators of NKC?

A

IL2, IL12, ifn alpha, ifn beta

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47
Q

Renal cell carcinoma, which IL can be used in tx?

A

IL2

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48
Q

Which compound is abnormal in CSF in narcolepsy?

A

Hypocretin 1 (orexin A) and hypocretin 2 (orexin B) produced by neurons in lateral hypothalamus promote wakefulness. They are LOW.

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49
Q

Primary Dopamine metabolite -?

A

Homovanillic acid . Linked to psychosis and mood disorders

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50
Q

Creutkzfeldt jakob disease- which protein is elevated,

A

14-3-3 is high

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51
Q

Melatonin in csf is low in which disease?

A

Alziehmer

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52
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is related to squamous metaphases of pancreatic ducts?

A

Vit A

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53
Q

Riboflavin is vitamin B__

A

B2

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54
Q

Vitamin d deficiency causes?

A

Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

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55
Q

Vitamin E deficiency causes?

A

Infertility and decreases some serum phospholipids

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56
Q

Vitamin K deficiency can cause?

A

Coagulopathy

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57
Q

Grey white pseudomembranes w pharyngitis and tonsillitis , cervical lymphadenopathy, throat swab gram +ve rods

A

Diphtheria

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58
Q

Systemic manifestation of diphtheria

A

Myocarditis

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59
Q

Primary tx of diphtheria

A

Diphtheria antitoxin

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60
Q

Diphtheria toxin MOA??

A

Ribosylation and inactivation of elongation factor 2. This inhubits protein synthesis bc ef2 is needed for translation

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61
Q

Achilles tendon is a combination of which muscles?

A

Soleus and gastrocnemius

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62
Q

Forced eversion of ankle can cause damage to what structures?

A

AVULSION FRACTURE OF MEDIAL MALLEOLUS and medial deltoid ligament injury (rarer)

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63
Q

Inversion of ankle injuries what structure? / lateral ankle sprain

A

Talofibular ligament

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64
Q

Legionella - immunology signficance?

A

It’s an intracellular organism. Hence countered by cell mediated immune response. Intracellular pathogens that replicate within phagosomes eg legionellla and mycobacterium tb trigger activation and differentiation of Th1, via interferon gamma and cause IL2 release

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65
Q

Corkscrew shaped organism? What disease dose it cause?

A

Treponema pallidum , syphilis

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66
Q

Syphilis , causative organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

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67
Q

Syphilis treatment? MOA?

A

Penicillin G IM - beta lactam antibiotic that disrupts cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase needed for cell wall cross linking

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68
Q

Fluroquinolone eg cipro MOA?

A

Disruption of bacterial dna synthesis by BLOCKING bacterial DNA GYRASE and TOPOISOMERASE

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69
Q

Adrenal gland - layers and substance secreted? In order

A

CORTEX
GFR - zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticular is
ACT - aldosterone , cortisol, testosterone

MEDULLA
catecholamines - 80%epinephrine , 20% norepi

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70
Q

Primary cell in adrenal medulla

A

CHROMAFFIN cells , stain purple

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71
Q

CHROMAFFIN cells are stimulated by? What does it secrete?

A

Stimulated by Ach
Secretes catecholamines (epi and norepi)

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72
Q

Perianal itching - organism?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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73
Q

Pinworm treatment

A

Albendazole

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74
Q

Ivermectin used to treat?

A

Strongyloides, onchocerciasis

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75
Q

Chaga disease - disease and treatment?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi,
nifurtimox

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76
Q

2 Ketogenic AAs?

A

Lysine and leucine

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77
Q

Lambert eaton associated w which cancer?

A

Small cell carcinoma

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78
Q

Polymyositis / dermatomyositis diagnosed with what invueatiagtion?

A

Muscle biopsy

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79
Q

Weight gain, bradycardia, brittle nails, myalgia, proximal muscle weakness, cramping. Diagnosis?

A

Thyroid myopathy

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80
Q

Transient global amnesia - dysfunction in which neural structure?

A

Hippocampus is responsible for memories

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81
Q

Arcuate fasciculus damage causes what?

A

It connect brocas and wernickes area and hence causes conduction aphasia

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82
Q

Nucleus accumbens role?

A

Reward and pleasure, ROLE IN ADDICITON

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83
Q

Piriform cortex function?

A

Processes olfactory information

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84
Q

Pontine reticular formation dysfunction causes what?

A

Delirium as it’s normally regulates arousal, attention etc

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85
Q

B3 adrengergic receptors

A

Relax the detrusor muscle

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86
Q

Alpha blockers eg tamsulosin? Indication?

A

BPH, relaxes smooth muscle in bladder neck

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87
Q

Isonaizid MOA?

A

inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis that form the mycobacteria’s peptidoglycan cell wall

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88
Q

Ciprofloxacin MOA?

A

Fluoroquinolone , inhibit DNA gyrase

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89
Q

Rifampin MOA?

A

INHIBITS PROTEIN SYTHESIS by inhibiting bacterial dna dependent rna polymerase

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90
Q

Streptomycin MOA?

A

AMINOGLYCOSIDE, inhibits bacterial 30S

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91
Q

Isonaizid Adverse event?

A

B6 deficiency

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92
Q

Rifampin AE?

A

GI effects, red orange body fluids

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93
Q

Pyrogenic cytokines that cause local inflammation?

A

IL1, IL6, TNF alpha

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94
Q

Giardiasis. Immunology impairment?

A

Secretory IgA production

95
Q

Duodenal atresia- enbroyological defect?

A

Failure of lumen to recanalize

96
Q

Intestinal atresia NOT including duodenal eg jejunal, ileum, proximal colon - embryological defect??

A

Vascular occlusion in utero

97
Q

Hursh sprung disease - embryological cause?

A

Failure of neural crest cell migration to the distal colon

98
Q

Biceps femoris insertion points?

A

LONG HEAD Origin is ISCHIAL TUBEROSITY tuberosity , ends at head of fibula

SHORT HEAD - femoral shaft to fibulae head

99
Q

Rectus femoris insertion points?

A

ILIUM to form quadriceps tendon on the PATELLA

100
Q

Superior gluteal nerve injury manifestations?

A

Weak gluteus medius and minimus -

Weakened abduction of the thigh
Trendelenberg gait

101
Q

Tibular n injury?

A

Numbness at sole of the foot,

decreased inversion and plantarflexion of foot and toe

102
Q

Common fibular / peroneal nerve injury? Deep and superficial nerve

A

Deep - dorisflex foot and toe

Superficial- sensation to lateral lower leg and dorsum of foot

103
Q

Compression from retroperitoneal hematoma - which nerve likely affected?

A

Femoral

104
Q

Femoral neuropathy symptoms?

A

Quad weakness, decreased patellar reflex, sensory loss in ANTERIOR thighs

105
Q

PCP (phencyclidine) intoxication - key symptom?

A

NYSTAGMUS

106
Q

Filtration fraction formulae?

A

FF= GFR/ RPF(renal plasma flow)

RPF = RBF x (1- hct)

107
Q

Myelofibrosis - blood smear finding?

A

Dacrocytes- tear drop cells

108
Q

Antacid use can cause what vitamin def?

A

B12

109
Q

Acyclovir MOA?

A

Nucleoside analog

(Incorporation into newly replicating viral DNA)

110
Q

Viral protease inhibitor , eg indinavir- INDICATION?

A

HIV antiretroviral treatment

111
Q

Oseltamivir MOA?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor - prevent of Virion release from infected cells

112
Q

Enfuvirtide MOA?

A

used in HIV, prevents viral entry into target cells

113
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor MOA?

A

Blocks reabsorption of NAHCO3 in the proximal tubule

Leads to INCREASED EXCERETJON OF HCO3

114
Q

Carbonic anhydrase effects on

urine ph
Paco2
Serum calcium
Urine potassium

A

Urine ph decreases (loss of hco3 occurs)
Paco2 decreases (as compensation)

urine K increases bc when Na resabsoprion is blocked in the proximal tubule there is increase absorption of Na in distal tubule. This causes excretion of K.

Ca reabsortion is coupled to Na in the proximal tubule so it will decrease

115
Q

Treatment resistance schizo- Management?

A

CLOZAPINE

116
Q

Clozapine - main adverse event?

A

AGRANULOCYTOSIS ,, neutropenia

117
Q

Protease inhibitors - suffix??

A

-navir

Mnemonic: (PROTEASE inhibitors NAVIR allow for mature viruses) 🤡

118
Q

Protease inhibitor MOA?

A

Cleave immature precursor proteins into fragments which develop mature viral particles

BLOCKS VIRAL MATURATION

119
Q

Indinavir- MOA and side effect?

A

Protease inhibitor
Nephropathy (problem INDi kidney🤡)

120
Q

Ritonavir- MOA and side effect?

A

Protease inhibitor

P450 inhibitor (🤡 ritONavir turns ON other drugs by blocks p450)

121
Q

protease inhibits general side effects ?

A

PROtease inhibitors

liPROdystrphy
hyPROglycemia
PROfuse diahrrea

122
Q

Integrase inhibitors- indication?

A

HIV drug

Blocks integrases ability to incorporate viral dna into host dna

123
Q

Integrase inhibitor AE?

A

High creatine kinase!

(🤡 think inteCKrase instead of integrase)

124
Q

Integrase inhibitor - suffix???

A

-tegravir (literally has integra in the name)

125
Q

Fusion inhibitors - 2 main drugs u need to remember

A

Enfuviritide and maraviroc

126
Q

Enfuviritide - MOA?

A

Binds GP41

which is present on envelope , prevents penetration

127
Q

Maraviroc - MOA?

A

Binds CCR5 - prevents attachment of virus

Homozygous CCr5 mutation - immunity to disease
Heterozygous ccr5 mutation - slower course

128
Q

NNRTIs - 3 main drugs

A

D deleviridine
E efavirenz
N nevirapine

(🤡No No not in the DEN- story of dirty medicine dog pooping in the den)

129
Q

Efavirenz- MOA? Specific Side effect?

A

NNRTI
Vivid dreams (🤡 efaVIVIDZ)

130
Q

Which DOES NOT need phosphorylation to be active?
NRTI or NNRTI?

A

NNRTI

131
Q

NRTI MOA?

A

Inhibits reverse transcriptase by preventing the formation 3’-5’ phospodiester bond in the growing hiv dna chain.

Able to do the above due to these chemicals lacking a 3’ hydroxyl group

132
Q

NRTI Side effects?

A

You’re inhibiting a DNA process so-

Peripheral neuropathy
Bone marrow suppression (tx with G-CSF)

133
Q

HIV med causing pancreatitis?

A

DIDanosine (🤡pancreaDIDis)

134
Q

HIV med causing Anemia?

A

Zidovudine (🤡A-Z, gets ZID of hemoglobin)

135
Q

AE of NNRTI?

A

hepatic failure (6 wks of starting)
SJS, TEN etc

136
Q

Addisons disease -

A

Adrenal insuff
Autoimmune
ACTH does not increase cortisol
High ACTH release bc of no cortisol - high MSH - hyperpigmentation

HYPONATREMIA, HYPERKALEMIA, HYPERCHLOREMIA, non anion METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

137
Q

Collagen types

A

Type 1, 2,3,4 - REVIEW THEM!! Watch video

138
Q

Do George syndrome genetic abnormality?

A

Chromosomal Microdeletion

139
Q

Digeorge syndrome and associated syndrome is?

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome

140
Q

Velocardiofacial syndrome features and cause?

A

Seen w di George syndrome

Cleft palate, cardiac anomalies, dysmorphic facies

Occurs due to defective neural crest migration into derivatives of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches - maldevp of thymus, parathyroid

141
Q

Kartagener syndrome manifestations?

A

Infertility, situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis

142
Q

Genomic imprinting disorders?

A

Prader willi and angelman

143
Q

Fredrich ataxia - which trinucleotide repeat?

A

CGG

144
Q

B12 deficiency causes demyelination in which site of spinal cord?

A

Dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts

145
Q

Hookworm mode of transmission and main complication

A

Larvae in soil Through skin
Go to lungs coughed up then go to intestine

Microcytic anemia

146
Q

Donepezil MOA and indication?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

Alzhiemer dementia

147
Q

What is reciprocal induction and 2 examples

A

Reciprocal induction is a type of signaling that occurs between 2 tissues. Both must be present for normal development

1- eye between the optic vesicle and surface ectoderm
2- kidney between metanephric blastema and ureteric bud

148
Q

RPGN on light miscroscopy?

A

Glomerular crescents

149
Q

Anti GBM disease - pathophysiology?

A

Anti GBM autoantibodies against alpha 3 chain of type 4 collagen.

Immunfluorenscence - LINEAR UNIFORM deposits along the GBM

150
Q

Glomerulonephritis + pulmonary hemorrhage ?

A

Goodpastyre syndrome

151
Q

Diabetic nephropathy - light microscopy classic finding

A

Nodular glomerlosclerosis (kinmelsteil Wilson lesion

152
Q

Membranous nephropathy - immunoflorescwnce?
Light microscopy?

A

GRANULAR/PATCHY igg deposits along GBM

Thickened glomerular capillary walls

153
Q

Granular (patchy) appearance of immunifluorescence of the glomerulus

A

1- PSGN
2- membranous nephropathy

154
Q

Renal amyloidosis tests

A

NephrOtic syndrome

CONGO RED STAIN
Pink red amyloid deposits on congo red stain
Apple green birefringence under polarized light

155
Q

Formula to calculate relative risk reduction RRR

A

RRR= ( Risk control - risk treatment ) / risk control

RRR= 1-relative risk

156
Q

MEN 1 ?

A

Pit adenoma
Parathyroid hypoerplasia
Pancreatic tumor

3 Ps

157
Q

MEN 2A

A

Parathyroid hyperplasia
Medically thyroid carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma

PMP

158
Q

MEN 2B

A

Pheochromocytoma
Medically thyroid ca
Mucosal neuromas
Marfinoid habitus

159
Q

Heme synthesis pathway rate limiting enzyme?

A

ALA synthase, cofactor B6

160
Q

Going ALA cytosol
Cop me some mitochondria
(Mnemonic)

A

Aminolevulinic acid (ALA goes from mitochondria to the cytosol

Coproporphyrinogen moves from the cytosol to the mitochondria

161
Q

Heme synthesis pathway - mnemonic

A

“ Get Some Additional Points Having Understood the Correct Pathway for Heme “
Glycine , succinyl coa, ALA, porphobilinogen, hydroxymeyhylbilane, uroporphyrinogen 3, coproporphyrinogwn 3, protoporphyrin, heme

162
Q

sideoblastic anemia?
Cause?
Image?
Lab?
Tx?

A

ALA synthase deficiency (1st step in heme synthesis pathway)
B6 deficiency (cofactor) (eg. Isonaizid use)
Lead poisoning

IMAGE - RINGED SIDEROBLASTS

Labs - iron overloaded state , high ferritin, high iron, low TIBC

Tx - pyridoxine

163
Q

ALA synthase deficiency - disease?

A

Sideroblastic anemia

164
Q

Lead poisoning -
Cause?
Enzyme affected?
Image?
X-ray finding?
Physical exam finding of mouth?

A

Exposure to lead paint (children) or batteries, ammunition, water (adults)

FErrocheletase and ALA Dehydratase (FEAD=LEAD🤡)

BASOPHILIC STIPPLING

LEAD LINE on X-ray

BURTON LINE (Blue black line on gum)

165
Q

Lead poisoning enzymes affected?

A

FErrochelatase and ALA Dehydratase (FEAD=LEAD🤡)

166
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria symptoms? And cause? Enzyme affected?

A

5 Ps
Pain (abdomen)
Polyneuropathy
Port wine colored urine 🍷
Psychological symptoms
P450 INDUCERS (CAUSE) eg PHENYTOIN, BARBS, SULFONAMIDE, INDUCE CYP ANDDD ALA SYNTHASE

PORPHOBILINOGEN DEAMINASE

167
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria - enzyme affected??

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase

168
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda symptoms?
Enzyme affected?

A

UROPORPHYRINOGEN DECARBOXYLASE

Blisters and photosensitivity
Worsened with alcohol
Associated with hep C

Treatment
Phlebotomy
Low dose hydroxychloroquine

169
Q

PCT - enzyme affected?

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

170
Q

Condylomata acuminata vs condylomata Lata

A

Acuminata - hpv 6,11, hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, koilocytosis (perinuclear vaculoization) on biopsy

Lata - syphylis , treponema pallid I’m on dark field microscopy, dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate on biopsy

BOTH are verruciform lesions - look similar on physical examination

171
Q

Condylmata accumunata causes what and had which association?

A

anogenital wart

Associated w HIV

172
Q

Psamoma bodies seen in?

A

MENINGIOMA
PAPILLARY THYROID CA
MESOTHELIOMA
SEROUS CARCINOMA OF OVARY AND ENDOMETRIUM

173
Q

Homer wright rosettes

A

Medulloblastoma

174
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A

Fried egg appearance

175
Q

Entacapone - drug class? Indication?

A

COMT inhibitor, reduces peripheral breakdown of dopamine

Parkinson’s

176
Q

Bromocriptine - class?

A

Dopamine agonist

177
Q

HMG Coa reductase inhibitors - side effects?

A

Hepatotoxicity
Myopathy (worse when combined w NIACIN or FIBRATES)

decreases mortality of CAD!!

178
Q

cholesytramine - MOA and side effects?

A

Bile acid resin

GI upset
Fat soluble nutrients malabsorption

179
Q

Ezetemibe MOA and side effect?

A

Blocks NPC1L1 receptors, blocking intestinal brush border transport ion of cholesterol

LFT ELEVATES

180
Q

FIBRATES MOA?

A

Activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL) (which helps in breakdown of triglycerides)
Activates PPAR-a (which increases hdl formation)

181
Q

FIBRATES side effect?

A

Myopathy (worse w statin)
Cholesterol gallstones (via inhibition of CHOLESTEROL 7 ALPHA HYDROXYLASE)

182
Q

PCSK9 inhibitor MOA?

A

PCSK usually breaks down LDL receptors on hepatocytes

Inhibition prevents LDL receptors breakdown allowing reuptake of cholesterol into hepatocytes

183
Q

Niacin used in cholesterol med. side effect?

A

FLUSHING !!! (Tx w nsaid)
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia

184
Q

Tinea pedis choice of antifungals?

A

Azoles eg clotrimazole
Allylamines eg terbinafine

185
Q

Tinea pedis - organism?

A

Trichophyton

186
Q

Candida choice of anti fungal?

A

Nyastatin

187
Q

IPEX

A

FOXP3 missense mutation
Dysfunction of REGULATORY T CELLS

188
Q

90 degree branching fungus?

A

Rhizopus causing mucormycosis

189
Q

Mucormycosis manifestation and organism?

A

Rhizopus fungus
Sinus infection, spreads on orbits and brain

190
Q

Tamoxifen MOA? Side effect?

A

SERM - acts as a agonist and antagonist

Acts as a antagonist on breast tissue hence is anti estrogen if effect
Acts as a stimulators effect on endometrial tissue causing ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA

191
Q

Glial cells (name 3) and function?

A

Astrocyte, oligodendrocyte, ependymal cell

Provide support to neuron

192
Q

Astrocyte function?

A

Structural support
Repair and detoxification
Participate in blood brain barrier

193
Q

Oligodendrocyte function?

A

Produce myelin

194
Q

Ependymal cell function?

A

Assist in production and movt of csf

195
Q

Microglia function?

A

Defense and immune response’!!

196
Q

Schwann cell function,

A

Produce myelin

197
Q

Glial cells - immunohustochemisty stain?

A

GFAP (glial fibrillary acidic protein)

198
Q

Neurons and neuro endocrine cells IHC stain?

A

Synaptophysin , chromogranin

199
Q

Muscle cells IHC stain?

A

Desmin

200
Q

Mesenchymal cells eg fibroblast IHC stain?

A

Vimentin

201
Q

Neural crest delivery cells eg meloncyte IHC stain?

A

S100

202
Q

Antifungal polyenes - examples?

A

Amphotericin B, Nyastatin

203
Q

Polyenes like Amphotercin B , Nyastatin MOA?

A

Bind to ergosterol molecules in fungal CELL MEMBRANE , creating pores , causing cell lysis

204
Q

Triazoles eg ketoconazole MOA??

A

Inhibit synthesis of ergosterol in CELL MEMBRAINE

205
Q

Echinocandins examples?? MOA??

A

Caspofungin, micafungin

Inhibit synthesis of GLUCAN, a component of fungal CELL WALL

206
Q

Flucytosine antifungal Moa?

A

Is converted to 5FU within the fungal cell and interfere w fungal rna synthesis and protein synthesis

207
Q

Nyastatin main indication?

A

Oral candiasis

208
Q

Griseofulvin MOA?

A

Interacts w fungal cell microtubules INHIBITS MITOSIS

209
Q

Hemophilia influenza B gram stain?

A

Gram -ve coccobacilli

210
Q

Warfarin induced skin necrosis

A

Pts taking warfarin and have an underlying protein c deficiency

211
Q

Color vision alterations - side effect of which drug?

A

DIGOXIN

212
Q

Radiation induced lung injury - histopath finding?

A

Acute - Alveolar HYALINE membranes
Delayed - dense fibrosis

213
Q

Isoniazid is metabolized by which process?

A

Acetylation

214
Q

Jarish herxheimer reaction?

A

Pt w spirochetal illness eg spyholis or Lyme disease can devp this after initiation of antimicrobial therapy

Fever, headache myalgia

215
Q

VIR vanco infusion reaction

A

NOT A TRUE ALLERGIC REACTION

Non allergic reaction that occurs when vanco is infused too rapidly causing direct activation of mast cells

FLUSHING, PRURITIS, ERYTHMATOUS RASH

216
Q

Short stature, short and thick neck, broad chest, shortened 4th metacarpal. Dx?

A

Turner’s syndrome

217
Q

Turner’s syndrome - heart malformation?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

218
Q

Tumor arising in the sellar area in children , having 3 components - solid, cystic, and calcified

A

Craniopharyngioma arising from rathkes pouch

219
Q

Superior gluteal n damage due to IM injection can occur in which quadrant of the buttock?

A

Supramedial (correct location for IM injection is superolateral!)

220
Q

Cellulitis most common organism?

A

Beta hemolytic strep STREP PYOGENES

221
Q

Pituitary gland - embryo logical derivative?

A

Surface ectoderm

222
Q

Erythema migrans - targetoid / bullseyes rash

A

Lyme disease

223
Q

Erythema marginatun - transient red plaques with sharp annular or serpingeinous borders w central clearing

A

Pt w untested strep pharyngitis in RHEUMATIC FEVER

224
Q

Albinism - enzyme defect?

A

Tyrosinase (needed in melanin synthesis pathway)

225
Q

Nikolsky positive?

A

Pemphigoid Vulgaris

226
Q

IgE INDEPENDANT mast cell degranulation? Causes?

A

VANCO, opioids , radiocontrast agents

227
Q

Osler weber rendu

A

Congenital telengtasias in lips, orophranyz, resp, gi tract

228
Q

Scabies, tx

A

Permethrin

229
Q

Hidraadenitis suppurativa pathogenesis?

A

Obstruction of folliculopilosebaceous unit

230
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy gene mutation?

A

TTN gene encoding titin protein

231
Q

Human herpesvirus 6 - disease?

A

Roseola infantum

Maculopapular rash STARTS ON TRUNK and spreads to face and extremities (like a rose it goes from down to up face) VS

Measles and rubella where rash goes from FACE to trunk

232
Q

Cellular receptor of the following?
A. Rabies virus-?
B. EBV -?
C. CMV-?
D. HIV -?
E. Rhinovirus?
F. Influenza?

A

A. Muscle Acetylcholine receptors
B. CD21
C. Integrity
D. CD4
E. Nasopharyngeal intracellular adhesion molecule
F. Resp sialic acid

233
Q

Lhermittie sign?

A

Electrical sensation in limb and back in MS

234
Q

Uhthoff sign

A

Symptoms worsening w increased body temp: IN M.S.

Uworld (3 decks)

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