UWorld Step3 Flashcards

(913 cards)

1
Q

What is subclinical Hypothyroidism?

A

Mild elevation in TSH levels (5-10) w/normal free T4 levels.

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2
Q

When are considered “convincing hypothyroid sxs” hypothyroidism?

A
When there is presence of:
1-	Antithyroid antibodies
2-	Abnormal lipid profile
3-	Sxs of hypothyroidism
4-	Ovulatory and menstrual dysfunction

should obtain anti-TPO abs in all pts. before treating

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3
Q

Common signs of hypothyroidism overtreatment:

A

Bone Loss

aFib

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4
Q

Features of cough-variant asthma:

A

Chronic non-productive cough is predominant sx instead of wheezing and SoB.
Allergens are common triggers as well as exercise and forced expiration.
Commonly occurs at night.

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5
Q

Features of Radiation Proctitis:

A

Often presents w/diarrhea, mucus discharge and tenesmus during or w/in 6wks of pelvic radiation.
Chronic cases occur >9wks to yrs after radiation.
Chronic radiation proctitis commonly a/w strictures, fistula formation and rectal bleeding.

Colonoscopy findings: continuous lesions w/pallor, friability, telangiectasias, and mucosal hemorrhage

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6
Q

Tx of chronic radiation proctitis:

A

Sucralfate or Glucocorticoid enemas

Acute cases often tx’d w/supportive measures

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7
Q

Characteristics of tracheomalacia:

A

Weakness of tracheal walls leading to expiratory airway collapse.
Sxs: coughing, SoB and stridor on PE

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8
Q

Features of Upper Airway Cough Syndrome (UACS):

A

Aka Post-Nasal Drip

Chronic non-productive cough, rhinorrhea, and often oropharyngeal cobblestoning on PE

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9
Q

Tx of Generalized convulsive status epilepticus:

A
  1. Stabilize circulation, airway/breathing; Evaluate for cause; Give IV BENZOS (lorazepam, diazepam or Midazolam)
  2. Give adjunctive IV agent: fosphenytoin, phenytoin, valproate
  3. If seizure still not terminated: EEG + continuous infusion of barbituate, midazolam or propofol
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10
Q

When should a skeletal survey be done in a patient with multiple myeloma?

A

At time of diagnosis – can assess extent of skeletal involvement and identify impending pathologic fractures.
Typically reveal punched-out lytic lesions and diffuse osteopenia

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11
Q

What kind of lesions do Technetium-99m bone scans primarily detect?

A

Blastic bony lesions

Much less sensitive than conventional xray for lytic lesions

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12
Q

Features of Hyperviscosity Syndrome:

A

Nasal or oral bleeding (d/t impaired platelet fxn)
Blurry vision
Neurologic sxs (confusion, HA)
Heart Failure
should obtain plsamapheresis for symptomatic pts

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13
Q

Cxs of Multiple Myeloma (6):

A
Hypercalcemia
Renal Insufficiency
Infections (pneumonia, UTIs)
Skeletal lesions
Hyperviscosity syndrome
Thrombosis (arterial and venous)
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14
Q

Common signs/sxs of renal failure:

A
Dyspnea
Nausea
Peripheral edema
Mental status changes
Eventual anemia
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15
Q

Common sxs of hypercalcemia:

A
Anorexia
Nausea
Polyuria
Constipation
Weakness
Confusion
Pleuritis
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16
Q

Uterine effects of Tamoxifen in pre- v. post- menopausal women:

A

Post-menopausal: have increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia/cancer and uterine sarcoma
Pre-menopausal: increased risk of endometrial polyp development

Tamoxifen will increase endometrial thickness in both groups

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17
Q

When should pts taking Tamoxifen be screened for adverse effects on the uterus?

A

Only if they develop sxs: AUB, postmenopausal bleeding, etc.

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18
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

biostats

A

When data is pooled from several studies
It is used to increase the power of a study (ability to detect difference in outcomes if one exists) by increasing the sample size.

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19
Q

What is stratified analysis?

biostats

A

Analyzing pts based on the presence or absence of a certain variable.
Used to control confounding factors and distinguish b/w confounding and effect modification.

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20
Q

What is quarternary prevention?

biostats

A

Set of health activities that mitigate and/or limit the consequences of unnecessary or excessive intervention by the health system.

Ex: use of shared EMR to limit unnecessary, repeat procedures in a pt who has already had a specific procedure done

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21
Q

What is the preferred choice of meningococcal post-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Rifampin – prescribed 2x/d for 2 days.

Ciprofloxacin (single 500mg oral dose) and Ceftriaxone (250mg single dose) are acceptable alternatives for those who cannot take Rifampin

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22
Q

When should Rifampin not be prescribed as meningococcal pphx?

A

In women taking oral contraceptives or anyone taking a CYP450 metabolized drug
(it’s a CYP450 inducer and increases hepatic clearance)

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23
Q

What type of HS is caused by the scabies mite?

A

Delayed type IV HS rxn to the mite and its feces and ova

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24
Q

How is Scabies diagnosed?

A

Clinically plus confirmation by skin scrapings from lesions that reveal mites, ova and feces under LM.

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25
CYP 450 Inducers (7):
``` *These will decrease drug effects* Carbamezapine, phenytoin Ginseng, St. John’s Wort Oral Contraceptives Phenobarbital Rifampin ```
26
CYP450 Inhibitors (11):
``` *These will increase drug effects* Acetaminophen, NSAIDs Abx/Antifungals (metronidazole) Amiodarone Cimetidine Omeprazole/PPIs Cranberry Juice, Ginko, Vit.E Thyroid hormone SSRIs (fluoxetine) ```
27
Laboratory abnormalities in hypothermic patients (9):
``` anion-gap Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Azotemia Hyperkalemia Hypergylcemia Elevated lipase Elevated Hct/Hemoconcentration Coagulopathy w/increased coagulation markers (INR and aPTT) Leukopenia/Thrombocytopenia ```
28
Medical contraindications to pregnancy (6):
``` LVEF <40% NYHA class III-IV heart failure Prior peripartum cardiomyopathy Severe obstructive cardiac lesions Severe pHTN (Eisenmenger syndrome) Unstable aortic dilation >40mm ```
29
First line contraceptive option for pts w/Eisenmenger syndrome:
Hysteroscopic sterilization or subdermal progestin implant | Estrogen-containing methods are contraindicated d/t increased risk of thromboembolism
30
Risk factors for spontaneous abortion:
Previous spontaneous abortion Advanced maternal age Substance abuse Extremes in BMI
31
What is the Wells criteria?
Calculates pretest probability for PE +3 points for: Clinical signs of DVT; Alternate dx less likely than PE +1.5 points for: previous PE or DVT; Heart rate >100; Recent surgery or immobilization +1 point for: Hemoptysis; Cancer Total Score = 4 is low pretest probability (PE unlikely); >4 is high pretest probability (PE likely)
32
What are the 2 distinctive features of acute HIV/retroviral syndrome?
Painful mucocutaneous ulcer (shallow, discrete, white base) | Generalized maculopapular rash that may include the palms and soles
33
What is a Type II error?
A false negative The failure to detect a difference bw groups when one exists. The smaller a study the less power and higher likelihood of type II error
34
When should balloon valvuloplasty be performed in pts w/bicuspid aortic valves?
Done in symptomatic or asx (pts who plan to become pregnant or participate in competitive sports) young adults if the following criteria are met: Aortic Stenosis No significant AV calcification or AR Peak gradient >50mmHg
35
Contraindications to fibrinolysis w/tPA (6):
Presence of active internal bleeding Bleeding diathesis (platelets <100k) Hypodensity in >33% of an arterial territory on CT Presence of intracranial hemorrhage on CT Intracranial surgery in last 3mos BP > 185/110mmHg
36
What must be present to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis?
Evidence of sacroiliitis
37
What are the extraarticular manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis?
Apical pulmonary fibrosis/Restrictive lung disease Ocular: acute anterior uveitis, cataracts, cystoid macular edema Cardiac: aortic regurg, MVP Varicocele GI: ileal and colonic mucosal ulcerations Atlanto-axial subluxation --> spinal cord compression Cauda equina syndrome Nephrotic syndrome caused by IgA nephropathy and secondary amyloidosis
38
What are risk factors for disability/poor px in ankylosing spondylitits?
Smoking is a/w very bad px | Prolonged standing and exposure to cold conditions increase risk of disability
39
1st line therapy for prevention of cluster headaches:
Verapamil – usually initiated at 240mg Should not be taken repeatedly, and should only be used as a preventive treatment started at the onset of a cluster period. Occasionally topiramate may be added to verapamil therapy. **Sumatriptan may be used in the acute setting but is not preventative**
40
What is onychomycosis and how is it tx’d?
Fungal infection of finger or toenails most commonly caused by dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum 1st line: Terbinafine, Itraconazole 2nd line: Griseofulvin, Fluconazole, Ciclopirox
41
How to distinguish a-thalassemia from B-thal minor:
Both will have same lab values (decreased MCV, normal RDW, norm/high RBCs, norm/high Iron and ferritin) and same peripheral smear (target cells). Must distinguish w/Hb electrophoresis – will show increased HbA2 for B-minor and normal for a-thal
42
What is the major threat to internal validity? | *biostats*
Confounding
43
What is hungry bone syndrome?
A complication that can be seen following parathyroidectomy Caused by sudden withdrawal of PTH in pts w/severe hyperparathyroidism, causing an increased influx of Ca2+ from the circulation into the bone. Typically see signs/sxs of hungry bone syndrome 2-4 days post-op Pre-op risk factors: severe hyperparathyroidism, severe bone disease and VitD def. (all these conditions have v high bone turnover)
44
What are the likely causes of hypocalcemia following a parathyroidectomy?
Relative hypoparathyroidism – suppression of normal parathyroid glands by high Ca2+ levels pre-op fail to respond to low Ca2+ levels post-op Hungry bone syndrome – when PTH levels fall post-op the dynamics of bone turnover shift from net efflux of Ca2+ from bone to net influx of Ca2+ into bone.
45
What is the diagnostic criteria of Acute Chest Syndrome?
New pulmonary infiltrate on CXR plus one or more of the following: Increased work of breathing, cough, tachypnea, wheezing Temp >38.5C/101.3F Hypoxemia Chest pain
46
What is the initial tx of Acute Chest Syndrome?
Ceftriaxone/Cefotaxime + Azithromycin IVF Pain control
47
When should a blood transfusion be given in acute chest syndrome?
If O2 sat is <92% Significant anemia Worsening sxs despite initial tx
48
How does VitB12 def cause hyperbilirubinemia?
Ineffective erythropoiesis causes hemolytic anemia and indirect hyperbilirubinemia
49
What is the classic pattern of pain seen in pts w/rotator cuff injuries?
Lateral shoulder or deltoid pain aggravated by reaching or lifting the arms up. Seen in rotator tears and tendonitis, impingement syndrome and frozen shoulder
50
What are the 5 steps of a root cause analysis in order? | *biostats*
1. Collect Data 2. Create causal factor flow chart 3. Identify root causes 4. Generate recommendations and implement changes 5. Measure success of changes
51
What medications can cause digoxin toxicity?
Verapamil Quinidine Amiodarone Spironolactone
52
How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis diagnosed?
Diagnostic paracentesis w/either positive cultures or 250+ neutrophils in the ascitic fluid
53
How is a patient’s 90-day survival calculated in the setting of End-Stage liver disease?
With the MELD score Values used to calculate are serum BR, INR, and serum Creatinine. Na+ is sometimes added to the calculation
54
How to tell between an obstructive stone v. sloughed renal papilla:
If there is no evidence of stone on CT then check BUN/Cr Only renal papillary injury will cause increases in BUN/Cr Stones will only lead to kidney injury if it is a solitary kidney or they are bilaterally obstructing.
55
What are some of the side effects of licorice?
May cause HTN and hypokalemia | Will likely see as a result a suppression of the RAAS system with low renin and aldosterone
56
What is a side effect of black cohosh?
Hepatic injury
57
When is Indomethacin indicated for tocolysis?
When <32 weeks gestation | 32+ weeks it is contraindicated d/t risk of oligohydramnios and premature closure of ductus arteriosus.
58
When should tocolytics be given?
``` To pts <34 weeks gestation Give CCBs (Nifedipine) when 32-34 weeks Indomethacin when <32 weeks ```
59
What is the tx for V. vulnificus infection?
Doxycycline + Ceftriaxone
60
What should be done in pts w/cryptococcal meningitis w/recurrent sxs of elevated ICP?
These pts need serial lumbar punctures until the sxs stop – often the yeast and capsular polysaccharides can clog the arachnoid vili and lead to markedly increased ICP which if not managed can cause herniation/death. In rare cases VP shunts need to be placed
61
What are the 3 tx-stages for HIV pts w/cryptococcal meningitis?
1. Induction – amphotericin B + flucytosine for 2+ weeks (until sxs stop and CSF is sterile) 2. Consolidation – high dose oral fluconazole for 8wks 3. Maintenance – low dose oral fluconazole for 1+yr to prevent recurrence **This is the same tx strategy for disseminated/cutaneous cryptococcus**
62
What is the definition of a non-preventable adverse event? | *biostats*
Harm/injury caused by medical management, not by disease/condition
63
What lab testing should be ordered in a patient found to have an adrenal mass?
``` ALL adrenal masses should be worked up. Serum electrolytes Dexamethasone suppression testing 24-hr urine catecholamine Metanephrine VMA 17-ketosteroid measurement ```
64
When should surgical excision be recommended for an adrenal tumor?
``` All functional tumors (hormone secreting, etc.) All malignancies (which demonstrate characteristic heterogenous appearance on imaging) All tumors >4cm ```
65
Features of lateral Medullary Syndrome:
aka Wallenberg syndrome – most sxs ipsilateral Vertigo, falling to side of lesion, diplopia, nystagmus, difficult sitting upright, limb ataxia Abnormal facial sensation or pain Dysphagia, aspiration, hoarseness Horner’s syndrome, hiccups, lack of autonomic respiration
66
Where would a lesion be expected to cause sensory loss in the contralateral face and body?
The thalamus or cortex – loss in face and body on the same side, contralateral to the lesion **Contrast to lesions in the brainstem (medulla) involving the CNs, these will cause losses in ipsilateral face and contralateral body**
67
What type of contraception is ideal for pts w/PCOS?
1st line are combined OCPs, but they should all receive progestins – these confer endometrial protection and help thin and reverse the hyperplasia thereby reducing the risk of cancer
68
What exam findings are consistent w/severe aortic stenosis?
1. Soft, single second heart sound (S2) – d/t delayed closure of the aortic valve 2. Pulsus parvus et tardus – delayed and diminished carotid pulse 3. Loud and late-peaking systolic murmur
69
What is most likely to cause multi-nutrient malabsorption in a young patient?
Celiac disease
70
What are some of the extraintestinal manifestations of celiac disease?
``` General: fatigue, weight loss Skin: dermatitis herpetiformis, vitiligo MSK: osteopenia/porosis, osteomalacia – high alk phos levels, low Ca2+, low PO4-, low Vit. D Heme: anemia (esp. Fe-deficient) Neuro: peripheral neuropathy, HAs Endocrine: AI thyroiditis, Type I DM Psych: depression, psychosis ```
71
What are the characteristics and causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism?
Characteristics: Suppressed TSH, normal thyroid hormone levels, +/- hyperthyroid sxs Causes: Exogenous thyroid hormone, graves disease, nodular thyroid disease, inflammatory thyroiditis
72
When is tx indicated in the setting of subclinical hyperthyroidism?
``` If TSH is persistently <0.1 If TSH is 0.1-0.5 PLUS additional risk factor: Age 65+ Heart disease Osteoporosis Nodular thyroid disease ```
73
What is the tx of symptomatic bacterial vaginosis?
Oral or vaginal Metronidazole or Clindamycin **during pregnancy only symptomatic pts are tx’d; tx does not decrease cxs in asx pts**
74
When should a carotid endarterectomy be performed?
In patients w/symptomatic carotid artery disease who have high grade stenosis (70-99%) and a life expectancy of 5+ years Risks outweigh benefits in pts who are poor surgical candidates or have shorter life expectancies.
75
What are the 3 CHD risk equivalents/most significant predictors of adverse cardiovascular outcomes?
1. Noncoronary atherosclerotic disease (carotid, PAD, AAA) 2. Diabetes 3. CKD
76
How is Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy diagnosed?
EEG showing bilateral polyspike and slow wave activity/discharges
77
What are the characteristics and tx of infantile spasms?
Epileptic disorder of infancy characterized by symmetric spasms, developmental delay and hypsarrhythmia on EEG. Gold-standard tx: Corticotropin (ACTH) and Vigabatrin
78
What are common secondary causes of restless leg syndrome?
``` Fe-deficiency anemia Uremia/ESRD/CKD DM MS or Parkinson Pregnancy Drugs – antidepressants, metoclopramide ```
79
How would cholecystitis and cholangitis be differentiated on US?
Cholecystitis will show gallbladder wall thickening and edema/pericholecystic fluid (no obstruction, just inflammation) Cholangitis will show dilation of the intrahepatic ducts and common bile duct (obstruction leading to infection)
80
What is a common complication of gallstone pancreatitis?
Acute cholangitis – should be suspected in anyone w/gallstone pancreatitis who has fevers, RUQ pain, jaundice, AMS, and HoTN. Must do ERCP stat to relieve obstruction to prevent development of sepsis and death
81
What Rxs are contraindicated or should be avoided in pts w/RVMI?
Nitrates – decrease RV preload and cause profound HoTN and cardiogenic shock Diuretics – volume depletion and HoTN Opiates – venous dilation and decreased RV preload BBs – sometimes appropriate, but contraindicated in pts w/bradycardia or cardiogenic shock
82
How can a large PE be differentiated from RV MI?
PE is more likely to cause tachycardia, dyspnea, and syncope RVMI is more likely to cause bradycardia and arrhythmias Both can cause RV dysfxn, increased CVP and decreased LV preload and CO
83
What are signs of RV MI?
Often in patients w/acute inferior wall MI d/t occlusion of the RCA proximal to the RV brs. Signs/Sxs: chest pain, HoTN, autonomic signs (diaphoresis, V), and EKG findings of ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. May also have JVD, +Kussmaul’s sign, and clear lung fields suggestive of RVF Possible bradycardia or AV block bc enhanced AV tone.
84
EKG leads involved in RV MI:
Blocked RCA ST elevation in V4-V6 Occurs in 1/2 of Inferior MIs
85
EKG leads involves in lateral MI:
LCX, diagonal vessel blocked ST elevation in I, aVL, V5 and V6 ST depression in II, III, and aVF
86
EKG leads involved in posterior MI:
LCX or RCA blocked ST depression in V1-V3 ST elevation in I and aVL (LCX) ST depression in I and aVL (RCA)
87
EKG leads involved in inferior MI:
RCA or LCX blocked ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF Inferior MIs are a/w HoTN, bradycardia and AV block.
88
EKG leads involved in anterior MI:
LAD blocked | Some or all of V1-V6
89
Anticholinergic effects of TCAs:
``` Dry mouth Blurred vision Dilated pupils Flushing Hyperthermia Urinary retention ```
90
How is Dementia w/Lewy bodies treated?
``` Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil) for cognitive impairment Carbidopa-levodopa for parkinsonism Melatonin for REM sleep behavior disorder ``` **antipsychotics may be used to tx functionally impairing visual hallucinations/delusions, but pts w/DLB are vv sensitive to antipsychotics and they can cause significant worsening of confusion, parkinsonism and autonomic dysfunction**
91
If antipsychotics need to be prescribed in DLB which should be used?
Low-potency 2nd gens like Quetiapine | High-potency 2nd gens (Risperidone) and 1st gens are a/w significant exacerbations of sxs
92
What is the MoA of Organophosphates?
They inhibit acetylcholinesterase at the NMJ – causes CHOLINERGIC toxicity
93
What is the MoA of Atropine?
Competitive inhibition of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors – causes anticholinergic toxicity.
94
What are the signs/sxs of Cholinergic toxicity?
``` Muscarinic effects: “DUMBELS” Defecation/diarrhea Urination Miosis Bronchospasm/bradycardia Emesis Lacrimation Salivation Nicotinic effects: mm. weakness, paralysis, fasciculation CNS: respiratory failure, seizure, coma ``` **often caused by organophosphate poisoning**
95
Mgmt of organophosphate poisoning:
``` Emergent resuscitation – O2, IVF, intubation Atropine & Pralidoxime Activated charcoal (if w/in 1hr of exposure) ```
96
Common sxs seen in anticholinergic toxicity:
``` Dry mucous membranes Flushing Mydriasis Urinary retention Decreased bowel motility ```
97
#1 risk factor for PID:
Multiple sexual partners
98
Common signs/sxs of salicylate toxicity:
Brain: Tinnitus, dizziness, AMS, cerebral edema, seizures Lungs: tachypnea, pulmonary edema Heart: arrhythmia Liver: hepatitis Stomach: nausea, vomiting Systemic: fever/hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis/lactic acidosis
99
Tx of salicylate toxicity:
Alkalinization of serum and urine w/sodium bicarb Other options: supplemental glucose (dextrose 5% H2O), activated charcoal (if w/in 2hrs of ingestion), dialysis (if pt has pulm edema, fluid overload, AMS, renal failure, cerebral edema, severe acidosis or v high salicylate levels)
100
What are the typical lab findings in RMSF?
Thrombocytopenia Hyponatremia Increased AST and ALT
101
What is the tx of RMSF?
Doxycycline – even for children and pregnant women
102
What is the tx of Lyme disease?
Doxycycline for all late stages and early stage in everyone >8yo Amoxicillin for early lyme in children <8
103
When should inotropic agents be used in pts w/RVMI?
When a pt. has persistent HoTN despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Dopamine is the initial Rx of choice Dobutamine should be avoided as it can decrease PVR and worsen HoTN.
104
When would hypertrophic osteoarthropathy be seen?
It is a paraneoplastic syndrome a/w intrathoracic malignancy + other pulm diseases (CF) Polyarthropathy a/w digital clubbing and periostosis (xs bone formation)
105
Dx of Polymyositis:
Elevated m. enzymes – CK, aldolase, AST Auto-Abs – ANA, anti-Jo-1 Bx – Endomysial infiltrate and patchy necrosis
106
DTR in polymyositis:
NORMAL! Differentiates it between other causes of muscle weakness – Hypothyroidism (delayed), and Lambert Eaton (absent)
107
What is mixed connective tissue disease and what are the lab findings?
AI disorder w/variable features of: SLE, Systemic Sclerosis and Polymyositis Lab findings: Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein, ANA, RF, anti-CCP, elevated CK, anemia/cytpoenias
108
What is the difference b/w PMR and Polymyositis?
PMR has pain and stiffness in muscles, but NO weakness. Have increased ESR and CRP, but CK, aldolase, etc are all normal Polymyositis has severe weakness, but pain is mild/absent and no stiffness. Will have increased CK, aldolase, AST and ANA/Anti-Jo-1 Abs. Need muscle bx to dx this but not PMR
109
What are the side effects of SGLT2 inhibitors?
Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitors (canagliflozin) can cause: Genitourinary infections – vulvovaginal candidiasis, UTIs Fluid loss – symptomatic HoTN, AKI Metabolic abnormalities: Hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia, euglycemic ketoacidosis Misc – low trauma fractures, amputation
110
What is the approximate chance of a patient with acute HBV infection progressing to chronic HBV infection?
The chance decreases with age: Perinatally acquired infections have 90% chance of progressing to chronic HBV Children age 1-5 have a 20-50% progression rate Adults have <5% progression rate **In contrast, HAV has an almost 0% progression rate, and HCV has a 75-85% progression rate**
111
What should be suspected in an alcoholic who develops weakness after feeding/fluids are started?
Rhabdomyolysis 2/2 hypophosphatemia that is exacerbated/unmasked by refeeding
112
What electrolyte disturbances are seen in refeeding syndrome?
Increased insulin occurs d/t carbohydrate ingestion (IV or enteral) This causes increased cellular uptake and decreased serum levels of: K+, PO4, Mg2+, and Thiamine Phosphate is the primary deficient electrolyte bc its needed to make ATP Deficiencies in Mg2+ and K+ cause cardiac arrhythmias Thiamine deficiency causes Wernicke Aggressive nutrition w/o adequate electrolyte replacement – cardiopulmonary failure
113
DoC for folate-def anemia induced by MTX therapy:
Folinic acid (Leucovorin) – more potent than folic acid, and can rescue RBCs by bypassing the block on DHFR
114
What are the features of Tuberous sclerosis complex?
Neurocutaneous disorder w/benign tumors in multiple organs – intracardiac rhabdomyomas, renal angiomyolipomas Angiofibromas, ash-leaf spots and shagreen patches (thick leathery skin, dimpled like an orange peel)
115
What are the features of Sturge-Weber syndrome?
Triad of port-wine stain on the face, ocular disease (visual deficits or glaucoma), and leptomeningeal capillary-venous malformations. Often have seizures from the malformations
116
When does renal biopsy need to be performed in the pediatric population?
Kids >10 w/nephrotic syndrome Kids of all age w/nephritic syndrome Patients <10 w/minimal change that don’t respond to steroids
117
What imaging should be part of the initial evaluation in a pt. suspected to have Tuberous Sclerosis Complex?
Brain MRI/EEG – determine if there are any tumors or baseline seizure activity Abdominal US or MRI – evaluate for renal involvement (obstructive renal angiomyolipomas) **Neurologic impairment/epilepsy is the #1 cause of death in TSC and renal involvement is the 2nd**
118
How is Cerebral palsy diagnosed?
Clinically (usually by 1-2yrs) + Brain MRI (shows periventricular leukomalacia, brain malformation, ischemia, BG lesions, etc.) EEG should only be done in pts who have seizure-like activity
119
Sxs of Scombroid poisoning:
Flushing, throbbing HA, palpitations, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, oral burning, skin erythema, wheezing, tachycardia, and HoTN Occurs when fish is stored improperly and histidine undergoes decarboxylation to form histamine
120
Sxs of pufferfish poisoning:
Primarily neurologic: perioral tingling, incoordination, weakness, etc.
121
What are the common features of subphrenic abscess and how is it diagnosed?
Commonly seen 14-21 days after abdominal surgery Often have hx of abdominal surgery, swinging fever, leukocytosis, and cough and shoulder-tip pain may be the presenting sxs. Abdominal US is best diagnostic test
122
What is the role of Lamotrigine in bipolar patients?
An anticonvulsant, it is used in the depressed phase and for maintenance therapy It is not effective for treating mania. **Quetiapine and Lurasidone are alternatives for bipolar depression**
123
When should antibiotics be added to the mgmt. of a pt. w/COPD exacerbation?
``` If they have any 2 of the following: Increased sputum purulence Increased sputum volume Increased dyspnea Or if they require any type of mechanical ventilation (invasive or non) ```
124
What is the definition of macrocephaly and when should neuroimaging be sought?
Macrocephaly is head circumference >97th percentile for age Neuroimaging should be done to evaluate for pathologic processes when: Rapidly expanding HC (>2cm/mo in an infant <6mo) Neuro abnormalities (seizures etc) Developmental delay **Head US is best study in infants w/open anterior fontanelle**
125
What measure of association should be used in case control studies, and how is it calculated? *biostats*
Odds ratio should be used. It is the odds of an event occurring in exposed patients divided by the odds of an event in unexposed pts. (null value is 1) OR = (a/c) / (b/d) = (a*d)/(b*c)
126
What measure of association should be used in cohort studies and how is it calculated? *biostats*
Relative risk (null value is 1.0) RR = (a (a+b)) / (c (c+d)) = (risk of developing disease in the exposed group) / (risk in the unexposed)
127
What does the kappa statistic measure? | *biostats*
Inter-rater reliability
128
What is the null value when assessing OR? | *biostats*
1.0 | Ho = 1.0 for RR and HR as well.
129
What is the most specific finding to suggest cardiac tamponade?
Early diastolic collapse of the RV and RA – seen on echo Electrical alternans on EKG is also fairly specific for tamponade In contrast, low-voltage QRS on EKG, kussmaul sign, and pulsus paradoxus are all non-specific and can be seen in multiple other disease states.
130
What are the signs/sxs of Ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity?
Early signs: nausea, vomiting, slurred speech, ataxia, nystagmus, lethargy, kussmaul’s breathing/rapid and deep (d/t severe anion-gap metab acidosis) Later signs/further toxicity: tachypnea, agitation, confusion, flank pain, renal failure, pulmonary edema, AMS, eventual coma
131
When do oral glucocorticoids need tapering?
If they have been taken for 3+ weeks, especially if they were taken at high doses or at night. Need a roughly 3 week tapering period
132
What antibiotic has increased risk for tendon ruptures/tears?
FLUOROQUINOLONES Hydroxychloroquine also increases risk
133
What medication is approved for photoaged skin?
Tretinoins
134
What is the main complication of anal abscesses?
Fistula formation – up to 50% of pts w/anal abscesses develop chronic fistula
135
What diseases are WSW at higher risk for?
HPV infection and therefore cervical cancer Ovarian and breast cancers – d/t higher rates of smoking and obesity, less freq screening, lower parity and less OCP use Bacterial vaginosis DM-II CVD
136
What is net clinical benefit? | *biostats*
The clinical usefulness of a medication – it’s a measure of its possible benefit minus its harm
137
What is the primary purpose of using an “intention-to-treat” approach? *biostats*
To preserve randomization
138
Causes of acute, painless vision loss:
1. Central retinal a. occlusion – have pale fundus w/”cherry red spot” 2. Central retinal v. occlusion – fundus w/retinal hemorrhages and optic disc edema 3. Retinal detachment – fundus w/vitreous hemorrhages and marked elevation of retina 4. Vitreous hemorrhage – decreased red reflex, visible hemorrhage on fundoscopy
139
What is length-time bias? | *biostats*
When pts w/rapidly progressive form of a disease are less likely to be detected by screening when compared to those w/slowly progressive disease Slowly progressive pts remain asx for longer and increase their chances of being diagnosed by screening measures.
140
What are the calculations for Sensitivity and Specificity? | *biostats*
``` Sensitivity = True Positives / (TP + FN) or A / (A + C) Specificity = True Negatives / (TN + FP) or D / (B + D) ```
141
What are the calculations for PPV and NPV? | *biostats*
``` PPV = TP/ all(+) or A/(A + B) NPV= TN/ all(–) or D/(D + C) ```
142
What is the only azole that should not be used in Aspergillus infection?
Fluconazole – has limited activity against aspergillus and shouldn’t be used
143
What is the treatment of Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis?
Systemic glucocorticoids Antifungal therapy – itraconazole or voriconazole are DoCs Omalizumab may occasionally be used
144
What findings should raise suspicion for TB meningitis?
Brain imaging showing basilar meningeal enhancement CSF showing: increased protein, low glucose, lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated adenosine deaminase May also see choroidal tubercles (yellow-white nodules near optic disc) on fundoscopy
145
When should colchicine NOT be used in an acute gouty attack?
In patients taking other medications that cause leukopenia as that is also a risk of colchicine, and in patients w/renal failure
146
When do hepatic adenomas require treatment?
If they are symptomatic or >5cm – surgical resection | If asx and <5 then stop offending meds (OCPs)
147
What are some of the common features to suggest Cervical Myelopathy?
LMN signs at the level of the lesion – weakness and atrophy in the arms UMN signs below the lesion – gait dysfxn, and hyperreflexia in the legs
148
How would paraneoplastic myelopathy present?
It is lesion against the spinal cord and will present w/flaccid or spastic paraplegia or quadriplegia, sensory deficits +/- urinary or fecal retention/incontinence
149
Common findings in invasive aspergillosis:
Triad of fever, chest pain and hemoptysis Pulmonary nodules (yes plural) with halo sign (surrounding ground-glass opacities) Positive cell wall biomarkers (galactomannan, beta-D-glucan)
150
Tx of Invasive Aspergillosis:
1-2wks of IV Voriconazole + an Echinocandin (Capsofungin) | Then can be transitioned to prolonged oral tx of Voriconazole alone
151
Tx of ITP:
glucocorticoids
152
What should all patients with presumed ITP be tested for?
HIV and HCV
153
What kind of infection is ringworm?
It is a Dermatophyte infection – Tinea Corporis Aka this is a fungal, NOT parasitic infection and needs to be tx’d 1st line w/topical anti-fungals (Clotrimazole, terbinafine) Dermatophyte infection involving the scalp (tinea capitis), diffuse or refractory cases are tx'd w/oral anti-fungals (griseofulvin, terbinafine)
154
What are the main organisms that cause central line-associated bloodstream infections?
``` #1: Coagulase negative staph. Others: S. aureus, gram negs. (Klebsiella, pseudomonas), and Candida ```
155
When should Cefepime be part of the tx regimen for meningitis?
If the person is IMCP’d or it occurs after neurosurgery/penetrating skull trauma It’s a 4th gen-ceph and covers: S. pneumo, N. meningitidis, GBS, H. influenzae, MSSA and Pseudomonas
156
Common causes of adrenal hemorrhage:
Pts on anticoagulants w/acute stress (sepsis) | Hemorrhagic necrosis w/systemic infections: meningococcemia or pseudomonas sepsis
157
What characteristic of CF bronchiectasis helps differentiate it from other causes?
Upper lung lobe involvement – CF is the main cause of bronchiectasis involving the upper lobes Infection w/Pseudomonas is also characteristic
158
Febrile Neutropenia common causes and treatment:
G-negs (P. aeruginosa especially) are most common infection in febrile neutropenia. Once blood cultures are taken monotherapy w/an anti-pseudomonal B-lactam should be started – cefepime, meropenem, pip-tazo.
159
Presentation of Langerhans cell histiocytosis:
Lytic bone lesions (skull, jaw, femur) seen in diaphysis of long bones Skin lesions (purplish papules, eczematous rash) Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly Pulmonary cysts/nodules Central DI
160
What is the most common cause of Pneumonia in CF children v. adults?
In children, S. aureus is the most common and Pseudomonas is in adults. S. aureus starts to decline around age 20 whereas pseudomonas begins to peak. Both pathogens should be covered in tx of pneumonia in CF children.
161
What renal disease are HBV+ people most at risk of getting?
Membranous nephropathy. | Normally uncommon in children, but can occur in those w/HBV
162
What cyanotic heart diseases of the newborn present with a single S2?
Transposition – Single S2 +/- VSD murmur Tricuspid atresia – Single S2 + VSD murmur Truncus arteriosus – Single S2 + systolic ejection murmur
163
Most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in the neonatal period:
Transposition of the great vessels.
164
What kind of bacteria is Bartonella henselae and what is the tx?
Fastidious gram neg bacilli Tx: Azithromycin; However, many cases are self-limiting and don’t require tx *may also add clindamycin if lymphadenopathy is present but dx is unclear
165
Tx of Sporotrichosis:
3-6mo of oral Itraconazole
166
Most common cause of secondary amenorrhea:
Pregnancy
167
What is the single-item screening question used for alcohol abuse?
How many times in the past year have you had 5 (4 for women) or more drinks in a day?
168
When is metformin contraindicated?
In pts w an estimated GFR <30 | Should be used w caution in those w/eGFR 30-45
169
Mgmt of pancreatogenic diabetes:
Occurs d/t chronic pancreatitis destroying islet cells (alpha and beta) Tx: Metformin for mild hyperglycemia, Insulin for more severe or symptomatic hyperglycemia **these pts are prone to developing hypoglycemia d/t loss of glucagon-producing a-cells, but ketoacidosis is rare bc of this glucagon loss**
170
What is the typical difference in differentiating Upper GI Bleed (UGIB) v. LGIB?
UGIB mostly presents as hematemesis or melena | LGIB is more commonly hematochezia or bright red blood from the rectum
171
How does CHF cause hyponatremia?
Low CO and decreased perfusion P at baroreceptors and renal afferent aa. --> increased release of renin and NE + secretion of ADH. ADH binds to V2 receptors in collecting ducts and increases H2O reabsorption Renin and NE increase proximal Na+ and H2O reabsorption and limit water delivery to distal tubules This all leads to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia **Hyponatremia in CHF parallels the severity of HF and is a predictor of adverse outcomes**
172
When should hyponatremia be corrected in the setting of CHF?
If the patient develops sxs of hyponatremia or if they are asx in severe hyponatremia (Na+ <120) Initial tx is water intake restriction **Correction of hyponatremia doesn’t improve clinical outcomes a/w HF**
173
What abx pose increased risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
Macrolides: Azithromycin and Erythromycin | - often given as post-exposure pphx for pertussis to infants w/a sick contact
174
What is the main cause of otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome?
Nontypeable H. Influenzae | Causes concurrent otitis media and purulent conjunctivitis
175
Tx of acute otitis media:
Initial: Amoxicillin 2nd Line: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (given for recurrent AOM if pt already received amoxicillin w/in the same month) Penicillin-allergic: clindamycin or azithromycin
176
When is a cerclage typically placed?
at 12-14 weeks gestation
177
What is the tx of scleroderma renal crisis?
ACEIs are the DoC (captopril esp.) bc they reverse the angiotensin-induced vasoconstriction If the pt. has malignant HTN w/CNS manifestations a 2nd agent may be added, like IV nitroprusside
178
What tests should be ordered when adrenal insufficiency is suspected and how are they interpreted?
Need morning plasma cortisol w/concurrent ACTH 1. Low cortisol + high ACTH – diagnostic for primary adrenal insufficiency 2. Low cortisol + low ACTH – secondary or tertiary adrenal insufficiency 3. If testing is indeterminate get further tests to assess pituitary fxn
179
How will hypoaldosteronsim present?
Often asx w/hyperkalemia and mild metabolic acidosis
180
How will Chronic adrenal insufficiency present?
Fatigue, weight loss, myalgias, increased pigmentation, decreased axillary and pubic hair Labs: hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
181
How long can lymphadenopathy be observed for following a viral illness?
Lymphadenopathy is common in mono especially and can be observed for 3-4 weeks or less if the pt. presents w/ signs of malignancy. After this time period they should be referred for biopsy
182
What are the key differences b/w Aplastic crisis and splenic sequestration crisis in sickle cell pts?
Aplastic crisis – reticulocytes go down (<1%); transient arrest of erythropoiesis, secondary to infection Splenic sequestration – reticulocytes increase; vaso-occlusion causes rapidly enlarging spleen, only occurs prior to autosplenectomy
183
When should a long-term tunneled catheter be removed in the setting of suspected catheter-related bloodstream infection?
If any of the following are present: 1. Severe sepsis 2. Hemodynamic instability 3. Evidence of metastatic infection (endocarditis) 4. Pus at the exit site of the catheter 5. Continued sxs >72 hrs after abx 6. Blood culture confirmation of: S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, or fungi (candida) All other pts should just have catheter changed over a guidewire once afebrile and stable
184
1st line treatment of HTN in Gout pts:
ARBs and ACEIs *Especially Losartan: has a mild uricosuric effect Most diuretics (thiazides, furosemide) decrease urate excretion and should be avoided
185
When is a CT urogram safe during pregnancy?
Only in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters It should never be the 1st imaging test ordered in pregnancy – start w/renal and pelvic US, if negative do transvaginal US, if negative either treat empirically for stone or can do MRU or low-dose CTU
186
What abx have activity against Pseudomonas?
Cefepime and Ceftazidime (cephalosporins) Amikacin and tobramycin (aminoglycosides) Carbapenems Levofloxacin, gemofloxacin (respiratory fluoroquinolones) Aztreonam Colistin (aka polymyxin E) Pip-tazo Ticarcillin-clavulanate
187
What is the leading cause of death in patients with parkinson’s disease?
Aspiration pneumonia
188
How should all patients w/unexplained new-onset HF be evaluated?
Echo, EKG, and Stress testing or coronary angiography to assess for CAD
189
What adjunctive therapy can be used to tx PCP?
In addition to TMP-SMX corticosteroids may be used and have been shown to reduce mortality in severe cases. Indications: PaO2 <70 or A-a gradient >35 on room air.
190
Difference b/w diagnostic tests of choice for Diverticulitis v. Diverticulosis:
Diverticulosis – barium enema is test of choice, may do colonoscopy Diverticulitis – Contrast CT is test of choice (barium enema and colonoscopy are contraindicated until rupture is r/o)
191
Scleroderma renal crisis:
Sudden onset of renal failure (w/o previous kidney disease), malignant HTN (HA, blurry vision, N). UA may show mild proteinuria PBS may show microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or DIC w/schistocytes and thrombocytopenia.
192
Auto-Abs in Scleroderma:
Antinuclear-Ab (most sensitive, but not specific) Anti-topoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70) Ab & anti-RNA pol III (most specific) Anticentromere-Ab (mostly in limited disease/CREST)
193
What kind of shock can be seen in mineralocorticoid deficiency?
Distributive shock – norm from primary adrenal insufficiency. Will have HoTN from low aldosterone levels and low SVR a/w hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.
194
How to differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:
Primary – d/t AI destruction of adrenal gland will see hyperpigmentation and mineralocorticoid deficiency, HoTN etc. Eosinophilia and hyperplasia of lymphoid tissues (tonsils) are also common findings. Secondary – d/t destruction of the pituitary gland will not have these effects and will only present w/signs of glucocorticoid and androgen deficiency.
195
What anesthetic can lead to adrenal insufficiency?
Etomidate – it inhibits 11B-hydroxylase
196
Tx of tinea versicolor:
Topical anti-fungals (azoles are DoC) | If topical tx is ineffective or there is extensive disease, switch to oral azole
197
What is a 24-hr holter monitoring used for?
To diagnose suspected paroxysmal cardiac arrhythmias
198
What are the 5 diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease?
1. Rash – inguinal folds, perineum, trunk 2. Nonexudative conjunctivitis 3. Swelling +/- erythema of palms/soles 4. Mucositis – erythema of lips, tongue, oral mucosa 5. Cervical lymph node >1.5cm All these must be present w/fever for 5+ days
199
How should a child w/suspected Kawasaki disease be managed when they don’t meet all 5 diagnostic criteria?
If 3 or less criteria are met in a child w/5+ days of fever then CRP, or ESR should be measured, ibuprofen should be given and daily follow up should occur to monitor for more sxs If 4 criteria are met then you can diagnose KD and give aspirin + IVIG (only given until response is seen)
200
What challenge does the mgmt. of Kawasaki pose in children?
It is tx’d w/IVIG which interferes w/the body’s normal immune response to live vaccines and therefore live vaccines should be deferred for 11 months after receiving IVIG
201
What type of dysphagia is seen in Barrett’s esophagus?
None – it doesn’t cause dysphagia | If it transitions into malignancy the associated malignancy can cause obstructive dysphagia
202
What are the antipsychotic induced extrapyramidal effects and how are they treated?
Acute Dystonia – benztropine, diphenhydramine Akathisia – BB (propranolol), benzodiazepine (lorazepam), benztropine Parkinsonism – Benztropine, amantadine Tardive dyskinesia – valbenazine, deutetrabenazine
203
How is spontaneous splenic rupture managed?
Initially non-operatively w/volume resuscitation and gaining hemodynamic stability If pts remain hemodynamically unstable despite adequate resuscitation cut em open
204
Analgesics a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Acetaminophen NSAIDs Mesalamine, Sulfasalazine Opiates
205
Antibiotics a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Isoniazid Tetracyclines Metronidazole TMP-SMX
206
Antiepileptics a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Valproate | Carbamazepine
207
Anti-hypertensives a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Thiazides, furosemide | Enalapril, losartan
208
Antivirals a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Lamivudine | Didanosine
209
Immunosuppressants a/w Rx-induced pancreatitis:
Azathioprine, mercaptopurine | Corticosteroids
210
What is the most likely outcome of chronic urticaria?
Spontaneous resolution w/in 2-5 years
211
What EKG findings are the diagnostic criteria of STEMI?
New ST elevation at the J-point in 2+ anatomically contiguous leads w/the following threshold: - >1mm in all leads except V2 and V3 - 1.5+ mm in women, 2+mm in men 40+, and 2.5+mm in men <40 in leads V2 and V3 New LBBB w/clinical presentation consistent w/ACS
212
When are cleft lip/palate reconstruction surgeries typically performed?
By 3mos/10wks of age | Rule of 10s: 10lbs of weight, 10wks of age, 10g of hemoglobin
213
What are the 2main causes of acute mitral regurgitation?
Papillary muscle rupture – occurs d/t MI or trauma | Chordae tendineae rupture – can be 2/2 MVP, Infective endocarditis, Rheumatic heart disease, trauma
214
Main differences b/w bacterial otitis externa and bacterial otitis media:
Both caused by bacteria and typically have purulent ear drainage (if tympanic membrane is ruptured in AOM) - Otitis externa almost always has pain on manipulation of the ear, and fever is generally absent - Otitis media almost always has fever, but pain is often absent once the tympanic membrane is ruptured
215
Characteristics of late decels on FHR tracing:
Onset w/contraction and 30+ seconds to the nadir | Often seen in setting of fetal hypoxia
216
Characteristics of variable decels on FHR tracing:
<30 sec to nadir with variable depths, can have more than one between contractions Often caused by umbilical cord compression
217
What cancers cause primarily osteoblastic lesions when they have bone mets?
Prostate Small cell lung Hodgkin lymphoma **evaluate w/radionuclide bone scan**
218
What cancers primarily have osteolytic lesions when they have bone mets?
Myeloma Non-small cell lung Non-hodgkin lymphoma **evaluate w/XR, PET or PET/CT**
219
What abx can be used to treat UTI in pregnancy?
``` Nitrofurantoin is DoC (5-7d) Amoxicillin (3-7d) Amoxicillin-clavulanate (3-7d) Fosfomycin (single dose) Cephalexin (3-7d) **Tetracyclines, flouroquinolones and TMP-SMX are contraindicated** ```
220
When should chelation therapy be used to tx lead poisoning?
When venous lead levels are >45 ug/dL Dimercaptosuccinic acid (succimer) is used when levels are 45-69 Dimercaprol (British anti-Lewisite) + EDTA is used in emergency when levels are >70 or there are signs of acute encephalopathy.
221
What are some of the features unique to Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Skin manifestations – transparent/hyperextensible skin, easy bruising, poor healing, velvety w/atrophy and scarring Abdominal and inguinal hernias Uterine prolapse High arched palate
222
What are some of the features unique to Marfan syndrome?
``` Tall w/long extremities Pectus carinatum Progressive aortic root dilation Lens and retinal detachment Spontaneous pneumothorax ```
223
Genetics a/w Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndromes:
Both AD inheritance ED – COL5A1 and COL5A2 mutations Marfan – FBN1 mutation
224
Calculation for NNT: | *biostats*
NNT = 1/ARR ARR = (% affected in control group) – (% affected in treatment group) = (c/(c+d)) – (a/(a+b))
225
How is PPV influenced by other factors? | *biostats*
PPV increases with increasing prevalence and increases with increased specificity NPV increases with increasing sensitivity
226
What is attributable risk and how is it calculated? | *biostats*
AR is the difference in risk b/w exposed and unexposed AR = (a/(a+b)) - (c/(c+d))
227
Risk factors of cerebral palsy:
Prematurity Low birth weight **Smoking and EtOH use are NOT risk factors**
228
Why does prematurity increase the risk of Cerebral Palsy?
Premature infants are more likely to have periventricular leukomalacia (white matter necrosis from ischemia/infarction) and intraventricular hemorrhage Both of these are a/w CP
229
Diagnostic study for suspected aortic dissection:
TEE or CTA – but can’t use CTA in renal disease. TTE should not be used
230
What complications can be prevented by lowering HbA1c/achieving glycemic control in DM?
The microvascular complications – nephropathy and retinopathy – will be reduced. It will have no change on the macrovascular complications – MI, stroke.
231
Most common AE w/in 1-6hrs of transfusion:
Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn. -- can be prevented with leukoreduction.
232
When should cells be washed prior to transfusion?
If the pt. has IgA deficiency or had a prior allergic transfusion rxn.
233
Difference in lung region affected by Silicosis v. Asbestosis:
Asbestosis is one of the only pneumoconiosis that affects the LOWER lobes of the lungs Pneumoconioses that affect the upper lobes: Silicosis (a/w sandblasting and foundries, increases risk of TB) Berylliosis (a/w aerospace engineering, vv. high risk of lung ca.) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis (aka black lung disease)
234
Evaluation of hypergastrinemia in patients on a PPI:
Nearly all pts on long-term PPIs will have hypergastrinemia (typically <400) 1st step to evaluate is withdrawal PPI and repeat gastrin levels; most pts will have normal gastrin levels after withdrawal If gastrin levels are still high after PPI d/c then evaluate for other causes: H. pylori, ZES, gastrinoma, etc.
235
What are cannon waves and when are they seen?
Cannon waves are large a-waves seen on JVP tracings – d/t the RA contracting against a closed tricuspid valve Seen in heart block and ventricular tachycardia/AV dissociation
236
What Rxs are used for rate control in aFIb?
CCBs – diltiazem, verapamil | BBs – metoprolol, propranolol, esmolol, atenolol, timolol, carvedilol
237
What supplement can cause a false-negative occult blood stool test?
Vitamin C
238
What should be given as long-term tx in anxiety attacks/panic attacks?
SSRI is 1st line
239
In children with viral GE what can exacerbate sxs and should be avoided?
Fruit juice – juice high in fructose or sorbitol increases the osmotic load and causes fructose malabsorption in the SI. Juices should be avoided until sxs of GE resolve.
240
What diagnostic tests should be done at the time of diagnosis of Scleroderma?
PFT +/- TTE Should evaluate for pulmonary involvement as it is common in systemic sclerosis ILD is common in diffuse cutaneous systemic disease, and pHTN is common in CREST syndrome
241
How long is the washout period from discontinuing one serotonergic Rx before beginning another?
Most antidepressants require a 14-day washout period before beginning another serotonergic med, but Fluoxetine has a long t1/2 and requires at least 5 weeks.
242
Mgmt of acute colonic ischemia:
IVF and bowel rest Abx w/enteric coverage Colonic resection if necrosis develops
243
Drugs that decrease levothyroxine absorption:
Bile acid-binding agents (cholestyramine) Iron Calcium Aluminum hydroxide PPIs Sucralfate **can try taking these at a different time of day than levothyroxine to avoid malabsorption**
244
Drugs that increase TBG concentration:
``` Estrogen (oral not IUDs) Pregnancy Tamoxifen, raloxifene, HRT Heroin, methadone Acute hepatitis ```
245
Drugs that decrease TBG concentration:
``` Androgens Glucocoticoids/hypercortisolism Anabolic steroids Slow-release nicotinic acid Chronic liver disease Hypoproteinemia: nephrotic syndrome, starvation ```
246
Drugs that increase thyroid hormone metabolism:
Rifampin Phenytoin Carbamazepine
247
What imaging should be done to assess for suspected osteonecrosis of the femoral head?
MRI – much more sensitive than XR
248
What are the indications for parathyroidectomy?
Age <50 Symptomatic hypercalcemia Cxs: Osteoporosis, nephrolithiasis/calcinosis, CKD (GFR <60) Elevated risk of cxs: Ca2+ 1+ above normal, urinary Ca2+ excretion >400mg/day
249
What complications of lead toxicity occur at the lowest levels?
Cognitive impairment and behavioral problems can occur at levels as low as 10-20 Encephalopathy and hemolytic anemia only occur with severe toxicity (70+) Decreases in nerve conduction can also occur at low lead levels but peripheral neuropathy is uncommon.
250
Contraindications to breastfeeding:
``` Active, untreated TB HIV infection Herpetic breast lesions Active varicella infection Chemo or radiation therapy Active substance use disorder Galactosemia in the infant ```
251
When should external cephalic version be performed?
37+ weeks gestation
252
What is the definitive mgmt. of a tension pneumothorax?
Chest tube placement – needle decompression is appropriate in the emergency setting where tension physiology is present and they are at risk of cardiac arrest, but then should always be replaced with a chest tube. Needle decompression should not be done in a patient who is stable and has not yet developed tension physiology (tachycardia, JVD, tachypnea, hypoxemia, decreased/absent breath sounds)
253
Tx of urinary schistosomiasis:
Praziquantel
254
Tx of Keloid scars:
Intralesional glucocorticoids | Surgical excision can be considered if steroids fail
255
Tx of Cyanide toxicity
Sodium thiosulfate
256
What are common causes of SIADH?
``` CNS disturbance – stroke, hemorrhage, trauma Drugs – carbamazepine, SSRIs, NSAIDs Lung disease – pneumonia Ectopic ADH secretion – SCLC Pain and nausea ```
257
How to differentiate SIADH v. XS water ingestion:
SIADH will have serum hypotonicity (<275 mOsm), inappropriately high urine osmolality (>100mOsm), high urine sodium (>40), and clinical euvolemia Excessive water ingestion will have low urine osmolality (<100mOsm) and euvolemic hyponatremia
258
Tx of Tourette syndrome:
2nd generation antipsychotics: Risperidone, aripiprazole, are preferred tx 1st generation antipsychotics: fluphenazine, pimozide, haloperidol, can also be used Other 2nd line options: a2-agonists (clonidine, guanfacine), and tetrabenazine (DA depleter)
259
What is the most likely outcome of Sarcoidosis?
Resolution of sxs without recurrence (~75%) | Many need no tx, but those who do typically are treated for 1-2 years with steroids and then they are discontinued
260
Mgmt of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia:
1st stop all heparin products 2nd start a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban) or fondaparinux (these are not oral) 3rd transition to warfarin (bc it is oral) after platelet count has recovered to >150k
261
Preferred tx of hyperthyroidism:
Methimazole is preferred over PTU bc of the severe hepatotoxicity a/w PTU PTU is only preferred for women in the first trimester of pregnancy
262
What is raloxifene?
A SERM – used for breast ca prevention and tx of osteoporosis
263
What is sensitivity analysis? | *biostats*
Repeating a primary analysis calculations after modifying certain criteria or variable ranges Used to determine if such modifications significantly affect the results initially obtained
264
What are the main complications of HOCM?
Sudden cardiac death Arrhythmias – Vtach, aFib, etc. Strong a/w WPW which increases risks of SCD
265
Drugs that are contraindicated in pts. w/WPW:
``` BBs CCBs Digoxin Adenosine **AVN conduction should NOT be slowed in these pts. which all these Rxs do** ```
266
Diseases associated with HOCM:
Wolf-Parkinson White | Friedreich ataxia
267
What is saw palmetto often used to tx and what are its side effects?
BPH | Side effects include mild GI sxs and increased bleeding risk
268
What are Likelihood ratios and how are they calculated? | *biostats*
LR is the probability of a given test result occurring in a pt. w/a disorder compared to the probability of the same result occurring in a pt. w/o the disorder. Provides clinically useful information for individual patients and is not effected by prevalence +LR = sensitivity / (1- specificity) ; -LR = (1-sensitivity)/specificity LR>2 rules in the disease; LR<0.5 rules out the disease; LR 0.5-2 is equivocal
269
What does aFib w/rapid ventricular response look like on EKG and what is used to tx?
Narrow QRS-complex tachycardia Absence of organized P waves Irregularly irregular rhythm w/varying R-R intervals Tx w/an AVN blocking agent like a BB or CCB (diltiazem, verapamil); unstable pts need cardioversion Although adenosine is used to tx narrow-complex tachycardia it has no role in tx of aFib
270
What should be the initial test in determining the cause of polycythemia?
Serum EPO level
271
Rxs that increase lithium levels:
``` Thiazides ACEIs/ARBs NSAIDs (but not aspirin) Abx: tetracycline and Metronidazole Also, volume depletion (often d/t the above stated Rxs) ``` **acetaminophen does not**
272
When should pts w/Lithium toxicity be treated w/hemodialysis?
If levels are >4mEq/L >2.5 w/sxs or renal failure Increasing level despite tx w/IVF
273
What are common signs/sxs of Cushing’s syndrome?
``` HTN Hyperglycemia – newly diagnosed DM Osteoporosis Mood Swings Hypokalemia Metabolic Alkalosis ``` **Evaluate with overnight dexamethasone suppression test or 24hr urinary free cortisol**
274
Common causes of constrictive pericarditis:
Idiopathic or viral Cardiac surgery Radiation therapy TB pericarditis in endemic areas
275
What is cardiac cirrhosis?
Hepatic congestion that occurs 2/2 RHF that eventually leads to cirrhosis Often seen as a result of constrictive pericarditis
276
Treatment of alopecia areata:
Topical or intralesional corticosteroids **side note: fingernail pitting is commonly a/w this condition**
277
What is the initial mgmt. of DKA?
IV insulin + aggressive IVF (NS) + Potassium supplementation if <5.2 Once serum glucose falls <200 the rate of insulin infusion should be halved and dextrose should be added to IVF to prevent hypoglycemia
278
When should IV insulin be switched to subQ in DKA?
SubQ insulin can be started for the following: pt is able to eat, glucose is <200, anion gap <12 and serum HCO3 is 15+ IV insulin and SubQ insulin should be overlapped by 1-2hrs
279
When should mammography begin?
Between 40-50; 50 is recommended for general population but can start as early as 40 depending on individual and patient’s preferences
280
When should genetic testing for inherited breast cancer disorders be recommended?
2 1st-degree relatives w/breast ca (1 before age 50) 3 first or second degree relatives w/breast ca (at any age) 1st or 2nd degree relative w/breast and ovarian ca 1st degree relative w/ bilateral breast ca Breast ca in a male relative Ashkenazi jews w/any 1st or 2nd degree relative w/breast or ovarian ca
281
Tx for shingles:
7d of oral valacyclovir if they present <72hrs after rash onset If >72hrs after rash onset typically just get analgesia and topical rash care (zinc oxide cream) If IMCP’d or widespread disease – get IV acyclovir for 7+ days
282
How does splenic vein thrombosis often present?
May be asx, but can present w/variceal bleeding d/t isolated gastric varices – this is the hallmark of the disease May also see portal HTN, ascites and congestive splenomegaly Often a/w pancreatitis
283
How should infants of +HBV mothers be managed?
At birth HBV vaccine and HBV-Ig should be administered Then HBV vax series should be completed at 2 and 6 months Serology should be taken at 9months – if no HBsAg at that time, infant is uninfected **liver function tests are not used in detection of infantile HBV**
284
Causes of central retinal a. occlusion:
``` Carotid a. atherosclerosis (most common) Cardiogenic embolism Sm. a. disease d/t DM +/- HTN Carotid a. dissection Hematologic disease (SCD, hypercoagulability) Vasculitis (giant cell arteritis) ``` **central retinal v. occlusion in contrast is usually not d/t embolic disease**
285
What skin manifestation is highly concerning for Neurofibromatosis1?
Axillary and inguinal freckling | They also have numerous, widespread café-au-lait macules (more numerous than the gen population)
286
What should take precedence in evaluation of a patient suspected to have NF1?
Ophthalmologic evaluation – asses for bilateral optic pathway gliomas These are pathognomonic for NF1, but often initially asx
287
When is egg allergy a contraindication to vaccine?
It’s not – personal or FHx is not a contraindication bc anaphylaxis is so rare Can be given in an inpatient setting though if they want
288
What do overlapping confidence intervals imply? | *biostats*
Overlapping areas may or may not imply a statistically significant difference Non-overlapping areas do imply a statistically significant difference.
289
What are the features of Pemphigoid gestationis?
Aka herpes gestationis It’s an autoimmune disease typically presenting in the 2nd or 3rd trimester w/pruritis that precedes a truncal rash Characteristic rash: begins periumbilical as urticarial papules and plaques – develop into vesicles and bullae Rash spreads over entire body but spares mucous membranes
290
Tx of Pemphigoid gestationis:
High-potency topical steroids (triamcinolone) Antihistamines Typically resolves after delivery
291
When should IV-potassium be given in Diuretic-induced hypokalemia?
If the patient has dysfunctional bowel/paralytic ileus, cardiac or neurologic complications
292
What is penetrance?
The probability of a gene or trait being expressed Aka will someone with a gene show any presence at all that they have the gene or will they be a silent carrier with no phenotypic expression
293
What is expressivity?
The variation in phenotypic expression
294
How to differentiate Sm Bowel Obstruction v. Ileus: | Causes, PE findings and Imaging findings
Small Bowel Obstruction: Causes – prior surgery (wks to years) PE – distended abdomen, increased bowel sounds Imaging – small bowel dilation present; Large bowel distention ABSENT; air-fluid levels Ileus: Causes – recent surgery (hrs to days), metabolic (hypokalemia), medication induced PE – possible distention, reduced/absent bowel sounds Imaging – small bowel AND large bowel dilation; gas in colon and rectum, no air-fluid levels
295
Risk factors for testicular cancer:
Cryptorchidism – #1 risk FHx HIV infection
296
Workup in suspected testicular cancer:
Scrotal US PE – firm ovoid mass or unilateral swelling, absence of transillumination Tumor markers – AFP, B-hCG Staging imaging – CT scan, Chest XR
297
Locations with highest prevalence of tick paralysis:
Australia Western North America **most cases caused by Rocky Mtn. Wood tick and American Dog Tick**
298
Features of tick paralysis:
Neurotoxins in tick saliva are transmitted over 4-7days and then sxs start: Brief prodrome of fatigue and paresthesias Gait ataxia and ascending paralysis develop over hrs Absent DTRs Fever and sensation abnormalities are usually absent and Lab and imaging are typically normal
299
Tx of Tick paralysis:
Meticulous skin examination to find and remove offending agent (tick) Most patients recover completely after this and have dramatic improvement in sxs w/in few hrs after removal of tick
300
What features on head CT in an infant would suggest abuse over accident?
A mixed-density pattern showing both acute (hyperdense) subdural bleeds on chronic (hypodense) subdural bleeds Accidental trauma is more likely to only show acute, hyperdense, bleeding
301
Mgmt of Shoulder Dystocia:
BE CALM: should be performed in this order B – breathe, do not push E – Elevate legs/flex hips (McRoberts) C – call for help A – apply suprapubic pressure L – enlarge vaginal opening w/episiotomy M – Maneuvers: deliver post. arm; rotate post. shoulder; adduct post. fetal shoulder; mother on hands and knees; all else fails replace fetal head and go for cesarean
302
When should endoscopic screening be performed to evaluate for Barrett esophagus?
Hx of chronic GERD (>5yrs) or frequent reflux sxs and 2+ of the following risk factors: Age >50 Male sex White Hiatal hernia Obesity/increased waist circumference (>102cm) Current or former tobacco use 1st-degree relative w/Barrett esophagus or esophageal adenocarcinoma
303
What is the standard caloric intake recommended for enteral feeding?
30 kcal/kg/d with 1g/kg of protein | lower amounts are used for pts w/severe malnutrition to prevent refeeding syndrome
304
What are the tx options and durations of tx for Strep pharyngitis?
Penicillin is preffered tx – should be given orally for 10d minimum Single dose IM Penicillin can be given to those who can't tolerate oral abx Azithromycin or Clindamycin may be given for 5d to those w/anaphylactic Pen allergies Cefazolin is given for mild pen allergies **abx are continued for this length of time to reduce risk of ARF and suppurative cxs**
305
What is the tx of papulopustular rosacea?
Topical metronidazole – most commonly prescribed Others: Azelaic acid Topical clindamycin Benzoyl peroxide
306
Common manifestations of ocular rosacea:
``` Burning or foreign body sensation Blepharitis Keratitis Conjunctivitis Corneal ulcers Recurrent chalazion ```
307
What patients have a higher association of angiodysplasia?
Those with advanced renal disease, Von Willebrand, and Aortic stenosis (d/t acquired vWF deficiency).
308
What is likely to cause jejunal atresia and how will it present?
Jejunal and ileal atresia likely d/t vascular insults in utero that cause necrosis and resorption of fetal intestine Common causes: maternal vasoconstrictive meds, tobacco or cocaine abuse Presents w/bilious emesis, abdominal distension and “triple bubble” sign on xray and gasless colon typically w/in first 24hrs
309
What is the mgmt. and contraindications for chest pain in cocaine use?
Managed with benzos for BP and anxiety Aspirin, Nitroglycerin, and CCBs for pain BBs are contraindicated and Fibrinolytics should be avoided d/t risk of ICH. Cardiac catheterization w/reperfusion done when indicated aka if there are signs of STEMI on EKG.
310
What kind of arrhythmia is Carotid massage used for?
Helps to terminate PSVT – a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia. It increases PSNS activity which helps directly slow AVN conductivity Not used in the tx of aFib Contraindications: recent TIA/stroke, carotid bruit
311
What is a desmoid tumor?
Locally aggressive benign tm arising from fibroplastic elements w/in the muscle or fascial planes It has v. low potential for mets or differentiation Thought to be d/t abnormal wound healing or clonal chromosomal abnormalities causing neoplastic behavior Increased risk in patients w/familial adenomatosis polyposis (Gardner syndrome)
312
How do desmoid tms often present?
As deep seated painless, sometimes painful, masses in the trunk/extremity, intraabdominal bowel and mesentery, and abdominal wall. They have high rate of recurrence even after aggressive surgery removal
313
What does exertional lightheadedness/exertional syncope raise suspicion for?
Cardiogenic syncope – d/t an underlying structural heart defect
314
What sided heart failure causes pulmonary edema?
LEFT – back up in the pulmonary a. leading into the LA will cause pulm edema
315
What findings on PFT suggest an obstructive lung disease?
Reduced FEV1 Reduced FEV1/FVC ratio – bc FVC is typically normal TLC, and DLCO are typically normal but may be slightly elevated in asthma and DLCO is decreased in COPD.
316
What findings of PFT suggest a restrictive lung disease?
FEV1 and FVC both decreased FEV1/FVC ratio normal or increased TLC and DLCO are also decreased
317
What size lesions should be considered suspicious for melanoma?
6+ mm in diameter – these need excisional/punch biopsies with 1-3mm margins
318
Rxs that can either cause increase or decrease in Lithium levels:
Loop diuretics – furosemide | CCBs – verapamil; but these Rxs are usually considered safe and Amlodipine is routinely used
319
Rxs that decrease Lithium levels:
K+ sparing diuretics (Spironolactone) | Theophylline
320
What conditions has Bullous Pemphigoid often been a/w?
Many neurologic conditions such as dementia, Bipolar and MS
321
What is one of the major complications seen in Sjogren’s Syndrome?
polycloncal B-cell activation and infiltration of the salivary glands leading to B-cell NH lymphoma Often detected as a submandibular mass
322
What range of proteinuria is seen in Nephrotic Syndromes?
>3-3.5 g/d
323
What is hypoglycemia defined as?
<60mg/dL
324
What are common EKG findings for Brugada syndrome and long QT syndrome?
Brugada – right bundle branch block and ST elevation in V1-V3 Long QT syndrome – QTc >450 msec in men and >470 in women
325
What are features of anomalous aortic origin of a coronary artery?
Common cause of SCD in young athletes May have premonitory sxs of exertional angina, lightheadedness or syncope; SCD may also occur without any prior sxs EKG and TTE are often nondiagnostic and appear normal CTA or coronary MRA are diagnostic tests of choice
326
What is the problem created by anomalous aortic origins of a coronary artery?
By having both L and R coronary artery originate from only one aortic sinus the defect creates a sharp curvature for the anomalous artery and makes it less amenable to high-volume flow. The anomalous artery also passes between the aorta and pulmonary a. and makes it susceptible to external compression during exercise
327
Differences b/w Pseudoaneurysm and AV fistula:
Pseudoaneurysm – bulging, pulsatile mass with audible systolic bruit AVF – no mass, continuous bruit Both may present with localized pain to the area and can typically be diagnosed w/US
328
What is the standardized incidence ratio? | *biostats*
A measure used to determine if the occurrence of a disease in a small population is high or low relative to an expected value derived from a larger comparison population It is calculated by dividing the observed cases in that population by the expected number of cases
329
Preferred tx for Guillain-Barre:
Pooled human immune globulin (IVIG) or therapeutic plasma exchange
330
What is the mgmt. of severe malnutrition (marasmus/kwashiorkor)?
Rewarming for hypothermia Abx for presumed systemic infection Rehydration – oral fluids preferred; IVF if in shock Refeed cautiously
331
What should pts w/alcohol use disorder and progressive cognitive decline be tested for?
Folate deficiency
332
What is used to assess the respiratory mm. weakness and monitor respiratory status in pts w/GBS?
Frequent measurement of Vital Capacity and negative inspiratory force
333
What is a/w broad-notched P-waves on EKG?
Mitral stenosis | EKG shows “P mitrale” (broad, notched P waves), atrial tachyarrhythmias, RVH (tall R waves in V1 and V2)
334
When is skeletal maturity typically reached?
By the end of puberty with Tanner stage 5
335
What is the main cause of spreading for viral conjunctivitis?
Eye discharge – pts. are infective and should stay home from school/limit contacts until eye discharge has resolved. Eye redness and morning crusting may occur after discharge has stopped but these are not considered signs of contagiousness
336
What is a factorial design?
A study that involves the randomization to different interventions w/additional study of 2+ variables.
337
Therapy for hyperkalemia and when it should be instituted:
Acute tx: Calcium gluconate or chloride, insulin w/glucose | Should be given to pts. w/ ECG changes, K+ > 7 w/out ECG changes, or rapid K+ d/t tissue breakdown.
338
Manifestations of hyperkalemia:
Chronic may be asx until K+ > 7mEq/L Acute causes sxs at lower levels --> ascending m. weakness, flaccid paralysis, ECG changes (peaked Twaves, short QT interval, loss of P wave, QRS widening, sine wave w/vFIb).
339
What pediatric patients are at risk for Wilm’s tm. and hepatoblastoma?
Patients with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, as well as those with isolated Hemi-hyperplasia (WAGR complex and Denys-Drash are also at risk for Wilm’s tm.) Both need to undergo frequent screening w/US and AFP measurements
340
Features of Neuroblastoma:
Neural crest origin, involves adrenal medulla and sympathetic chain. Often presents <2yrs, w/abdominal mass. Can get Horner syndrome if in SNS chain Other features: periorbital ecchymoses (orbital mets), spinal cord compression from epidural invasion, opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome (rapid vertical and horizontal nystagmus w/myoclonus), HTN, flushing and diaphoresis Dx: elevated CAs (VMA, HVA), n-myc amplification, small round blue cells on histo.
341
What is the attributable risk percent (ARP)? | *biostats*
It’s a measure of excess risk Estimates the proportion of the disease in the exposed subjects that is attributable to exposure status ARP = (risk in exposed – risk in unexposed) / (risk in exposed) = (RR-1)/RR
342
What is Population attributable risk percent (PARP)? | *biostats*
It is a measure of excess risk in the total population, not only in exposed subjects PARP = (Risk in total population – Risk in unexposed) / (Risk in total population) = [(Prevalence)(RR-1)] / [(Prevalence)(RR-1) +1] Risk in total population = (risk in exposed)(proportion of exposed) + (risk in unexposed)(proportion of unexposed)
343
What is the best PE maneuver to assess for complete rupture of the Achilles tendon?
The Thompson test – squeeze the calf to see if there is plantar flexion; no plantar flexion is basically pathognomonic of complete rupture of Achilles tendon.
344
What signs/sxs would be seen if there were a tibial nerve defect?
Loss of gastrocnemius-soleus motor function | Loss of plantar sensory function
345
What makes S. pneumoniae more invasive in pts. w/HIV infection?
Its encapsulated and they have deficits in opsonization, humoral immunity and macrophage/neutrophil fxn
346
When is UDS needed to evaluate incontinence?
If the patient has mixed incontinence or complicated incontinence.
347
How to differentiate constitutional delay of growth and puberty from familial short stature:
Familial short stature – short stature will be seen with normal growth velocity and a normal bone age Constitutional delay of puberty – delayed bone age on xray with height and pubertal development correlated more closely with the bone age rather than chronological age
348
At what age is puberty considered delayed?
If no secondary sexual characteristics (testicular enlargement/breast development) are present by age 14 in boys and 12 in girls
349
What diet should be recommended in pts w/viral GE?
A normal age-appropriate diet | A bland diet is no longer recommended and diets high in sugar and fats should be avoided until sxs resolve
350
When should steroids be used in the setting of Infectious Mononucleosis?
If airway obstruction appears imminent – tonsillar enlargement is so large it will cut off the airway Or if pts are IMCP’d/experiencing other serious cxs: aplastic anemia, overwhelming infection, thrombocytopenia
351
What is the mgmt. of pediatric patients w/Meningoencephalitis?
Most common causes are viral; enteroviruses (coxsackie) are #1 and HSV is #2 However, empiric tx should be started Get LP right away and then start IV Acyclovir and abx (Vancomycin + 3rd gen Cephalosporin) Once HSV and bacterial infections are excluded can stop abx and acyclovir and tx supportively **Steroids are NOT useful in viral meningoencaphalitis**
352
What is Metolazone?
A thiazide diuretic
353
What are the Kocher Criteria to differentiate septic arthritis v post-viral inflammatory arthritis?
1. Non-weight bearing 2. Fever >101.3 3. ESR >40 or CRP >2 4. Leukocytosis If peds patients have 3 or more than its most likely septic and joint aspiration needs to be done ASAP
354
What are the most common organisms in pediatric septic arthritis?
S. aureus > S. pneumoniae > S. pyogenes These should be covered w/IV Vancomycin Can add a 3rd gen cephalosporin when there is suspicion for unusual pathogens (Kingella in a kid<3 w/oral ulcers; H influenzae in unimmunized kids; Neisseria in sexually active adolescents)
355
What are common signs of Acute Decompensated HF?
Pulmonary edema JVD Presence of an S3
356
When are BBs contraindicated in the mgmt. of NSTEMI and unstable angina?
If the patient has bradycardia or heart failure (may worsen pulmonary edema in ADHF)
357
What medications can be used for bipolar mania during pregnancy?
Haloperidol | Lithium – should be continued if already started and can be initiated for severe mania
358
What is late-life depression a significant risk factor for?
Major neurocognitive disorder (dementia) both vascular and Alzheimer types It is not a/w development of comorbid anxiety as is earlier development of depression
359
What DM medications pose the biggest risk for hypoglycemic events?
Insulin Oral agents that increase insulin secretion even when blood glucose levels are normal: Sulfonylureas – glyburide, glipizide, glimepride Meglitinides – nateglinide, repaglinide
360
What is idiopathic premature pubarche?
Isolated pubic hair development | Patients will have normal bone age and no additional signs of adrenarche (acne, etc.)
361
What causes central v. peripheral precocious puberty?
Central is d/t early maturation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis Peripheral is d/t excess sex hormone production from the gonads, adrenal glands, or an exogenous source
362
What is the tx of nonclassical Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
Hydrocortisone
363
What is the pathophysiology seen in nonclassic congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
It is AR inheritance Decreased 21-hydroxlase activity leads to increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels and increased androgens Patients will have normal glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids (aka no salt wasting like seen in classic CAH)
364
Clinical features of nonclassic Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia:
Early pubic/axillary hair growth Severe acne Hirsutism and oligomenorrhea in girls Increased growth velocity and bone age (makes tall children, but short adults) Typically no evidence of precocious pubertal testicular or breast development
365
What is the mgmt. and EKG findings of Mobitz Type II AV Block?
On EKG will see intermittent non-conducted P waves (dropped beats not preceded by a change in the length of the PR interval) and regular PR intervals Often have significant bradycardia Need placement of permanent pacemaker as this commonly progresses to complete block
366
What is the role of Atropine in treating patients with Mobitz type II?
If patients become unstable and have Mobitz type II AV block or any other bradycardia they should receive IV Atropine. However, if a patient is stable then it should not be given in Mobitz bc it may worsen the bradycardia
367
What kind of skin manifestations can be seen in NF-2?
Some bullshit reverse “café-au-lait” spots Basically hypopigmented spots, described like ash-leaf spots seen in TSC, but FHx will be significant for bilateral deafness which is not a feature of TSC
368
Characteristics of NF2:
``` Bilateral acoustic schwannomas Juvenile cataracts Meningiomas Ependymomas Hypopgimented café-au-lait spots (reverse of whats seen in NF1) ```
369
What are the clinical features of Neurofibromatosis 1?
Café-au-lait macules (1st cutaneous finding-often in infancy), axillary and inguinal freckling, Lisch nodules and neurofibromas Pseudoarthrosis Pheochromocytoma These pts are at increased risk for neurologic disorders: cognitive deficits, learning disabilities, seizures, intracranial neoplasms (astrocytomas, brainstem gliomas), and optic pathway gliomas
370
What are the common inherited forms of Pheochromocytoma?
VHL gene w/Von hippel-Lindau RET gene – MEN type 2 NF1 gene – Neurofibromatosis Type I Sturge-Weber Syndrome
371
What condition do you see facial port-wine stain?
Sturge-Weber
372
Features of Sturge-Weber syndrome:
Congenital NON-inherited anomaly of neural crest derivatives d/t activating mutation of GNAQ Port wine stain in V1/V2 distribution (nevus flammeus) Leptomeningeal capillary-venous malformation Seizures +/- hemiparesis Intellectual disability Visual field defects Glaucoma
373
What condition is characterized by multiple telangiectasias?
Osler-Rendu-Weber
374
Characteristics of Osler-Rendu-Weber:
Aka Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia AD disease w/diffuse telangiectasis (ruby-colored papules that blanch w/pressure), recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AVMs. Pulmonary AVMs – can cause blood to shunt from R to L heart which causes chronic hypoxemia, clubbing, and reactive polycythemia Vascular lesions of the CNS
375
Why might pts w/Osler-Weber-Rendu have increased Hct?
If a pulmonary AVM is present. Will shunt blood from the R – L heart causing chronic hypoxemia, digital clubbing, and reactive polycythemia. Pulmonary AVMs can lead to massive, sometimes fatal hemoptysis.
376
What would cause “beaked” midbrain on imaging?
Chiari II malformation aka Arnold Chiari malformation
377
Exercises not recommended/contraindicated in pregnancy:
``` Scuba diving Contact sports Exercise w/falling risk (horse-back riding, gymnastics) Skydiving Hot yoga (regular is fine) ```
378
What are the common characteristics of congenital toxoplasmosis:
Eye abnormalities – chorioretinitis Neuro findings – diffuse intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus/macrocephaly Hearing impairment **Infection in mother often goes undetected and is common after eating undercooked meat, or fruits/veggies from contaminated soil; infection is highest in S America**
379
Features of congenital Rubella syndrome:
``` Congenital heart defects (PDA) Eye abnormalities (cataracts) Hearing impairment (sensorineural hearing loss) Infants are typically normocephalic and do not have intracranial calcifications ``` **Typically see at least mild symptoms in the mother during pregnancy (fever, rash)**
380
Most common bacteria to cause necrotizing fasciitis:
GAS (S. pyogenes) is #1 in healthy patients Others: S. aureus C. perfringens (almost always a/w crepitus and gas formation) Polymicrobial (mostly seen in pts w/underlying DM and PVD) Pseudomonas (in IMCP’d)
381
What is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis in a patient with DM?
DM and PVD patients are more likely to have polymicrobial infections Common organisms: S. aureus, Bacteroides fragilis, E. coli, Group A Strep, Prevotella spp.
382
What bacteria are most likely to cause crepitus and gas formation in Necrotizing fasciitis?
Anaerobic bacteria, most common are C. perfringens and B. fragilis
383
What is the mgmt. of necrotizing fasciitis?
Urgent, aggressive surgical exploration (even if the patients are hemodynamically unstable) Broad spectrum abx: Pip-tazo or a Carbapenem – covers Group A Strep and Anaerobes Vancomycin – covers S. aureus (including MRSA) Clindamycin – added to inhibit toxin formation by streptococci/staphylococci **once culture confirms offending organism abx can be narrowed**
384
First line treatment of insomnia:
CBT
385
What effects do antihistamines have on the prostate?
Bc of their anticholinergic effects they can worsen BPH | Diphenhydramine and others should be avoided in men w/BPH
386
What is the effect of glucocorticoids on calcium?
Glucocorticoids decrease the intestinal absorption of Ca2+ and increase Ca2+ excretion in the urine They also accelerate bone resorption Patients taking chronic steroids should also be given supplemental Ca2+ and Vit. D Bisphosphonates can be added if osteoporosis risk is v high (esp. in post-menopausal women)
387
What is the role of bone densitometry in the mgmt. of patients taking steroids?
Patients who will be treated w/steroids for more than 3 months (or 6 if low doses) require a baseline densitometry and then it should be repeated each year for as long as the therapy continues to monitor for adverse skeletal effects
388
What imaging is safe in pregnancy?
US > MRI >> CT
389
What is Pylephlebitis and what are common causes of it?
It is an infective (often polymicrobial), suppurative portal vein thrombosis Although rare, it is most commonly a complication of untreated appendicitis or other intraabdominal or pelvic infections (diverticulitis)
390
Clinical features of Pylephlebitis:
``` Acute or chronic onset of fever RUQ pain Jaundice Hepatomegaly Labs: elevations in alk phos, and GGT ```
391
What are complications of pylephlebitis?
Bowel ischemia Portal HTN Hepatic abscess **Need prolonged, broad spectrum abx to prevent these**
392
When should steroids be given to pregnant women with DM at risk of preterm delivery?
<34 weeks gestation (as opposed to <37 weeks in general population) Steroids can cause hyperglycemia in pts w/DM
393
When should an amnioinfusion be given?
To alleviate the compression of the umbilical cord that causes variable decels It is not given in the mgmt. of oligohydramnios as it cannot correct chronic placental insufficiency
394
Tx of acute epididymitis:
If gonorrhea is suspected/cannot be ruled out – ceftriaxone + doxycycline Low risk of gonoccal infection – Fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin)
395
Common causes of viral orchitis:
Mumps, Rubella, Parvo These are most commonly seen in children/adolescents and often involve extraurinary manifestations (parotitis, meningitis)
396
Risk factors for AAA:
``` Smoking is #1 Male sex Older (>65) White FHx of AAA Atherosclerotic disease ```
397
Mgmt of AAA:
``` Smoking cessation is most important Aspirin and statin therapy Elective repair for: Large (5.5+ cm) Rapidly enlarging (>0.5cm in 6 months) AAA a/w PAD or aneurysm ```
398
What is the follow-up imaging schedule recommended for AAAs?
Medium (4-5.4cm): US every 6-12mos | Smaller (<4cm): US every 2-3 years
399
Most common location for a AAA:
Infrarenal aorta
400
What are indications for getting XRays in low back pain?
Osteoporosis/compression fracture Suspected malignancy Ankylosing spondylitis **If XR is abnormal then should proceed to MRI**
401
What are indications for getting an MRI in the setting of low back pain?
Sensory/motor deficits Lumbosacral radiculopathy/sciatica lasting >1month Cauda equina syndrome (urine retention, saddle anesthesia) Suspected epidural abscess/infection (fever, IVDU, concurrent infection, hemodialysis) Known malignancy
402
What are the indications for getting a CT or Radionuclide bone scan in the setting of low back pain?
If the patient has indications for an MRI but they are not able to have an MRI
403
What are red flag features for low back pain?
``` Constitutional sxs (fever, wt. loss) Age >50 IVDU Immune suppression Recent bacterial infection Nocturnal pain Hx of Malignancy ```
404
Clinical features of prolactinoma:
Premenopausal women – oligo/amenorrhea, infertility, galactorrhea, hot flashes, decreased bone density Postmenopausal women – mass effect sxs (HA, visual field defects/bitemporal hemianopsia) Men – infertility, decreased libido, impotence, gynecomastia
405
Tx of Prolactinomas:
DA-agonists – Cabergoline, Bromocriptine | Surgery for those who don’t respond to meds
406
What are the guidelines for managing BP in an acute ischemic stroke patient?
In patients who did not receive thrombolytic therapy BP up to 220/120 is acceptable as this allows appropriate perfusion to borderline ischemic areas in the brain. Patients who did receive thrombolytic therapy should be maintained at BPs <185/105 for at least 24hrs to minimize the risk of hemorrhage
407
What is the most common cause of early death in acute stroke patients?
Subsequent PE – therefore pts should be managed on SQ low-dose Heparin or LMWH as DVT pphx Pts who suffered hemorrhagic stroke should initially be managed w/mechanical DVT pphx (SCDs)
408
Features and tx of benign essential tremor:
Aka familial tremor (AD inheritance) Intention tremor that is both present at rest and then worsens when reaching for something or completing an activity. Often effects both hands but is not a/w other neurologic sxs Tx: BB propranolol
409
What test should be used to assess TB status in a person who received the BCG vaccine?
Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) They often have a false positive to the PPD test Patients who have latent TB will have positive result to PPD and IGRA and should be assessed w/CXR
410
Tx options for latent TB infection:
Isoniazid + Rifapentine weekly for 3 mo under direct observation (not recommended for HIV+) Isoniazid monotherapy for 6-9months Rifampin monotherapy for 4mos **healthcare workers recommended to receive Isoniazid for 9mo**
411
What is the role of anti-dsDNA antibodies in SLE?
Renal involvement in SLE is d/t immune complex-mediated glomerular injury, and the immune complexes are composed primarily of anti-dsDNA antibodies These antibody complexes are deposited in the mesangial, subendothelial, or subepithelial space and cause inflammation and destruction of the kidney
412
What should be used to monitor renal disease activity in Lupus nephritis?
anti-dsDNA antibody levels and complement levels anti-Smith Abs also become elevated in SLE renal disease, but they remain elevated even after the disease is no longer active and therefore are not useful in monitoring but may identify pts at risk of developing renal disease.
413
What antibodies are sensitive for Drug-Induced SLE?
Anti-histone Abs
414
What Rxs can cause Rx-induced SLE?
``` Isoniazid Hydralazine Procainamide D-penicillamine Minocycline anti-TNFa (etanercept, infliximab) ```
415
What are the complications of Infantile Hemangiomas?
Ulceration/scarring Vision impairment if near eye Life-threatening if near airway Most regress and don’t need tx but can use topical BBs (propranolol) for ulcerated or cosmetically sensitive areas
416
What is the common presentation of systemic-onset juvenile arthritis?
Chronic oligoarthritis (worse in the morning) Daily fever (quotidian fever >2wks) Rash (pink, macular, worsens during fever) Possible lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly
417
How would SLE likely present in childhood?
With neuropsychiatric sxs, immune-mediated anemia (Coombs +), thrombocytopenia, arthritis, and nephritis
418
What bug is most commonly a/w pediatric seizures in the setting of acute bacterial gastroenteritis?
Shigella spp. The seizures are typically self-limited with a quick return to baseline (unlike seizures a/w Reye syndrome or hyponatremia) If the seizure occurs a week after the diarrhea has resolved, likely HUS
419
Features and tx of TTP:
Decreased ADAMTS13 – uncleaved vWF multimers – platelet trapping and activation. Causes hemolytic anemia w/schistocytes, renal failure, neuro sxs and fever Tx w/plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and rituximab
420
What is the light criteria to define an exudative pleural effusion?
Must have at least one of the following (pleural/serum): Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5 Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH >0.6 Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH.
421
How do the two different types of Lichen Planus present?
Erosive variant (most common): Erosive, glazed lesions w/white border, vaginal involvement +/- stenosis, associated oral ulcers Papulosquamous variant: Small pruritic papules w/purple hue often seen near wrists, vulva or penis Both present in women age 50-60 w/vulvar pain or pruritus, and dyspareunia Associated with HCV when seen outside of GU region
422
What are the poor prognostic factors of CLL?
Multiple chain LAD Hepatosplenomegaly Anemia and thrombocytopenia
423
Most common causes of death in patients w/CLL:
Infection and Secondary malignancy (Richter transformation) | But typically have 10+ year survival rate
424
What fetal risks are common in poorly controlled gDM?
``` Macrosomia Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemia Hyperviscosity d/t polycythemia Respiratory difficulties Transient HCMP ```
425
What type of heart disease is common in newborns of gDM mothers?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (typically transient and doesn’t require tx) – occurs d/t hyperinsulinemia that triggers glycogen synthesis and XS glycogen and fat are deposited w/in the myocardium (esp. the IV septum) This occurs d/t poorly controlled DM in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters (so more common among gDM pts and not pre-pregnancy DM). Congenital heart diseases (hypoplastic LH syndrome, etc) occur d/t hyperglycemia in the 1st trimester and therefore are only seen in pregestational DM mothers
426
What is congenital pulmonary valve stenosis typically associated with?
Noonan syndrome – RV outflow obstruction may result in R to L shunting and cyanosis also a/w facial structure abnormalities, bleeding disorders and bone and rib cage malformations
427
What is characterized by atrialization of the RV?
Ebstein anomaly d/t malformed tricuspid valve
428
What is standardized mortality ratio? | *biostats*
It quantifies mortality in a specific group compared to the general population SMR = observed # of deaths / expected # of deaths SMR < 1 means deaths are lower than expected; >1 deaths are higher than expected
429
Locations of auscultation for heart valves:
Aortic – 2nd ICS to the R sternal border Pulmonic – 2nd ICS to the L sternal border Erb’s point – 3rd ICS to the L sternal border Tricuspid – 5th ICS to the lower L sternal border Mitral – apex, PMI and 5th ICS at Midclavicular line
430
What should patients with megaloblastic anemia be monitored for immediately after tx?
Hypokalemia Treatment w/B12 causes newly forming RBCs to rapidly uptake K+ and can cause significant hypokalemia Patients should be monitored during the first 48hrs of tx Can lessen the risk by giving packed RBC transfusion prior to initiating B12 treatment
431
How are thyroglossal duct cysts commonly detected?
After they become secondarily infected after a URI which causes erythema and tenderness
432
What should be done once a thyroglossal duct cyst is discovered?
Thyroid imaging – TDCs are commonly associated with ectopic thyroid tissue and the TDC may be the only site of functioning thyroid tissue. Therefore thyroid imaging needs to be done before definitive tx (resection is the only curative therapy and should be done to prevent recurrent infections)
433
What are the current guidelines for biventricular pacing devices?
Patients in sinus rhythm who meet ALL of the following should receive one: 1. LV ejection fraction <35% 2. NYHA class II, III, or IV HF sxs (essentially presence of any sxs) 3. LBBB with QRS duration >150msec
434
What is one of the major morbidities following gastric bypass surgery and how is it treated?
Malabsorption For prevention all patients should take lifelong supplementation of vitamins: B1, B12. Folic acid and Vitamin D; and minerals: iron, calcium, trace minerals Vitamin D should be supplemented in high levels 2000-3000+ U/d
435
What is likely to be seen on lab studies in a nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma?
Suppressed/absent LH and FSH with increased levels of the a-subunit These tumors are composed of gonadotropin-secreting cells and mainly just secrete the a-subunit of the gonadotrophs Large tumors can compress the pituitary stalk and block the normal inhibition of prolactin secretion causing mild prolactinemia (<200), but not high levels like prolactinomas (>200)
436
What is the standard tx for patients with Splenic v. thrombosis and GI hemorrhage?
Splenectomy
437
After what gestational age do tocolytics become contraindicated?
>34 weeks | Risks of perinatal morbidity and mortality no longer outweigh risks of maternal tocolytic exposure after this point
438
When can a partial nephrectomy be offered to a patient?
Only if the renal mass is still confined within the renal capsule aka Stage I disease
439
When is multifocal atrial tachycardia most commonly seen?
In elderly patients with an acute exacerbation of underlying pulmonary disease First step is to correct underlying disturbance – ie give O2 or ventilation Other common causes are electrolyte disturbances: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia – should replace electrolytes before initiating pharmacotherapy
440
What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?
End-organ resistance to PTH Will have elevated PTH which distinguishes it from hypoparathyroidism Chronic hypocalcemia (leading to cataracts and basal ganglia calcifications), elevated phosphorous and low vitamin D can be seen in both disorders
441
What is Albright hereditary osteodystrophy?
A subtype of psuedohypoparathyroidism Will have dysmorphic features – round facies, short stature, short 4th/5th metacarpals as well as the other features of psueohypoPTH (high PTH, high phosphorus, low Ca2+ and Vit. D)
442
What is meningovascular syphilis?
Low-grade syphilis infection in the subarachnoid space – can affect the intracranial vessels and potentially result in stroke CSF is likely to show similar results to viral encephalopathies: Elevated WBCs with lymphocyte predominance, elevated protein, normal glucose +/- xanthochromia Tx with IV Penicillin
443
What is the most common complication of diverticulitis?
Colonic abscess – can occur in 15-50% of patients Need IV abx, bowel rest and most need urgent percutaneous drainage + partial colectomy several weeks later If pts w/diverticulitis don’t have improvement in sxs after 2-3 days they should have repeat CT to assess for abscess and other cxs (obstruction, fistula, perforation)
444
What is the tx for seborrheic dermatitis?
TOPICAL agents: Antifungals – selenium sulfide shampoo, ketoconazole Glucocorticoids Calcineurin inhibitors – pimecrolimus Salicylic acid May need treatment as often as every 1-2 weeks in order to prevent recurrence
445
What antifungal should be strongly avoided in seborrheic dermatitis?
Griseofulvin – it has no activity against malassezia spp. and can worsen SD
446
What is the mgmt. of sudden sensorineural hearing loss?
Urgent ENT evaluation – they need to do full audiologic testing + imaging, etc Steroids should also be given (orally and/or injected into middle ear)
447
What is effect modification?
Aka interaction bias It occurs when a variable/effect modifier changes the direction or strength of the effect that the independent variable (exposure or treatment) has on the dependent variable (outcome) Ex: age is an effect modifier on aspirin usage and reye syndrome development
448
What is the mgmt. of symptomatic patients w/HOCM?
Negative inotropic agents – BBs (metoprolol), Verapamil or Disopyramide Patients w/persistent sxs refractory to medical therapy can have alcohol septal ablation
449
What drugs should be avoided in HOCM?
Vasodilators – dihydropyridine CCBs (amlodipine, nifedipine) ACEIs and ARBs Nitrates **these can all decrease SVR which may worsen the LVOT gradient and sxs**
450
Best initial approach to sicca syndrome?
Schirmer test – confirms secretory deficiency | autoantibody screen – anti-Ro, anti-La, RF and ANA
451
What strategy should be used to reduce risk of exposure from patients with disseminated herpes zoster infection?
Patients should be placed on contact and airborne precautions until all lesions have crusted over Hospitalized patients with localized infection can be held on standard precautions with lesion covering
452
What are common risk factors for Dupuytren contracture?
``` Male sex Age >50 FHx Diabetes Tobacco and alcohol use ```
453
What is the treatment of acute pericarditis/peri-infarction pericarditis?
NSAIDS – in the setting of peri-infarction only Aspirin should be used, in the setting of viral or idiopathic Naproxen is best choice + Colchicine (aspirin should be tried as monotx in peri-infarction pericarditis, but colchicine can be added later if sxs persist. Colchicine should be used in combo w/Naproxen for viral/idiopathic)
454
In measures of central tendency, which point is most valid for the central location?
In normally distributed (bell curves) the mean is most valid | In skewed or asymmetrical distributions, the median is most valid
455
How to differentiate CML from CLL:
CML has marked leukocytosis of predominately neutrophil origin CLL has marked leukocytosis of predominately lymphocyte origin
456
How to differentiate Hairy cell leukemia from the chronic leukemias:
All may cause massive splenomegaly Hairy cell – pancytopenia (d/t fibrosis of bone marrow: dry tap) CLL – lymphocytosis CML – leukocytosis **Myelofibrosis may also cause massive splenomegaly w/pancytopenia**
457
Which benzo is most likely to result in seizures following abrupt dc?
Alprazolam – short t1/2
458
What are features suggestive of bronchiectasis?
Recurrent infections and daily cough w/mucopurulent sputum production (often green-yellow and foul smelling) Can get hemoptysis from repeated mucosal inflammation leading to rupture of small blood vessels
459
How is carbon monoxide poisoning diagnosed?
ABG showing elevated levels of Carboxyhemoglobin Tx w/High flow O2; intubation/HBO for severe cases **Often seen after smoke inhalation**
460
When would methemoglobin levels be elevated?
When Fe-molecules in Hb are oxidized to form methemoglobinemia – prevents O2 binding and has increased affinity for cyanide May present w/cyanosis and chocolate colored blood Most common causes: Rxs (dapsone, benzocaine), and toxins (aniline dyes) Tx: methylene blue and vitamin C
461
What should be assessed before initiating therapy with EPO?
Correctable causes of anemia – evaluate Fe stores, folate and B12 levels, reticulocyte count and FOBT; even if MCV is normal Fe-stores also should be checked at regular intervals while on EPO bc they can quickly become depleted from new RBC production.
462
What is the mgmt. of poison ivy contact dermatitis?
Immediate removal of contaminated clothing, and gentle cleansing of exposed area (minimizes spread) Tx is then supportive – cool compresses, topical steroids; Oral steroids can be given in severe dermatitis or dermatitis that involves the face or genitals Antihistamines have NO ROLE as poison ivy dermatitis is not histamine-mediated (its Type IV HS)
463
What is the proper mgmt. of anticoagulation in pregnancy?
Warfarin should only be used in the preconception and postpartum periods (breastfeeding) LMWH should replace warfarin in the 1st trimester and be continued throughout pregnancy UFH should replace LMWH in the last few weeks of pregnancy before delivery (it is quicker to reverse) **All anticoagulation should be discontinued at the onset of labor and before epidural anesthesia is started**
464
What are the indications for intrapartum pphx of GBS infection?
GBS + in current pregnancy Prior infant w/early-onset neonatal GBS infection Unknown GBS status in current pregnancy + any of the following: 1. <37 weeks 2. Intrapartum fever 3. Rupture of membranes for 18+ hours
465
Which gender correlates with a higher risk of malignant probability in solitary pulmonary nodules?
Female
466
What size solitary pulmonary nodules require workup?
Nodules >0.8cm need further workup or surveillance; those <0.6cm require no follow up Nodules >2cm have >50% chance of being malignant
467
What is the workup for dyspepsia?
If age 60+ they need upper endoscopy | Age <60 should be tested/treated for H. pylori, and upper endoscopy only for high risk patients
468
What are the alarm sxs in dyspepsia?
``` Progressive dysphagia Fe-def anemia Odynophagia Palpable mass/LAD Persistent vomiting FHx of GI malignancy **Patients with 1 or more of these should get upper endoscopy to evaluate for malignancy** ```
469
What is the treatment for narcolepsy associated cataplexy?
SNRIs (Venlafaxine), SSRIs, TCAs | Sodium oxybate can be considered but it is rarely used d/t abuse potential
470
What should be the first steps in evaluating suspected lead poisoning?
CBC + serum Fe and ferritin levels + reticulocyte count | If chelation therapy is required need BMP + UA
471
What should be suspected in a young patient with fever and sxs of Subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Mycotic aneurysm rupture 2/2 infective endocarditis Most commonly seen in those w/IVDU Likely to present w/sxs of SAH (HA, lethargy, neck stiffness) + fever, petechiae, and a heart murmur
472
What are the renal-associated cxs of infective endocarditis?
Renal infarction Glomerulonephritis Drug-induced AIN from IE therapy
473
How are intracerebral mycotic aneurysms likely to present?
As an expanding mass w/focal neurologic findings | May also remain asx until rupture w/stroke or SAH
474
What are the cardiac cxs of IE?
Valvular insufficiency – common CoD Perivalvular abscess Conduction abnormalities Mycotic aneurysm – can occur in systemic circulation or cerebral
475
Characteristics of HSV encephalitis:
``` Acute-onset (<1week) fever HA Seizures AMS Focal neurologic findings – hemiparesis or CN deficits ```
476
Who are considered high-risk patients and need to have CT after minor head trauma?
``` Age 65+ Coagulopathy Drug or EtOH intoxication High-risk injury mechanism: Pedestrian struck by vehicle Ejection from vehicle Fall from height ```
477
What are considered high-risk sxs and indications for CT after minor head trauma?
Retrograde amnesia (30+ min before injury) Vomiting 2+ times Seizure Severe HA
478
What are signs of basilar skull fracture and indications for head CT?
Battle sign – mastoid/postauricular ecchymoses Rcacoon eyes – orbital ecchymoses CSF rhinorrhea or otorrhea Hemotympanum
479
Mgmt of Hemophilic pts post-head trauma:
Even after minor head trauma patients should immediately receive non-con CT and Factor 8 or 9 should be replaced asap
480
Mgmt of HPV in pregnancy:
HPV can be vertically transmitted and c-section does not prevent this transmission, therefore expectant mgmt. and vaginal delivery should be planned.
481
What nerves are injured in Erb-Duchenne palsy?
C5-C7 | Have pronated forearm, flexed wrist and fingers
482
What effect will intense glycemic control in DM-2 patients have on overall mortality?
It has no change or may increase mortality
483
What are the antithrombotic therapy recommendations in pts w/mechanical valves?
All should receive aspirin + warfarin: Aspirin 75-100mg/d + warfarin in all pts w/aortic or mitral valve replacement Patients who cannot take warfarin should have increased doses of aspirin: 75-325 Warfarin w/goal INR 2.0-3.0: for AV replacement w/no risk factors Warfarin w/goal INR 2.5-3.5: MV replacement, AV replacement +risk factors, in the first 3mo post-AV replacement **risk factors: aFIb, severe LV dysfxn (EF<30), prior TE, presence of hypercoagulability**
484
What is Idarucizumab and what is it used for?
It is a monoclonal Ab – used to reverse anticoagulation from Dabigatran (direct thrombin inhibitor)
485
What are pts. w/alopecia areata at risk for?
Other AI diseases: AI thyroid disease, vitiligo, pernicious anemia They often also have associated nail pitting
486
When should a renal US be done in children?
All children <24 months w/a febrile UTI needs a renal/bladder US to evaluate for hydro and ureteral dilation. Children >2 don’t need US if UTI sxs resolve w/treatment US should be performed after the acute illness has been tx’d to prevent false-+ results If US is abnormal – VCUG to look for VUR (also done if recurrent, febrile UTIs in a child)
487
What are females with subclinical hypothyroidism at risk for?
``` Recurrent spontaneous miscarriages (even euthyroid women w/anti-TPO abs are at risk) Severe preeclampsia Preterm birth Low birth weight Placental abruption ```
488
What anticonvulsant increases the risk of kidney stones?
Topiramate – inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase
489
Causes of tongue enlargement:
``` Longstanding hypothyroidism Amyloidosis Acromegaly Mucopolysaccharidosis (Hurler and Hunter syndromes) MEN 2B ```
490
What is a funnel plot used for? | *biostats*
To assess publication bias Funnel plots should be symmetric in the absence of study heterogeneity and publication bias – aka there should be the same number of dots on both sides of the triangle at similar spots Asymmetry (all points on one side of the triangle, etc.) suggest publication bias
491
How would sample size effect a funnel plot?
A small sample size/low power would lead to more studies/dots at the base of the triangle Studies with large sample sizes/high power would be at the top of the triangle
492
How should evaluation of suspected renovascular HTN be done?
Renal duplex Doppler US, CT or MR angiography w/contrast can all be done, but v. important not to do contrast studies in those w/renal insufficiency, therefore US should be done 1st in these patients
493
Classic EKG findings in PE:
Sinus tachycardia is most common finding. Others: all occur d/t RV strain New RBBB Atrial arrhythmias Q-waves or ST-segment changes in the inferior leads
494
What are common Echo findings to support diagnosis of acute PE?
RV dysfunction Decreased RV contractility Presence of RV thrombus Moderate/functional tricuspid regurg – d/t pHTN causing dilation of the TV annulus
495
What are the high-risk features for TBI/intracranial injury in children <2 years?
AMS (fussy behavior) LoC Severe mechanism of injury (fall >3ft, high impact, MVC) Non-frontal scalp hematoma (aka occipital, parietal hematomas) Palpable skull fracture
496
What type of scalp hematomas have the highest risk of skull fracture in pediatric pts (<2)?
Large (>3cm) parietal and temporal hematomas – highest risk of TBI/intracranial injury
497
Most common bacteria causing cellulitis and skin & soft tissue abscesses:
Cellulitis – S. pyogenes (also main cause of Erysipelas) | Abscess – S. aureus
498
What are the gestational cxs in female kidney donors?
Fetal loss Preeclampsia gDM gHTN
499
What allergen has the strongest association w/asthma?
House dust mites (responsible for 60-90% of asthma cases) Other allergens: cat, dog, and cockroach Air pollution doesn’t have an association with asthma
500
What are the adverse effects of amiodarone therapy?
Pulmonary toxicity is the most serious and is responsible for the most deaths a/w amiodarone ``` Photosensitivity Skin discoloration Bone marrow suppression Thyroid dysfunction Abnormal liver fxn tests ```
501
When should calcineurin inhibitors be used for atopic dermatitis?
Topical Tacrolimus If it is significantly effecting the face, eyelids, or flexural areas Otherwise topical corticosteroids should be used (hydrocortisone, triamcinolone, etc.)
502
What are the common signs/sxs of Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
``` Fatigue and pruritus are most common Inflammatory arthritis Hyperpigmented skin RUQ discomfort Xanthelasmata and xanthomata ``` **increased risk if there is FHx**
503
How to diagnose and tx Primary Biliary Cholangitis:
Dx – elevated ALP, positive anti-mitochondrial Abs, liver biopsy if AMA is negative Tx – Ursodeoxycholic acid; Liver transplant in advanced cirrhosis **AST, ALT and BR levels may all be normal or mildly elevated**
504
What are anti-smooth-muscle antibodies associated with?
Autoimmune Hepatitis
505
What is a frequent complication of Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
Metabolic bone disease – osteopenia/porosis | Vitamin D levels are typically normal though
506
What are the common surgical cxs of adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma?
HTN crisis – give IV nitroprusside, phentolamine or nicardipine HoTN (d/t decreased CAs after tm removal) – give NS bolus + pressors if unresponsive Hypoglycemia (increased insulin secretion after tm removal) – give IV dextrose Tachyarrhythmias (from increased CA release from adrenal gland handling) – IV lidocaine or esmolol
507
What are the indications for treatment in subclinical hypothyroidism?
TSH 10+ uU/mL: treat all patients TSH 7-9.9: Age <70 – treat Age 70+ – tx if convincing hypothyroid sxs TSH upper limit of normal (6.9): Age <70 – tx if convincing hypothyroid sxs, enlarging goiter, or elevated anti-TPO titer Age 70+ – do not treat, may cause harm
508
How should warfarin anticoagulation be reversed prior to urgent surgery?
1 – Immediately dc warfarin 2 – administer Prothrombin complex concentrate (contains vitK-dependent cofactors + normalizes INR <10 min) 3 – Give IV vitamin K **If PCC is unavailable can give FFP (IV colloid) but it is less effective**
509
What would the results of cardiac catheterization in a patient w/a PE show?
``` Cardiac output: decreased RA pressure: increased RV pressure: increased Pulmonary a. pressure: increased PCWP: normal ```
510
Lung cancer screening:
Can be done w/annual low-dose CT for patients 55-80 with >30 pack year smoking history + current smoker or quit w/in last 15 years CXR has not been shown to reduce mortality as a screening method.
511
What is the cause of myasthenia gravis?
Autoantibodies attacking the acetylcholine receptors at the NMJ
512
What is the most important single risk factor for osteoporosis and osteoporotic bone fractures?
Age
513
Initial treatment for stool impaction?
Manual disimpaction followed by enema or suppository to empty the colon Increased dietary fiber + stool softeners should then be started after disimpaction
514
What are the characteristics of mycosis fungoides?
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma Has highly variable appearance – may present as papules, plaques or hyper-/hypo-pigment patches May have subQ tumors Extradermal spread can cause regional LAD, infiltration of the lung, liver or spleen and occasionally can cause bone marrow and CNS involvement
515
Strongest predictor of coronary artery stent thrombosis:
Premature discontinuation of dual antiplatelet therapy: aspirin and P2T12 Receptor blocker (clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor)
516
What does a negative exercise stress test indicate?
That the patient has a low risk (<1%) for cardiac events in the near future (w/in the next year) It does not exclude the possibility that the patient has CAD as it could be nonobstructive or microvascular
517
First line treatment of heat stroke:
Augmentation of evaporative cooling – naked patient sprayed w/water mist or covered w/a wet sheet while large fans circulate air
518
Cxs of Diphtheria:
Toxin-mediated myocarditis, neuritis, and kidney disease
519
What anti-hyperglycemic agents can be used in gDM?
Insulin, metformin and glyburide can all be used if diet doesn’t control gDM Glyburide has higher risk of neonatal hypoglycemia than insulin though
520
What are common manifestations and characteristics of autoimmune hepatitis?
Most common in young/middle-age women Often have other autoimmune manifestations: arthritis, erythema nodosum, thyroiditis, pleurisy pericarditis, anemia and sicca syndrome Labs: increased AST, and ALT; typically have normal/near-normal ALP and BR Common auto-Abs: ANA, and anti-smooth muscle Abs (against actin)
521
What is the usual cause of high GGT?
Cholestasis | Can also help differentiate if ALP elevations are from liver pathology or bone
522
What are contraindications to VZV vaccine?
Anaphylaxis to neomycin Anaphylaxis to gelatin Immunodeficient state – congenital immunodefs., long-term immunosuppressive tx, heme or solid tms, severe HIV infection
523
What should be done to prevent cxs post-VZV vaccine in pts. w/IMCP’d contacts?
Close monitoring for a vaccine-associated VZV rash – this is contagious to immunocompromised individuals If a rash develops then the IMCP’d individual needs VZV-Ig asap (w/in 10d of initial exposure), but otherwise they do not require Ig if they previously were vaccinated for VZV
524
Tx of Bacterial conjunctivitis:
Erythromycin ointment Polymyxin-TMP drops Azithromycin drops Fluoroquinolone drops – preferred in contact wearers bc higher risk of Pseudomonas
525
What is a complication of bacterial conjunctivitis?
Bacterial keratitis – more common in contact wearers
526
How does keratitis present?
With photophobia, blurred or impaired vision, foreign body sensation w/difficulty opening the eye Needs urgent Ophtho evaluation
527
What should be suspected in a patient with chest pain + new neurologic findings of R sided weakness?
Acute dissection of the ascending aorta w/carotid a. involvement – causes cerebral ischemia Need CTA, MRA or TEE asap
528
How should pts be followed while on cardiotoxic chemotherapy agents?
With a baseline Radionuclide ventriculography (aka MUGA) and then repeat before each subsequent chemo dose A decrease in EF by 10+ % may warrant discontinuation of therapy, and those w/baseline EF <30% cardiotoxic agents are contraindicated
529
When should therapy be considered for serous otitis media?
SOM is a middle ear effusion – commonly occurs after an episode of AOM Watchful waiting can be done for up to 3mos in a unilateral effusion If SOM persists >3mos or is bilateral then further therapy should be considered
530
When should a patient’s 10-yr ASCVD risk be calculated?
When considering if statin therapy should be started
531
What do overlapping SEM (standard errors of measurement) bars on a graph represent? *biostats*
There’s a non-statistically significant difference between the two
532
What are the 2 main groups normocytic/normochromic anemia can be divided into?
1 – diseases w/decreased RBC production 2 – hemolytic disorders w/increased RBC destruction Need reticulocyte count to differentiate – elevated retics mean hemolysis, low means decreased production
533
What is most likely to be injured in digital injuries?
Tendons – bc they run on the anterior surface of the phalanges Veins, arteries and nerves run along the sides
534
Most common causes of dysentery:
Aka bloody diarrhea Most commonly caused by bacterial enteritis Most common pathogens: Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli (enterohemorrhagic or enteroinvasive), Campylobacter, Yersinia Tx: fluid repletion (abx only needed for IMCP’d pts, or invasive disease/sepsis) **STEC must be excluded before giving abx bc they can predispose to HUS**
535
Calculation to correct serum Ca2+ for serum albumin:
Corrected calcium = (measured serum Ca2+) + 0.8(4.0 – measured serum albumin)
536
Tx of Syphilis in pregnancy:
Penicillin – if the patient is allergic they need to become desensitized and then get penicillin
537
How should pregnant women be screened for syphilis?
Universally at first prenatal visit If positive then they must get repeat screening in 3rd trimester (28-32wks) – a 4-fold or greater decrease in serologic titer indicates treatment success; Anything less needs re-treatment
538
What should be done in patients who have PPI-refractory GERD associated cough?
They need a 24hr esophageal pH monitoring to reevaluate the diagnosis
539
When should Bisphosphonates be used to prevent fractures?
In all postmenopausal women w/a DEXA T-score -2.5 or less, or those w/a hx of low-trauma hip or vertebral fractures regardless of T-score Other recommendations are when 10-yr FRAX is >20% for major osteoporotic fractures or >3% for a hip fracture
540
Tx of Lyme Disease in a pregnant woman:
14-21 days of Amoxicillin or Cefuroxime
541
What causes diverticular bleeding?
Small artery erosion d/t colonic mucosal outcropping
542
When can TMP-SMX be used in pregnancy?
Only second trimester and early third First trimester – increased risk of neural tube defects Late third – increased risk of neonatal kernicterus Should avoid altogether
543
What does Clindamycin cover?
G+ and anaerobes | Has no gram negative coverage – v. little role in GU infections
544
Tx of Pyelonephritis during pregnancy:
Need hospitalization w/IVF hydration IV abx w/broad-spectrum B-lactams – ceftriaxone, cefepime Once afebrile for 48hrs can switch to oral abx for 10-14d and then daily suppressive tx w/low-dose Nitrofurantoin or Cephalexin until 6wks post-partum
545
Tx of acute aortic dissection:
Pain control – morphine IV BBs – esmolol +/- Sodium Nitroprusside (if SBP >120mmHg; but monotx is contraindicated) Emergent surgical repair for ascending dissection
546
Mgmt of symptomatic ureteral stones:
Stone 10+mm need Uro consult for removal Stone <10mm should be managed w/hydration, pain control, a-blockers and strain urine If pts have uncontrolled pain or no stone passage w/in 4-6 weeks consult Uro Patient w/any stone size that have urosepsis, ARF or complete obstruction – uro for surgery
547
Mgmt of C. diff recurrence:
1st recurrence – Vancomycin PO (even if used in the initial episode) or Fidaxomicin if Vanc was used in initial episode 2nd recurrence – Same as first recurrence, or Vanc PO followed by rifaximin, or fecal transplant
548
When is Metronidazole used to treat C. diff?
Only in fulminant disease (HoTN/shock, ileus, megacolon) – IV metronidazole + high-dose IV Vanc and surgical eval
549
What are common causes of serum sickness-like reaction?
Immune complex formation (Type III HS) Antibiotics – B-lactams, sulfa Acute HBV infection
550
What are common extrahepatic manifestations of circulating HBV immune-complexes?
Serum-sickness like reaction Polyarteritis nodosa Glomerulonephritis – normally membrane nephropathy, less commonly membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
551
When is diabetic retinopathy screening required in DM patients?
DM-2 – at the time of diagnosis | DM-1 – beginning 5 years after initial diagnosis (no matter the age at diagnosis)
552
What medication should be started in all patients w/DM 40+years old?
Statin – for both Type I and II DM Should also calculate their 10-yr ASCVD risk to determine intensity of statin (moderate or high), but all DM patients 40+ need a statin regardless of their ASCVD risk
553
What are common CSF findings in traumatic LP and how is it differentiated from SAH?
Traumatic LP – RBC count >6,000, elevated WBC count (typically 1 WBC per 750-1000 RBCs), elevated protein and glucose Xanthochromia will be absent in traumatic LP and will be present in >90% of SAH w/in 12hrs and starts to show up w/in 2-4hrs **A WBC/RBC ratio <0.01 has an almost 100% NPV for meningitis (viral or bacterial)**
554
What causes Chagas disease and what are the cardiac manifestations?
Caused by protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi (most common in Mexico, Central and S. America) Cardiac Manifestations – can have any or all of the following: 1. Biventricular HF (R>L) w/cardiomegaly 2. Ventricular apical aneurysm (LV apical aneurysm is pathognomonic for chagas CMP) 3. Mural thrombosis w/embolic complications 4. Fibrosis leading to conduction abnormalities (heart block, VTach)
555
What are the GI manifestations of Chagas disease?
Progressive dilation of esophagus and colon – megacolon | Caused by T. cruzi
556
What is Borreliosis?
Lyme disease
557
What is giant cell myocarditis?
Rare form of idiopathic myocarditis – thought to be AI-mediated Echo can show LV dilation w/segmental and/or global LV systolic dysfunction
558
What are cardiac manifestations of HIV?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
559
Findings and tx of Measles:
Prodromal sxs – fever, fatigue, cough, coryza (stuffy nose), and conjunctivitis Koplik spots often appear after the onset of prodromal sxs and resolve when rash appears After 2-4d of prodromal sxs the patient typically looks very ill and a maculopapular rash starts on the face and spreads cephalocaudally sparing the palms and soles Often have cervical LAD as well Tx: supportive (IVF, antipyretics); hospitalized patients/severe cases get Vitamin A
560
Features of Roseola:
HHV-6 Often does not have a prodrome of sxs and presents w/high fevers (possible to provoke seizures) for several days and then followed by a diffuse macular (often described as lacy) rash once the fevers resolve **will not have fever and rash at same time**`
561
Features of Erythema Infectiosum:
Parvovirus | Have nonspecific prodrome (fever, cough) followed by rash “slapped cheeks” with spread to trunk
562
What is apathetic thyrotoxicosis?
An atypical presentation of hyperthyroidism seen in older patients – characterized by lethargy, confusion and depression. May coincide with dementia which makes diagnosis more difficult. Other sxs that may be present: tachycardia, tremor, decreased appetite, constipation, etc.
563
What is ANOVA used for? | *biostats*
When the mean values of a continuous variable in several groups (categorical variable) are being compared
564
What would cause Hyperthyroidism w/low RAI uptake + high serum thyroglobulin?
Thyroiditis Iodide exposure * *if both were low it would be d/t exogenous hormone** * *high/high would be d/t toxic adenoma, goiter or Graves**
565
What is the first line therapy for mild-to-moderate plaque psoriasis?
High-potency topical corticosteroids – fluocinonide, augmented betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% Low-potency (1% hydrocortisone) can be used on the face or intertriginous areas
566
What is Nelson’s syndrome?
Pituitary enlargement and hyperpigmentation following bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. Pituitary enlargement is d/t loss of feedback by adrenal glucocorticoids – the tm development is aggressive and needs surgery or pituitary radiation
567
What are some modifiable risk factors a/w colorectal cancer?
Alcohol intake (even modest 2-3/d) – possibly d/t its effect on folate absorption Cigarette smoking – typically in current, long term smokers (30+ years) Obesity Low-fibre diet **Regular NSAID use, hormone replacement tx and high-fiber offer protection against CRC**
568
What is the typical outcome of Rabies infection?
Coma, respiratory failure and death w/in weeks Once sxs manifest tx is primarily palliative Post-exposure Pphx w/rabies Ig and vaccine can help prevent the disease if there are no clinical manifestations but it has no use once clinical manifestations occur
569
What is the general blood transfusion threshold in the general population?
Don’t transfuse unless Hb is <7 In pts w/CVD Hb should be maintained above 8 In unstable patients transfusion may need to occur at higher levels d/t an inaccurate reflection of the Hb at time of lab tests
570
What will be seen on CSF analysis in patients w/MS?
Oligoclonal IgG bands
571
What should be used to tx an acute exacerbation of MS?
IV or oral corticosteroids can be used, unless optic neuritis is present, then IV need to be used Oral steroids have an increased risk of recurrent optic neuritis Plasmapheresis can be considered in glucocorticoid-refractory patients
572
What should be used for chronic maintenance therapy for relapsing-remitting MS?
Disease-modifying agents – B-interferon and glatiramer acetate Long-term steroids are typically not recommended
573
What should be used to tx fatigue and neuropathic pain in MS patients?
Fatigue – amantadine or stimulants If sleep hygiene and regular exercise fail Neuropathic pain – gabapentin or duloxetine
574
What are indications for an endometrial bx for women >35yrs?
Atypical glandular cells on pap test
575
What are indications for endometrial bx in women <45?
AUB plus: Unopposed estrogen (obesity, anovulation) Failed medical mgmt. Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)
576
What are indications for endometrial bx in women >45?
AUB or postmenopausal bleeding
577
What should be done to investigate ACG on pap?
Aka atypical glandular cells. May be d/t either cervical or endometrial adenocarcinoma. Investigated w/colposcopy, endocervical curettage and endometrial bx – allows evaluation of ecto- and endo cervix and endometrium
578
What are the 3 first line tx options for smoking cessation and what are their contraindications?
1 – Transdermal patch and gum or lozenge (no contra’s) 2 – Varenicline (an a-4 B-2 nicotinic Ach-R partial agonist). Contra’s: recent suicidality and unstable psych disorders; relative – preexisting CVD. It increases risk of CVS events in these pts. 3 – Buproprion (NE-DA reuptake inhibitor) Contra’s: seizure disorders, active bulimia or anorexia
579
What further hx needs to be obtained from a patient prior to initiating Rxs for smoking cessation?
Seizure hx – bc buproprion lowers seizure threshold Psych hx – varenicline is a/w increased risk of suicide and neuropsych side effects (can’t use in unstable psych pts or those w/recent suicidal ideation)
580
What is sinus bradycardia w/o a pulse considered?
Pulseless electrical activity – different than normal symptomatic bradycardia Need to tx based on ACLS – continuous CPR + Epi every 3-5min; atropine not used in bradycardia a/w PEA
581
How should pulseless VTach be managed?
Defibrillation + CPR and Epi | Unlike pulseless bradycardia this is a shockable rhythm
582
What is keratosis pilaris and how is it treated?
Aka “chicken skin” looks like goosebumps Benign condition of retained keratin plugs in the hair follicles, most commonly presents w/small painless papules, and a roughened skin texture; Can become pruritic in cold, dry weather Posterior upper arm is most common location Often a/w eczema and asthma Tx: topical keratolytics – salicylic acid or urea cream (help soften papules)
583
Tx of OCD:
1st line – SSRIs +/- CBT | 2nd line – Clomipramine +/- CBT
584
When can ocular melanomas be observed?
if the patient is asx w/a tumor <10mm in diameter and <3mm depth/thickness Should reexamine in 3mos and then every 6mos If the tm becomes larger than that or the patient has associated sxs then radiotherapy is the preferred tx (brachytx or EBRT)
585
What should be done to manage dumping syndrome?
common after a gastrectomy Change in diet to high protein, and fractionated, smaller but more frequent food portions usually relieves the sxs Metoclopramide should be avoided as it increases gastric emptying
586
What is a common condition that can precipitate TTP?
Pregnancy – it causes an ADAMTS13 deficiency that becomes more pronounced w/increasing gestational age
587
What are the antibiotic recommendations in pediatric sepsis?
28d or less – Ampicillin + Gentamicin or Cefotaxime (E. coli and GBS most common) >28d – Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime +/- Vanc if meningeal involvement is suspected (S. pneumo and N. meningitidis most common)
588
When can ceftriaxone be used in infants?
>28 days – before this it can displace albumin-bound BR and increase risk of kernicterus
589
What would be used to tx a sulfonylurea overdose?
Dextrose is 1st line, but Octreotide (a SST analog) can also be used in pts w/persistent hypoglycemia, as it decreases insulin secretion
590
What initial antibodies should be tested when SLE is suspected?
anti-dsDNA these are the most sensitive (about 70%) and specific ANA are very sensitive but not specific Anti-Smith are very specific but not very sensitive (only about 25%)
591
What are the main benefits to using Hydroxychloroquine in SLE?
It is particularly effective at improving arthralgias, serositis, pleurisy, and cutaneous sxs
592
When is cyclophosphamide typically initiated in a patient w/SLE?
If they have serious manifestations such as nephritis, CNS involvement or vasculitis
593
When should Syphilis patients be treated w/benzathine v. aqueous penicillin?
IM Benzathine penicillin G for: Primary and secondary stages, latent infections, unknown durations of infection and gummatous/CV syphilis IV aqueous crystalline penicillin G for: Neurosyphilis and congenital infections
594
What are the non-surgical options for SCC of skin?
Cryotherapy, electrosurgery and radiation therapy
595
What is the amniotic fluid index?
Measures amniotic fluid volume surrounding the fetus. Normal AFI is 5-23cm AFI <5cm – oligohydramnios AFI 24+ cm – polyhydramnios
596
How should pulseless electrical activity be managed?
This is a rhythm on the monitor w/o a palpable pulse or measurable BP Mgmt: CPR x 2min, IV access, Epi every 3-5min, possible advanced airway. Continue this until there is a shockable electrical rhythm or the underlying causes have been reversed
597
What type of injury to the knee would cause hemarthrosis?
ACL or possibly PCL injury | V unlikely meniscal injuries would cause this
598
What is the goal of hyperthyroid tx during pregnancy?
To maintain a mild hyperthyroid state (up to 1.5x normal serum values) Overtreatment can result in fetal hypothyroidism and goiter
599
How is cutaneous cryptococcosis diagnosed?
Biopsy of the lesion for histopath exam and staining
600
Tx of Porhpyria Cutanea Tarda:
Phlebotomy or Hydroxychloroquine | IFa can be used in those w/HCV
601
What should be the first steps to improve sxs in ADHF?
Reduce cardiac preload w/diuretics and IV vasodilators (in pts w/o HoTN) – will reduce pulmonary edema and dyspnea
602
What are high risk factors for preeclampsia and what can be done to prevent it?
High Risk: 1. Prior preeclampsia 2. CKD 3. Chronic HTN 4. DM 5. Multiple gestation 6. AI disease Patients at high-risk for preeclampsia should take daily low-dose aspirin starting at 12 weeks
603
What should be given to tx postpartum endometritis?
BSA w/penicillin-resistant anaerobic coverage Most common: Clindamycin + Gentamicin Clindamycin – aerobic G+ cocci and pen-resistant anaerobes (can use amp-sulbactam too) Gentamicin – G- and some G+ (staph)
604
What is commonly used to tx Chorioamnionitis?
Ampicillin + Gentamicin **No anaerobic coverage in this combo**
605
What is commonly used to tx PID?
Cefoxitin + Doxycycline
606
What can be used for GBS pphx in pen-allergic women?
Vancomycin
607
What is commonly used to tx breast abscesses?
Vancomycin
608
What are common risk factors for postpartum endometritis?
C-section (biggest risk factor, esp if started after onset of labor) Chorioamnionitis GBS colonization Prolonged rupture of membranes Operative vaginal delivery BV during pregnancy (but not candidiasis) Preterm (<37wks) and Post-term (42+wks) gestations
609
Clinical features of postpartum endometritis:
Fever >24hr postpartum Uterine fundal tenderness Purulent lochia
610
What is pulseless electrical activity?
An organized cardiac rhythm (sinus bradycardia, aFIb) unable to generate sufficient CO to create a measurable BP or palpable pulse Aka bradycardia w/o pulse or aFIb w/o pulse These are NON-SHOCKABLE rhythms and need immediate, continuous, CPR w/Epi
611
Reversible causes of asystole/PEA:
5 Hs and 5Ts H's: 1. Hypovolemia, 2. Hypoxia, 3. H+ ions (acidosis), 4. Hypo or hyperkalemia, 5. Hypothermia T's: 1. Tension pneumo, 2. Tamponade, 3. Toxins (narcotics, benzos), 4. Thrombosis (PE/coronary), 5. Trauma
612
When is synchronized cardioversion used?
For supraventricular tachycardia (aFib w/RVR) in a hemodynamically unstable patient w/a pulse (if they lose the pulse it becomes PEA and need CPR)
613
What ligaments are involved in ovarian torsion?
Infundibulopelvic/suspensory ligament of the ovary (houses ovarian blood supply) Utero-ovarian ligaments
614
What are common associated disorders of Turner Syndrome?
Hypothyroidism Celiac disease Learning disabilities (although normal intelligence is expected) Should be screened for every few years in childhood and neuropsych testing prior to school entry
615
What do Turner syndrome patients require screening for at birth?
Echo and 4-extremity BP measurements for coarctation – can cause neonatal cardiogenic shock May also identify bicuspid aorta although this is not threatening for the newborn Renal US to identify horseshoe kidney – can predispose to UTIs **Turner is caused by sporadic event and is not considered an inherited syndrome – risk is same as general population in subsequent pregnancies and regardless of maternal age**
616
Common anatomic features seen in Turner syndrome:
``` Narrow, high-arched palate Low hairline Posteriorly rotated ears Small maxilla Short, webbed neck Cubitus valgus (elbows bent outward) Short stature Congenital lymphedema (hands and feet swollen at birth) ```
617
Common features of Rett syndrome:
``` Developmental regression Microcephaly Epilepsy Stereotypic hand movements **Girls w/Rett appear normal at birth and have no dysmorphic features** ```
618
What is the risk of having a child w/Down Syndrome in a mother carrier of Chromosome 21 Robertsonian translocation?
About 10%
619
What is the Mentzer index?
The ratio of MCV to total RBC count In Fe-def anemia the Mentzer index is typically high >13 In thalassemias mentzer index is typically <13 as they have high numbers of RBCs
620
What conditions are a/w Basophilic stipling?
``` Lead poisoning Sideroblastic anemia Myelodysplastic syndromes Alcoholism Thalassemias ```
621
In fe-def anemia what measures will be the first to increase/normalize after tx w/ferrous sulfate?
Reticulocyte count will first increase w/in 1-2wks and then Hb and Hct will begin to normalize within about a month. Ferritin will not rise until after the Hb has normalized
622
When should Demeclocycline be used to tx Hyponatremia?
Only if a patient has persistent severe hyponatremia after water restriction, salt intake and loop diuretics have all failed
623
What are hospitalized pts w/recent variceal bleeding at risk for?
Cxs include: Infections, hepatic encephalopathy and renal failure Infections are most important though and occur in up to 50% of pts.; Can develop – UTIs, SBP, resp. infections, aspiration pneumonia or primary bacteremia Can help to prevent infections w/pphx abx – preferred regimen is fluoroquinolone for 7-10d
624
What should be given to patients hospitalized for acute variceal bleeding?
Prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infectious cxs (SBP, UTI, pneumonia, bacteremia) Fluoroquinolone (Cipro, ofloxacin or norfloxacin) for 7-10d
625
What are the maternal cxs a/w adolescent pregnancy (age 19 or younger)?
``` Hydatidiform mole Preeclampsia Anemia Operative vaginal delivery Postpartum depression ```
626
What are the fetal cxs a/w adolescent pregnancy?
``` Gastroschisis Omphalocele Preterm birth (risk does not continue w/ subsequent pregnancies after the teenage years) Low birth weight Perinatal death ```
627
How to differentiate Gastroschisis from Omphalocele:
Gastroschisis has no membrane covering intestines and the umbilical cord is found to the L of the defect Omphalocele has membrane covering defect and umbilical cord is attached to that membrane at the apex
628
What are the single-item predictors that correlate with severity of acute pancreatitis?
All of the following are associated with more severe disease or increased risk of death: Older age Obesity Hematocrit (>44%) CRP – >150 and rising slower than other acute markers (Hct, BUN) a/w severe AP 24-48hrs after admission BUN – 20+ on admission increases risk of death
629
What is the recommended tx for a DVT or PE?
Oral factor Xa inhibitors (Rivaroxaban) for 3+ months for those who do not have cancer In patients w/underlying malignancy LMWH is considered superior (then must bridge to warfarin)
630
What is the best alternative to reduce hot flashes in patients who cannot use HRT?
SSRIs or SNRIs
631
What are the features of MEN1?
AD mutation of MEN1 (menin – tm suppressor gene) 3 Ps: Parathyroid adenomas/hyperplasia (most need parathyroidectomy) Pituitary adenomas (prolactin or GH) Pancreatic endocrine tms (ZES, Insulinomas, VIPomas, Glucagonomas) May also have multiple cutaneous lipomas
632
Features of MEN2:
AD mutations in RET gene (TK receptor gene) MEN2a: Parathyroid hyperplasia, MTC, Pheochromocytomas MEN2b: MTC, pheochromocytomas and Marfan habitus/Mucosal neuromas (oral/intestinal ganglioneuromatosis)
633
What are the exercise recommendations for a patient after cerclage placement?
Exercise is contraindicated in pts w/cerclage placement as well as those w/cervical insufficiency, preterm labor during current pregnancy, PPROM, placenta previa or persistent 2nd or 3rd trimester bleeding
634
What type of infection is commonly caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum?
Erythrasma
635
What diseases are patients post-renal transplant at risk of developing?
DM – has highest risk of developing and is typically the quickest to occur (w/in months) Subclinical Hypothyroidism Osteoporosis RCC in the native kidney
636
What effect will deranged magnesium levels have on the DTRs?
Mild hypermagnesemia may have decreased DTRs and severe hyperMg causes loss of DTRs Hypomagnesemia can cause increased DTRs (most commonly d/t alcoholism)
637
What is the most common post-op electrolyte disturbance to effect the DTRs?
Hypocalcemia – occurs d/t volume expansion and hypoalbuminemia or bc of citrate in pts w/massive blood transfusions Causes increased DTRs
638
What is SAAG and how does it differentiate causes of ascites?
SAAG = Serum albumin – Ascitic fluid albumin; >1.1 indicates presence of portal HTN SAAG 1.1+ – CHF, Cirrhosis, EtOH Hepatitis, Budd-Chiari SAAG <1.1 – peritoneal carcinomatosis (ovarian cas), peritoneal TB, nephrotic syndrome, pancreatitis, and serositis
639
What are the side effects of Kava Kava?
Herbal supplement to tx Anxiety and Insomnia | Can cause severe liver damage
640
What commonly used herbal supplements can cause increased bleeding risk?
Ginkgo biloba Saw palmetto Ginseng **Besides mild GI upset from saw palmetto this is the only main AE of these supplements**
641
What conditions are a/w eruption of multiple skin tags?
Insulin resistance, obesity, overt diabetes, metabolic syndrome Pregnancy Crohn disease – seen perianally
642
When should ACEIs be started in patients with HF?
Anyone w/asx LVSD (EF 40% or less) Can delay onset of symptomatic HF and improve long-term morbidity and mortality **Once suitable ACEI dose has been achieved a BB should be added**
643
Precipitating factors of Hepatic Encephalopathy:
``` Drugs (sedatives, narcotics) Hypovolemia (diarrhea) Electrolyte changes (hypokalemia) Increased Nitrogen load (GI bleed) Infection (pneumonia, UTI, SBP) Portosystemic shunting/TIPS ```
644
How will changes in K+ affect patients w/cirrhosis?
Hypokalemia is a common precipitant to hepatic encephalopathy and even slight decreases require prompt repletion. This commonly occurs after the initiation of diuretics which deplete K+ and cause low intravascular volume despite total volume overload Metabolic alkalosis (increased HCO3-) is often a/w hypokalemia which also exacerbates HE by increasing conversion of NH4+ to NH3
645
What are the definitions of sensitivity and specificity?
Sensitivity – the probability of a diseased person testing positive Specificity – the probability of a nondiseased person testing negative
646
What is iritis?
Anterior uveitis – characterized by pain, redness, variable visual loss and a constricted and irregular pupil Will see leukocytes in the anterior segment which contains the aqueous humor May also see hazy “flare” which is indicative of protein accumulation secondary to damaged blood-aqueous barrier Tx: antimicrobials for bacterial and viral causes, topical steroids for noninfectious causes
647
What is the uvea and how is uveitis differentiated?
Uvea = Iris, pars planus, choroid and ciliary body Anterior uveitis – iritis; see leukocytes in the anterior segment which contains aqueous humor Intermediate uveitis – pars planitis Posterior uveitis – choroiditis and/or retinitis **May also have hypopyon (pus in anterior chamber) and conjunctival redness**
648
How will infectious keratitis present?
With severe photophobia and difficulty keeping the eye open | Penlight exam will show corneal opacity or infiltrate
649
What are risk factors for Stress Hyperglycemia?
``` ICU admission Fevers >102.2 Severe illness Sepsis CNS infection – meningitis ```
650
How to differentiate Stress Hyperglycemia from DM-I in a patient presenting w/ketoacidosis?
If a patient does not have known diabetes and does not meet diagnostic criteria for DM then it is most likely stress hyperglycemia w/ketoacidosis DM-I patients who present w/DKA as their first sign will still have signs of chronic hyperglycemia – HbA1c 6.5% or greater DM criteria: Random plasma glucose 200+ w/classic sxs of hyperglycemia OR HbA1c 6.5% or more OR Fasting glucose 126+ OR 2hr glucose 200+ during oral glucose tolerance test
651
How should Hypothyroidism in pregnancy be managed?
Increase Levothyroxine dose 30% at time of positive pregnancy test Measure TSH every 4 weeks after that and adjust dose to trimester-specific TSH norms
652
What is the best diagnostic test to detect pneumothorax in the acute setting?
Bedside US – much higher sensitivity and specificity (>90%) than portable CXR (50%) Will visualize the parietal and visceral pleuras and the inability to detect lung sliding, the 2 pleural layers moving against each other during respiration, is diagnostic of pnx **In patients w/high suspicion of tension pnx, diagnostic confirmation isn’t needed and treatment (decompression/tube placement) shouldn’t be delayed for it**
653
What are patients w/identified Trichomonas infection at risk for?
HIV – presence of trichomonas increases rates of HIV transmission So both patient and partner need to be treated regardless if they have sxs or are asx
654
What is ascertainment bias? | *biostats*
When results from an atypical population are extrapolated into the entire population
655
How does anaphylaxis present?
Presentation is extremely variable. If it is at all suspected just give IM Epi Any or all of the following sxs may be present: HoTN (often the only symptom) GI distress – N/V, diarrhea, crampy abdominal pain Swelling of lips and tongue Rash, itching, hives Respiratory distress
656
What medications can be secondary causes of Osteoporosis?
Glucocorticoids Phenytoin, Carbamazepine PPIs
657
What initial tests should be done to assess a chronic cough?
If there is absence of specific historical or examination findings suggesting an underlying cause initial evaluation should begin with: Spirometry and CXR
658
How to differentiate aFIb v. aFlutter v. SVT on EKG:
aFib – RR intervals will be regular and equal, the baseline b/w RR will be irregular and no discernible P-waves will be identified aFlutter – RR intervals will be regular and equal, baseline will show sawtooth pattern w/back-to-back atrial depolarizations and typically a 4:1 sawtooth to QRS pattern SVT – RR intervals will be regular and equal, mostly see narrow QRS-complexes, have retrograde P waves seen as pseudo S and pseudo R waves. Baseline b/w RR will be regular.
659
Mgmt of Supra-ventricular tachycardia:
Different types of SVT – sinus tach, AVNRT, AVRT, aFIb and aFlutter In hemodynamically stable pts first identify type of SVT by giving IV Adenosine or w/vagal maneuvers – these will slow AVN conduction and help differentiate the cause of the SVT **In unstable patients they need immediate synchronized direct-current cardioversion**
660
When should XR be done in patients w/suspected scoliosis?
If there is an obvious deformity on exam or an abnormal scoliometry – spinal rotation 7+ degrees (or 5+ in overweight children)
661
When does Scoliosis require treatment?
Cobb angle <10 – considered normal variant, f/u only if new findings (pain, neuro sxs) develop Cobb angle 10+ degrees – observation or back brace Cobb angle 40+ degrees – severe scoliosis, need surgical evaluation **Once puberty/skeletal maturity are complete no tx is needed unless severe deformity is present**
662
When is tx indicated in Paget disease?
Give Bisphosphonates or Calcitonin in those who can’t tolerate bisphosphonates Symptomatic disease – intolerable pain, etc. Involvement of weight-bearing bones (femur) Neurological involvement Rare indications: Hypercalcemia Hypercalciuria CHF
663
What is the inheritance pattern of Hemophilia?
X-linked recessive for both A and B
664
What should be done in a patient w/epigastric fullness and nausea?
This is considered dyspepsia even if there is no associated pain – H. pylori testing first if <60y/o
665
What should be the first step in managing a cystic lesion in the pancreas?
Endoscopic US and aspiration – will differentiate cyst v. malignancy and guide tx
666
What is bile salt-induced diarrhea?
Secondary bile acids cause colonic stimulation and diarrhea Common post-cholecystectomy, post-ileal resection and in short bowel syndrome Tx w/Cholestyramine (bile salt-binding resin)
667
What is the preferred antiarrhythmic therapy in patients w/aFib?
No CAD or structural heart disease – Flecainide or Propafenone CAD w/o HF – Dronedarone or Sotalol LV Hypertrophy – Dronedarone or Amiodarone HF – Amiodarone or Dofetilide aFib refractory to meds – radiofrequency ablation
668
What is the tx of Croup?
Aka Laryngotracheitis Mild (no stridor at rest) – humidified air (softens secretions) +/- corticosteroids (oral or IM) Moderate/Severe (stridor at rest) – Corticosteroids + Nebulized Epi **Nebulized SABAs (albuterol) have no role in management**
669
What virus causes Croup?
Parainfluenza Bronchiolitis is caused by RSV
670
What causes unilateral headache and partial, unilateral Horner Syndrome?
Always carotid a. dissection until proven otherwise Occurs in younger patients (~45) Tx: Thrombolysis if w/in 4.5hr of onset; Antiplatelet tx +/- anticoagulation Should get CT or MR angiography right away
671
What is the timeline required to diagnose preeclampsia?
Occurs at 20+ weeks gestation, but can occur up to 12 weeks postpartum Tx is the same for postpartum preeclampsia – Mag sulfate + BP control
672
What is the schedule for DTaP vaccines?
Series should be completed at 2, 4 and 6 months with an additional dose at 15-18mos and again at 4-6 years Boosters should then be given every 10 years and w/every pregnancy at 28wks **Only contraindications are encephalopathy after previous dose or anaphylaxis to a vaccine component; Immunosuppression of any kind is not a contraindication**
673
What is a common cause of endobronchial obstruction in younger patients?
Carcinoid tumor – obstruction can lead to recurrent pneumonia and infection + scarring Can occur at any age but is especially seen in younger non-smokers
674
What is the best test to diagnose endobronchial obstructive lesions?
Flexible bronchoscopy | CT should be obtained first, but CT cannot diagnose, only a tissue biopsy can
675
What nerve adducts the leg?
Obturator
676
What nerve is responsible for ankle jerk?
Sciatic
677
When should PCI be done over CABG?
PCI – for refractory angina in patients w/severe single or two-vessel CAD not involving the proximal LAD CABG – superior in pts w/multivessel CAD (especially involving the LAD) and LV dysfunction
678
What is the mgmt. of symptomatic PAD?
Step 1A: Risk factor mgmt. – smoking cessation, BP and DM control, antiplatelet (aspirin) + Statin therapy Step 1B: Supervised exercise therapy Step 2: Cilostazol (PDE3 inhibitor) Step 3: Revascularization for persistent sxs
679
How would a uterine sarcoma present on US?
Almost identical to a leiomyoma – enlarged and irregular uterus w/a mass seen May often also see ascites as free fluid in posterior cul-de-sac Commonly met to the lungs and cause pleural effusions Need hysterectomy urgently to diagnose, stage and treat Should be suspected in postmenopausal patients w/pelvic radiation or tamoxifen use
680
How to differentiate acute cholecystitis v. choledocholithiasis:
Often present the same: abdominal pain, fever, leukocytosis | Choledocholithiasis usually also has common bile duct dilation on US, elevated BR and ALP
681
What is the initial workup for delayed puberty in boys?
FSH, LH, testosterone, TSH and prolactin levels | Bone age radiograph
682
Causes of delayed puberty in boys:
Primary hypogonadism – will have elevated FSH/LH Klinefelter syndrome Secondary hypogonadism – will have low/normal FSH/LH constitutional, chronic illness, malnutrition Hypothyroidism Hyperprolactinemia Kallmann syndrome Craniopharyngioma
683
What is used to tx Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Dantrolene
684
How should confirmation of H. pylori eradication be done?
Either fecal antigen testing or urea breath test, but neither should be done until 4 weeks after completion of therapy.
685
What orbital structures are likely to be injured in eyelid lacerations?
Horizontal lacerations of upper lateral eyelid – may involve the orbital septum and levator palpebrae muscle as well as the lacrimal gland Medial lacerations of the eyelid likely to injure canaliculi as well as the punctum, nasolacrimal duct and lacrimal sac
686
What test should be done in a child w/suspected Hirschprung?
Rectal mucosal suction biopsy – will show absence of ganglion cells Commonly a/w Down syndrome
687
What is the most likely outcome of trastuzumab-associated cardiotoxicity?
Causes decline of LVEF and although usually asx may lead to overt clinical HF However, there is typically complete recovery of cardiac fxn after trastuzumab is dc’d **It is not dose-related as is the irreversible cardiotoxicity a/w anthracyclines (doxorubicin)**
688
When should a pregnancy be able to be visualized on US?
At B-hCG levels >1500
689
What should be the initial evaluation in a patient w/dysentery?
Stool culture Immunoassay for Shiga toxin Fecal leukocyte count
690
Mgmt of uncomplicated pediatric pneumonia:
Preschool age or focal lung findings – most common cause S. pneumo; tx w/high-dose amoxicillin Older child or well-appearing w/bilateral lung findings – most common cause M. pneumo; tx w/Azithromycin
691
What are 1st line therapies for patients w/alcohol use disorder?
Naltrexone – can be initiated while still drinking, but is contraindicated in those taking opioids, or who have acute hepatitis or liver failure Acamprosate can also be used as 1st line therapy
692
How should the efficacy of anti-thyroid therapy be assessed?
With total T3 and free T4 – TSH may remain suppressed for several mos after initial therapy and therefore does not accurately reflect thyroid functional status
693
What is the most reliable method for verification of proper endotracheal tube placement?
Capnography w/persistent waveform w/ventilation
694
Pathogenesis and common causes of phototoxic drug rxns:
D/t production of ROS that then directly damage cell membranes and DNA. Sxs can be seen in both sun-exposed areas as well as non-exposed areas. Common causes: Abx (tetracyclines), Antipsychs (chlorpromazine), Diuretics (furosemide, thiazides), Amiodarone, promethazine, piroxicam.
695
What metabolic/lab abnormalities can hypothyroidism cause?
Hyperlipidemia (decreased LDL-Rs or decreased LDL-R activity) Hyponatremia (d/t decreased free H2O clearance) Asx elevation in creatinine kinase Elevated serum transaminases Macrocytic anemia
696
Clinical features of HELLP:
Preeclampsia (increased BP + urine proteins after 20 wks) Nausea/vomiting RUQ abdominal pain
697
Definition of preeclampsia:
New-onset HTN (SBP 140+ and/or DBP 90+) at 20+ weeks gestation PLUS proteinuria &/or end-organ damage
698
Severe features of preeclampsia (6):
``` SBP >160 or DBP 110 (2x 4hrs apart) Thrombocytopenia Increased Creatinine Increased Transaminases Pulmonary edema Visual or cerebral sxs (hyperreflexia/clonus) ```
699
Mgmt of preeclampsia:
W/out severe features – delivery at 37+ weeks W/severe features – delivery at 34+ weeks Mag sulfate for seizure pphx + Anti-HTNs should be started first in regardless of gestation *C-section is not indicated unless there is a contraindication to labor, or there's a non-reassuring FHR*
700
What should be given to patients with HELLP syndrome? When should this be given, and for how long?
Mag sulfate – given immediately on diagnosis and continued for 24hrs after delivery.
701
What clue on PE often suggests diaphragmatic paralysis?
Paradoxical abdominal wall retraction during inspiration while lying supine Patients often have SoB worse while supine that can be mistaken for a cardiac origin of dyspnea
702
What is the most common adverse event that occurs in hospitalized non-operative/procedural patients?
Adverse drug events; Second is hospital acquired infection In patients undergoing an operation/procedure then operative/post-procedure adverse events become the most common; These include wound infections, bleeding and DVTs
703
How should epistaxis be managed?
First apply direct compression w/nostril pinching, if this fails add topical vasoconstrictor (Oxymetazoline) via squirt bottle or cotton pledget. If this fails next step is chemical (silver nitrate) or electrical cautery, then anterior nasal packing w/bacitracin covered sponge if there is continued bleeding. **If bleeding appears to be posterior then nasal packing needs to be done, but this is much less common**
704
How are vesicovaginal fistulas commonly diagnosed?
With methylene blue instillation into the bladder – positive test will turn tampon in the vagina blue d/t leakage through the fistula
705
What does the “Q-tip test” diagnose?
Urethral hypermobility – >30-degree angle of movement during Valsalva is diagnostic
706
When should an ear wick be placed?
If the patient has otitis w/a completely occluded ear canal
707
What are the TSH goals of levothyroxine in patients w/differentiated epithelial thyroid cancer?
Differentiated epithelial thyroid cancer = Papillary and Follicular Small, low-risk tms: Target TSH 0.1-0.5 for 6-12mo and then kept at low normal range (0.5-1ish) Intermediate risk: Target TSH 0.1-0.5 Large, aggressive tms: Target TSH <0.1 and should be continued at this level for several years **Suppressing TSH will decrease risk of recurrent disease**
708
How should actinic keratosis be managed?
Lesions should be removed/destroyed at time of detection Individual lesions – liquid nitrogen cryosurgery, surgical excision or curettage Numerous lesions – field therapy w/5-FU cream (best), imiquimod cream, topical diclofenac or photodynamic therapy
709
What are the two most important predictors of survival in COPD patients?
Age and FEV1 (<40% indicates severe disease) | After adjusting for age, FEV1 is the single most important factor to determine prognosis
710
What is the recommended Cervical cancer screening in Immunosuppressed women?
aka those w/SLE, organ transplant, etc. | Screening should start at onset of sexual intercourse and should occur annually w/pap and HPV cotesting
711
Most common congenital heart disease in children w/Down’s syndrome:
Enodcardial cushion defect
712
What are common conditions that patients w/Down Syndrome are at increased risk for?
``` Acute leukemia Alzheimer-like dementia Autism ADHD Atlanto-axial instability Depressive disorder Duodenal atresia Seizure disorder Hypothyroidism ```
713
Complications of chlamydia infection in pregnancy:
Maternal – PPROM, preterm labor, postpartum endometritis | Fetal – neonatal conjunctivitis and neonatal pneumonia
714
What is construction apraxia?
Difficulty in copying simple line drawings, most commonly seen in patients who have damage to their nondominant parietal lobe May also have confusion and dressing apraxia (difficulty in wearing cloths, and getting dressed) as these are also common in parietal lobe lesions
715
What would likely be seen in a patient with a nondominant temporal lobe lesion?
Visual disorders – homonymous upper quadrantanopia | Auditory agnosia – impaired perception of complex sounds
716
What is Gerstmann syndrome?
Often occurs w/damage to the dominant parietal lobe Patients can have acalculia (difficulty performing simple math), finger agnosia (inability to name individual fingers), agraphia, and R/L confusion (difficulty identifying the R from L side of the body)
717
How should gDM be managed postpartum?
Anti-hyperglycemic therapy should be stopped after delivery of placenta Obtain fasting glucose at 24-72hr and then do 2hr 75g GTT at the 6-12 week postpartum visit These patients should also undergo DM screening every 3 years as they are at increased risk
718
Who should receive Iron supplementation in ESRD?
All patients w transferrin saturation 30% or less and ferritin 500 or less These patients may have normal iron stores but can’t mobilize them, also ferritin is an acute phase reactant and can be increased d/t the inflammation a/w ESRD therefore it is a poor indicator of Fe-status in patients w/ESRD
719
How does G6PD present?
Often in childhood after an oxidative stress w/jaundice, pallor, dark urine + abd/back pain May also occur in neonatal period w/jaundice and anemia on day 2-3 of life and rapid increase in unconjugated BR (differentiated from ABO incompatibility based on timing, ABO <24hrs, and other physiologic jaundice by the presence of anemia which is not seen in physio jaundice) X-linked disease
720
How are cat bites managed?
Cat bites are considered high risk for infection and always require abx regardless of the cleanliness or benign appearance of the wound Tx: amoxicillin-clavulanate
721
What is labor protraction and how is it managed?
Labor protraction: cervical dilation 1cm or less/2hr during the active phase of labor (6cm-10cm cervical dilation) Tx: Oxytocin + amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes) are first line therapies
722
Most common AE w/in 1-6hrs of transfusion:
Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn. -- can be prevented with leukoreduction.
723
When should cells be washed prior to transfusion?
If the pt. has IgA deficiency or had a prior allergic transfusion rxn.
724
What should be given to transplant pts. to prevent opportunistic infections?
TMP-SMX. This prevents PCP, some Listeria and toxoplasma infections. Can be discontinued 6-12 months post-transplant. Some pts. may also receive Ganciclovir for pphx against CMV
725
What is the prognosis of children with a single febrile seizure?
No long-term sequelae but they are at increased risk for subsequent febrile seizures and have slight increased risk of epilepsy (~1%)
726
What are the endoscopy recommendations for patient’s w/Barrett’s esophagus?
Metaplasia but no dysplasia: PPI + surveillance endoscopy in 3-5 years Low-grade dysplasia: PPI + surveillance endoscopy 6-12mo OR endoscopic eradication High-grade dysplasia: Endoscopic eradication therapy (ablation, mucosal resection)
727
What is the major problem that leads to difficulty finding cross-matched blood for patients?
Alloantibodies – most commonly seen in pts w/multiple transfusions (SCD, myelodysplasia) **Side note: RBCs do not express HLA antigens**
728
What are the clinical features and mgmt. of primary ovarian insufficiency?
Features: Amenorrhea at age <40 Hypoestrogenic sxs (hot flashes) Increased FSH (increased/normal LH), decreased Estrogen Tx: Estrogen therapy + progestin if patient has an intact uterus (reduces risk of endometrial ca) Continue therapy until around normal age of menopause (50) and then dc
729
What are the major causes of Primary ovarian insufficiency?
``` Turner syndrome (45,XO) Fragile X Autoimmune oophoritis Anticancer drugs Pelvic radiation Galactosemia ```
730
What is oculoglandular syndrome?
aka Parinaud syndrome – specific manifestation of cat-scratch disease Presents w/lymphadenitis (often chronic, >2wk) of the preauricular or cervical nodes with involvement of the conjunctivae – conjunctivitis w/clear drainage Typically self-resolving but sometimes the LNs can suppurate and drain onto the skin (needle-aspiration can prevent rupture and relieve sxs) Tx not always indicated but Azithromycin can accelerate recovery
731
What is the tx of Psoriasis?
Limited plaque psoriasis – topical glucocorticoids or Vit. D derivatives (calipotriene) Extensive plaques or joint involvement/arthritis – methotrexate or other biologics
732
What is the tx of Ecthyma Gangrenosum?
IV abx that cover Pseudomonas – anti pseudomonal B-lactam (pip-tazo) + aminoglycoside Others that can be used: select cephalosporins, monobactams, fluoroquinolones and carbapenems Usually does not require surgery/debridement like nec fasc which it commonly resembles – can differentiate based on pain – ecthyma gangrenosum is typically painless
733
What are the features of glucocorticoid-induced Diabetes?
Typically resemble Type II DM and is characterized by insulin resistance rather than insulin deficiency like seen in type I. DKA is very uncommon in these patients
734
What conditions are commonly associated with Ketoacidosis?
Stress-induced hyperglycemia | Type-I DM
735
What cells are responsible for producing myelin in the PNS v. CNS?
Peripheral nervous system: Schwann cells (implicated in acoustic neuromas) Central nervous system: Oligodendrocytes
736
What is a positive tourniquet test?
When a patient develops petechiae after BP cuff inflation on their arm for 5 min Often seen in Dengue hemorrhagic fever
737
When does surgery need to be done for ovarian masses in pregnant women?
If a mass is identified and is persistent, has complex features (septations), and/or is >10cm in diameter Surgery should be done in the early second trimester to prevent complications.
738
Who gets berry aneurysms?
EHLERS-DANLOS!!!!!! | Not Marfan, they get aortic dissection and lens dislocations and shit
739
What has shown efficacy in targeting the negative sxs a/w schizophrenia?
Psychosocial intervention w/social skills training Meds so far have not shown proven benefits in targeting negative sxs and mood stabilizers should not be added as negative sxs are not the same as depression.
740
What are the absolute contraindications to combined hormonal contraceptives (12)?
``` Migraine w/aura 15+ cigs/d AND age 35+ HTN >160/100 Heart disease DM w/end-organ damage Hx of thromboembolic disease Antiphospholipid-Ab syndrome Hx of Stroke Breast ca Cirrhosis and liver ca Major surgery w/prolonged immobilization Use <3wks postpartum ```
741
How does ventilator-associated pneumonia commonly present?
New onset fever, increased secretions, new/worsening pulmonary infiltrates and increased requirement for ventilatory support in a patient ventilated for 48+ hrs Commonly occurs as a complication of ARDS Other signs: leukocytosis, tachypnea, and decreased oxygenation **respiratory sampling (tracheobronchial aspirate/BAL) is necessary for culture and microscopy to tailor abx**
742
What are common organisms implicated in VAP and how are they treated?
Often caused by: E. coli, Strep spp., MRSA, Pseudomonas (microaspiration of virulent oropharyngeal organisms) Tx: Imipenem or meropenem, pip-tazo or cefepime, gentamicin AND vancomycin or linezolid - Tracheobronchial aspiration or BAL must be done for culture/microscopy to tailor abx regimen d/t increased resistance of VAP-associated organisms
743
What drugs can increase the risk of hospital-acquired pneumonia?
PPIs
744
What should be suspected in an elderly patient with non-exertional syncope w/o an autonomic prodrome of sxs and no neurological sxs?
Cariogenic syncope – can happen in any age, but commonly in elderly w/structural heart disease. Often have no signs/sxs by time of presentation to ED or office Can be exertional (d/t AS or HCM), have preceding sxs like fatigue/dizziness (sick sinus syndrome), or nonexertional w/no preceding sxs (Vtach, TdP) These patients need inpatient monitoring w/tele to detect the arrhythmia + echo to look for structural heart disease
745
What are risk factors for neural tube defects?
``` Folate deficiency – #1 Pregestational DM Maternal fever in 1st trimester Maternal obesity Genetic factors ```
746
What is a common complication of Spina Bifida/NTD repair?
NTDs require urgent neonatal surgical repair, and over half of infants who undergo repair of an NTD get hydrocephalus requiring a VP shunt
747
When is daily abx suppression warranted during pregnancy?
If the pregnant mother had an episode of acute pyelonephritis – they need immediate IV abx during the episode and then once it has resolved require daily abx suppression until after delivery to prevent pyelo-associated cxs (preterm labor, sepsis, ARDS)
748
What are the side effects and contraindications to progestin-subdermal implant?
Side Effects: unscheduled bleeding (most common), weight gain, HA Contraindication: progesterone receptor+ breast cancer This is the most effective form of contraception (even higher than sterilization and IUDs)
749
What should be done to test for pernicious anemia?
Initial test should be for detection of Anti-IF Abs (anti-parietal Abs are not commonly tested for as they’re much less specific than anti-IF in diagnosing pernicious anemia) Schilling can be done as a 2nd-line if anti-IF is negative
750
What are the likely findings seen on gastric endoscopy in pernicious anemia?
Pernicious anemia is a/w autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis (AMAG) – immune response mainly directed against oxyntic cells and IF. There are 3 main components of AMAG: 1. Absent rugae in the fundus and sometimes body/glandular atrophy 2. Intestinal metaplasia 3. Inflammation The gastric body and fundus are the main areas affected; typically see little/no changes in the antrum
751
How to differentiate n-REM from REM sleep disorders:
``` n-REM disorders (sleep walking, sleep terrors), occur during the first 1/3 of sleep/slow wave sleep, the patients have amnesia of the event REM disorders (nightmares), occur during second ½ of sleep, the patients have detailed dream recall or act out their dreams during the event Don’t need tx unless episodes are frequent, persistent & distressing – give low-dose benzo ```
752
What are the common features and risk factors of candida endophthalmitis?
Often in neutropenic patients, those w/CVCs used for TPN, and in severely ill pts in the ICU Sxs: fever, decreased visual acuity, and eye pain Fundoscopy: focal, glistening white, mound-like lesions on the retina that may extend into the vitreous w/resultant vitreous haze
753
What is the tx of candida endophthalmitis?
Vitrectomy + intravitreal antifungal injection + systemic antifungal (amphotericin B; can consider using fluconazole or voriconazole instead, but not ketoconazole)
754
How do tuberculous effusions often present?
With fever, cough, pleurisy and weight loss Thoracentesis often shows lymphocyte-predominate, exudative effusion w/elevated ADA Often require pleural biopsy to diagnose as pleural fluid smear is usually aseptic
755
How are HIV+ patients likely to present w/TB?
HIV patients w/high or normal CD4 counts typically present as expected w/apical cavitary lesions Patients w/low CD4 counts cannot mount a sufficient cell-mediated defense to create cavitations and often present w/lobar, pleural, or disseminated infections.
756
What is the typical course of lower extremity alignment in children?
Physiologic genu varum from 6mos up to 3yrs (after 3 yrs need investigation) Straight legs are typical around age 2 Physiologic genu valgum from 4yrs on Straight legs by >7yrs, if not need imaging and investigation
757
What vessel is likely to cause CN-III palsy?
Aneurysms of the posterior communicating a. or rarely cavernous-carotid aneurysms SAH d/t rupture of these aneurysms is typically what causes the palsy, but can get prodromal sxs (diplopia) from their mass effects prior to rupture
758
What is primary v. secondary mitral regurgitation?
Primary is caused by an intrinsic defect of the MV apparatus – leaflets, chordae tendineae (MVP is one of the most common causes) Secondary/Functional occurs d/t a disease process involving the LV (MI, DCMP, etc.)
759
What is considered impaired LV systolic function?
Most healthy patients LVEF 50% or less is considered impaired systolic function In patients w/severe, chronic MR, LVEF 60% or less is considered impaired function
760
When is chronic MR considered severe?
In the presence of associated sxs – dyspnea on exertion, HF Or specific echo findings – LA and LV enlargement, regurgitant jet prominence LVEF <60% is considered systolic dysfunction in these patients bc a large portion of the LVEF flows back into the LA and underestimates the EF.
761
What thyroid disorders will show decreased radioiodine uptake on thyroid scintigraphy?
``` Subacute (de Quervain, subacute granulomatous) thyroiditis Silent (painless) thyroiditis Postpartum thyroiditis Surreptitious thyroid hormone abuse Iodine-induced thyroiditis ```
762
What is the treatment of Subacte thyroiditis?
Typically NSAIDs are enough, and relieve the associated pain; may give glucocorticoids for severe or refractory cases BBs can also be added to minimize the sxs (sweating, palpitations) Anti-thyroid meds (PTU, MTZ) have no role
763
What conditions can be treated with radioiodine thyroid ablation?
Graves and nodular thyroid disease
764
What anti-DM med is most helpful in obese patients and those w/NASH?
Metformin **In contrast, sulfonylureas will worsen obesity and do not improve lipid profiles**
765
What are the Rabies prophylaxis guidelines?
Pre-exposure pphx: Rabies vaccine on days 0, 7 & 21 or 28 Post-exposure pphx; unvaccinated: Rabies vax on days 0, 3, 7 & 14 + Rabies Ig on day 0 Post-exposure pphx; previously vaccinated: Rabies vax on days 0 & 3
766
What are the common manifestations of early neurosyphilis?
Can have any or all of the following: Meningitis – HA, confusion, N/V, stiff neck, photophobia (more subacute presentation than bacterial meningitis) Ocular – posterior uveitis, decreased visual acuity, photophobia Meningovascular – infectious CNS arteritis causing ischemia and/or infarction Otosyphilis – tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss (often unilateral) Cranial neuropathies – most commonly of the optic, facial or auditory nerves **These most commonly occur during the secondary stage of syphilis and will also see signs of this – generalized maculopapular rash involving palms/soles, LAD**
767
What laxatives are safe for long-term use in pediatric patients?
Osmotic laxatives Stimulant laxatives can be used for acute disimpaction as well as enemas but these should not be used everyday as part of a long-term therapy
768
What does recall bias cause? | *biostats*
Often leads to misclassification of exposure
769
What are the components to diagnosing brain death?
First: clinical criteria – imaging evidence, absence of confounding factors, etc. Second: neuro exam showing coma w/absent cerebral and brainstem reflexes Third: apnea test to confirm brainstem failure If all of these are positive then brain death can be diagnosed; if any are inconclusive then ancillary testing should be performed (EEG, CTA, transcranial Doppler, etc.)
770
1st line tx in PCP intoxication?
``` Benzos Antipsychotics (haloperidol) can be used if benzos fail but should not be first line ```
771
What are the causes, features and treatments of Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Cause: ABO incompatibility (more common in those requiring multiple transfusions – can develop Abs to common Rh, Kell, or other blood group Ags) Timing: within 1hr of transfusion start Features: fever, flank pain, hemoglobinuria, + Coombs test Cxs: DIC, renal failure (d/t immune complex deposition) Tx: stop transfusion and aggressively hydrate w/NS (not ringers or dextrose) – treats HoTN and prevents renal failure
772
What is the logic behind plasma exchange tx in a patient w/TTP?
To increase the amount and activity of ADAMTS13, a plasma metalloprotease
773
How to distinguish TTP from ITP:
Both will cause thrombocytopenia, bruising and petechiae, but only TTP will cause MAHA leading to schistocytes on PBS, elevated direct BR, LDH and aminotransferases
774
Causes of TTP v. ITP:
TTP – auto antibodies against ADAMTS13, a metalloprotease, that cleaves vWF ITP – auto antibodies against platelet antigens
775
What are the disadvantages to using Metoclopramide as an anti-emetic?
In high doses often needed in chemo patients it can cause EPS and drug induced parkinsonism
776
What are some disorders that increase the risk of pediatric thromboembolic events?
Homocystinuria – presents w/Marfan habitus, fair complexion, developmental delay, lens dislocation, and hypercoagulability. Cystathionine synthase def. Fabry disease – presents w/angiokeratomas, peripheral neuropathy, asx corneal dystrophy, increased risk for renal and heart failure as well as thromboembolic events. a-Galactosidase def.
777
What are the common manifestations of scabies and how is it treated?
Itchy rash, worse at night, involvement of the webbed-spaces on the hand May also be seen on the forearms, elbows, axilla, waist, genitalia, knees, thighs and feet Tx: topical permethrin (1 application) or 1-2 doses oral ivermectin
778
What are the common features of an amebic liver abscess?
Often d/t protozoal infection w/Entamoeba histolytica Manifestations begin 8-20wks after inoculation and include: fever, RUQ pain, nonspecific systemic sxs (malaise, nausea); May or may not have recent hx of dysentery US will show round, well-defined hypoechoic mass in the R hepatic lobe. Dx w/blood serology and antigen detection; aspiration not required to diagnose but often resembles “anchovy paste” (thick, dark brown fluid) and is aseptic w/neg gram stain
779
How to differentiate pyogenic v. amebic liver abscesses:
Both typically present w/the same sxs and appear similar on imaging Differentiation must be done w/E histolytica serologic or antigen testing If testing is negative aspiration can be done – pyogenic abscesses will typically have positive cultures and gram stains, whereas amebic abscesses will likely be negative and aseptic
780
Mgmt of esophageal coin ingestion:
Ingestion time <24hrs AND asymptomatic – observation + repeat XR in 12-24hrs Ingestion time 24+hrs, or unknown OR symptomatic – endoscopic coin removal
781
Most common causes of small bowel obstruction:
Post-op adhesions, hernias (incarcerated), and tumors
782
What is the non-surgical mgmt. of primary hyperparathyroidism?
For those who do not have indications for surgery, the mgmt. should be close monitoring of the serum Ca2+, creatinine and DEXA testing
783
What are the high-intensity statins?
Atorvastatin and Rosuvastatin
784
What are the common features and causes of Erythema multiforme?
Erythematous plaques w/central clearing; Usually begins on the extremities Most occur d/t underlying infections (>90%), common causes: HSV (#1 cause), M. pneumoniae Other causes: drugs (sulfas, B-lactams, phenytoin), cancers and AI diseases
785
What cells does HCC arise from in the liver?
HCC arises from hepatocytes/liver parenchyma | Liver interstitial cells play no role in the development of HCC
786
What will the lab findings show in pertussis?
Lymphocyte-dominant leukocytosis – aka will look like virus but needs abx (macrolide)
787
Mgmt of pediatric inguinal hernias:
Asymptomatic – elective surgery in 1-2wks (regardless of age) Immediate surgical repair for incarceration
788
When should HZV vax be given?
Age 50 or greater to all immunocompetent individuals
789
What is likely the cause in a patient with a new-onset bleeding disorder?
Presence of coagulation factor inhibitor – antibodies against coagulation factors Common Abs: antiphospholipid Abs, inhibitors of factors VIII, IX, and XI VIII inhibitors cause “acquired hemophilia” and lab results will mimic inherited hemophilia. Just as dangerous These can occur independently or be a/w malignancy, pregnancy, lymphoproliferative disorders or rheumatic disease
790
What should be ruled out in patients who present w/appendicitis-like sxs on warfarin tx?
Retroperitoneal bleed – can have acute, severe RLQ pain and +psoas sign Hemorrhage can occur even if the INR is w/in the therapeutic range Need a CT abdomen STAT
791
What reverses heparin?
Protamine sulfate
792
Effect of calcium on the QT interval:
Hypercalcemia – shortened interval | Hypocalcemia – prolonged interval
793
Findings of choanal atresia:
Unilateral (most common) – chronic nasal discharge and sxs begin in childhood Bilateral – cyanosis that worsens w/feeding, improves w/crying, noisy breathing (stertor), sxs present shortly after birth Both may be a/w CHARGE syndrome Dx by inability to pass catheter past nasopharynx; confirm w/CT or nasal endoscopy
794
How should patients w/a malignant pleural or pericardial effusion be managed?
Malignant effusions automatically makes the cancer stage IV/incurable and therefore care should be palliative – recurrent thoracocenteses for slow accumulating effusions, chemical pleurodesis for more aggressive/rapidly accumulating effusions. Pleural catheter is another option but has risk of infection.
795
What can long QT lead to?
Ventricular arrhythmias
796
What will AV conduction delay cause on EKG?
Prolonged PR interval
797
Single greatest risk factor for developing pancreatic cancer:
Cigarette smoking
798
What are the indications for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement?
Primary prevention: Prior MI w/LVEF 30% or less NYHA class II or III sxs w/LVEF 35% or less Secondary prevention: Prior VF or unstable VT w/o reversible cause Prior sustained VT w/underlying cardiomyopathy
799
What patient would benefit from cardiac resynchronization therapy w/biventricular pacemaker?
Those with moderate-severe HF, an LVEF 35% or less, and a widened QRS (>120msec)
800
Most common inherited thrombophilia:
Activated protein C resistance caused by Factor V Leiden | Account for about 50% of all inherited thrombophilias
801
What drugs should be used and avoided in TCA toxicity?
Sodium Bicarb is the #1 choice to stabilize the cardiac membrane and decrease QRS, but Lidocaine may also be used is Sodium bicarb is ineffective Mag Sulfate is often used to decrease QRS prolongation but is not first line, can be added later if there is persistent arrhythmia Physostigmine is used in isolated anticholinergic toxicity, but TCAs have mixed MoAs and therefore it is contraindicated as it can cause cardiac arrest in TCA toxicity Flecainide is contraindicated and will worsen QRS prolongation
802
What are the different MoAs or TCAs:
NE and Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (antidepressant effects) Antihistamines (results in sedation) A1-antagonists (results in HoTN, worsens BPH/BOO) Cardiac Na+ channel blockers (results in conduction delay/QRS prolongation) Anticholinergics (dry mucous membranes, pupillary dilation)
803
What should be used to treat Torsades de Pointes?
Mag Sulfate – will decrease QRS prolongation
804
What should be included in the initial assessment of obesity?
Hx and sxs of obesity and obesity related cxs: Back pain, OA, atherosclerotic CD, sleep apnea Biometric measurements: BP and pulse, Weight, BMI, Waist circumference Lab studies: Glucose (or HbA1c), TSH, lipids, hepatic enzymes **must assess for complications and reversible causes when overweight/obesity is diagnosed**
805
How should obese patients be managed?
Step 1: lifestyle modifications – exercise 20-30min/d, 5-7d/wk, diet low in calories and fat or Mediterranean diet, decrease portion sizes *If fail to lose wt + have BMI 30+ or 27-29 and have comorbidity move to step 2 Step 2: Drug therapy options – orlistat (often 1st line), phentermine/topiramate, buprorion/naltrexone, liraglutide **If fail to lose wt and have BMI 40+ or 35+ and comorbidity proceed to step 3 Step 3: Bariatric surgery
806
When can bariatric surgery be considered?
If a patient is obese (BMI 40+ or 35+ and has a comorbidity) and has already failed lifestyle modifications and drug therapy **comorbidities/obesity-related cxs include: HTN, impaired glucose tolerance, DM, dyslipidemia, sleep apnea**
807
How to differentiate EHEC v. Shigella sonnei infection:
Both will present w/dysentery and abdominal cramps EHEC is often afebrile and is a/w animal exposure (farms, petting zoos), or ingestion of undercooked beef Shigella is commonly febrile and is not a/w animal exposure, but is contracted through contaminated food or water **both will have shiga toxin present**
808
What are the common causes of diarrhea a/w pets and animals?
Salmonella – a/w pets, poultry and turtles; often does not produce dysentery and is seen as non-bloody diarrhea, but can be bloody EHEC – a/w farms, petting zoos, etc.; almost always bloody and afebrile
809
How to distinguish EHEC from other strains of E. coli:
EHEC does NOT ferment sorbitol which is evident by growing it on sorbitol-MacConey agar
810
When should abx be avoided in patients w/dysentery?
If they have proven infection with EHEC – increased chance of developing HUS
811
Normal values for serum transferrin saturation:
Aka TIBC 20%-50% In Fe-deficient anemia levels typically drop below 10%
812
What are the common features of anemia of chronic disease?
Increased Hepcidin in setting of inflammation leads to decreased release of Fe from macrophages and decreased Fe absorption from the gut. Most often it is normocytic but can become microcytic Always nonhemolytic so will have normal BR levels Labs: decreased Fe, decreased TIBC (opposite of Fe-def), and increased ferritin (acute phase reactant) **Only time it should be treated is in setting of CKD – give EPO, otherwise just correct underlying disease; Fe plays no role in tx as they have normal iron stores they just can’t mobilize them properly**
813
Causes of aplastic anemia:
Radiation and Drugs – benzene, chloramphenicol, alkylating agents, antimetabolites, phenytoin Viruses – parvoB19, EBV, HIV, hepatitis viruses Faconi anemia – DNA repair defect leading to bone marrow failure Idiopathic **All cell lines will be deficient, but will have normal cell morphology on PBS**
814
Causes of dry bone marrow tap:
Hairy Cell leukemia – fibrosis of bone marrow Aplastic anemia – fatty infiltration of bone marrow Both will cause pancytopenia and have all cell lines down
815
What are the polyomaviruses?
circular, naked, dsDNA viruses JC virus – causes PML in HIV pts BK virus – common in transplant patients, attacks kidneys and causes nephritis Has basophilic intranuclear inclusions like CMV and HSV
816
Proportion of Medicaid enrollees to expenditures:
Children comprise about 50% of enrollees but only about 15% of the expenditures Elderly and disabled comprise much smaller percentages but consume a disproportionately larger portion of expenditures. **Medicare is only for 65+ and disabled, low-income adults and children are not covered**
817
When should diabetic patients get C-sections?
If they have an estimated fetal weight >9.9lb by US – do C-section at 39 weeks to avoid risks of shoulder dystocia
818
Preventative meds for migraines:
BBs (Metoprolol), TCAs (amitriptyline), and anticonvulsants (valproate)
819
Abortive/acute meds for migraines:
Dopamine antagonsits (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine) – help w/N, V and pain Ergotamines +/- caffeine or analgesics Selective serotonin agonists – Triptans (sumatriptan)
820
What should the ventilator settings be in patients w/ARDS?
**Goal is to sustain PaO2 at 55-80, and O2 saturation 88-95%** Low tidal volume is most important – prevents alveolar overdistention and barotrauma FiO2 should be lowered <60% as quickly as possible to prevent O2 toxicity High PEEP (up to 15-20) – prevents alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation when FiO2 is <60% Higher respiratory rates (35 or less) to maintain adequate minute ventilation Plateau pressure 30 or less
821
What are the endocrine manifestations of hereditary hemochromatosis?
DM Secondary hypogonadism – see low/normal testosterone and decreased sex drive Hypothyroidism
822
Tx of vulvovaginal candidiasis in pregnancy:
Vaginal clotrimazole, miconazole and nystatin – all are safe in all trimesters
823
What can help distinguish b/w the major causes of metabolic alkalosis w/hypokalemia?
Urine chloride level Appropriately low urine Cl levels (<20): External loss of gastric acid – vomiting, NG suctioning Inappropriately elevated levels: Diuretic therapy, Inherited sodium wasting disorders – Gitelman and Bartter syndromes
824
Tx of furuncle and carbuncle:
Furuncle is infection of one single hair follicle, carbuncle involves multiple and often has systemic sxs as well. Most common cause is S. aureus and often MRSA Abx w/MRSA coverage are required: Clindamycin, TMP-SMX, or doxycycline I&D is also warranted a well
825
What imaging is warranted in patients w/S. aureus bacteremia?
TTE or TEE to assess for IE Even if the patients have clear evidence of osteomyelitis, biopsy of bone for culture is not warranted, but echo is always needed
826
How to confirm diagnosis of Primary sclerosing cholangitis:
Endoscopic cholangiogram or MRCP Often though lab abnormalities are enough – show cholestatic pattern w v. high ALP and BR 90% of pts. w/PSC have UC
827
What are the ductal-dependent congenital heart defects?
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome Severe coarctation of the aorta Differentiate by cyanosis and HoTN in all extremities in HLHS v. only lower extremities in coarctation **ToF and Truncus arteriosus are also cyanotic defects but are not ductal dependent and will not worsen w/its closure around day1 of life**
828
What is one of the most dangerous pulmonary cxs of TNF-a inhibitor therapy?
Severe necrotizing pneumonia caused by S. aureus Often presents w/acute pulmonary sxs, rapid decompensation and a lower lobe infiltrate + cavitation Common TNF inhibitors: etanercept, adalimumab, certolizumab, infliximab, golimumab
829
How should pregnant mothers who have undergone alloimmunization be treated?
If a pregnant woman has any type of positive anti-Rh(D) Ab titer (even as low as 1:1, 1:2) then alloimmunization has already occurred and therefore they should not receive anti-D Ig as it will not be effective at preventing alloimmunization
830
What causes Gaucher Disease?
It is an AR inherited lysosomal storage disorder d/t glucocerebrosidase deficiency Glycolipids (glucocerebrosides) accumulate w/in the lysosomes of macrophages, which infiltrate and disrupt various organs Type I GD is most common and has varying severities which can present at any time from early childhood to late adulthood.
831
What are the common amino acid disorders?
Maple syrup urine disease and phenylketonuria Can present in infancy w/acute decompensation after protein feeding or later in childhood w/developmental delay or regression
832
What are common nucleotide metabolism disorders?
Lesch-Nyhan Gout ADA deficiency
833
What is the primary goal of drug therapy in shingles?
To prevent postherpetic neuralgia
834
What are unique features of atheroemboli-induced injury to the kidneys?
Eosinophilia and eosinophiluria – help differentiate it from contrast-induced nephropathy Will not see the cholesterol crystals a/w atheroemboli as they remain in the blood vessels and don’t enter the urine
835
What is a common cause of abdominal mass that moves w/respiration?
RCCa – often palpable in the flank region or abdomen, nontender and moves w/respiration In contrast, colon and ovarian masses may be palpable in similar areas, but typically do not move w/respiration.
836
Chronic mgmt. of gout:
Need a urate-lowering drug – allopurinol is DoC While initiating therapy patients should also be placed on a prophylactic drug to prevent flares during this period – low dose colchicine is 1st line, but NSAIDs can also be used
837
What are the common presenting features of Gaucher disease?
Onset may be delayed and present in mid-late adolescents Bone marrow infiltration – anemia and thrombocytopenia Splenomegaly – typically severe and more prominent than hepatomegaly Bony pains d/t skeletal involvement – often mistaken for “growing pains” May have osteopenia and pathologic fractures following minimal trauma Failure to thrive – height and weight <5th percentile Delayed puberty (tanner stage I in a 16yo)
838
Rxs that cause pill-esophagitis:
Abx – tetracyclines Anti-inflammatory agents – aspirin and many NSAIDs Bisphosphonates – alendronate, risedronate Others – potassium chloride, iron
839
Endoscopic appearance of pill-esophagitis:
Circumferential deep ulceration w/relatively normal surrounding mucosa. Normally in mid-esophagus.
840
What screening tests can be done to asses for aneuploidy in the 1st trimester?
Cell-free fetal DNA – has high sensitivity and specificity. If the results of this are abnormal then the more invasive chorionic villus sampling can be taken and confirm the diagnosis w/fetal karyotyping.
841
When can amniocentesis be performed?
Second trimester (15-20 weeks)
842
When can chorionic villus sampling be performed?
First trimester (10-13 weeks)
843
When can cell-free fetal DNA be performed?
First trimester (10+ weeks) in patients at risk for aneuploidies (>35)
844
What pattern on quadruple screen will suggest Trisomy 21?
Decreased AFP Increased hCG Decreased estriol Increased inhibin A
845
What pattern on quadruple screen will suggest Trisomy 18?
Decreased AFP Decreased BhCG Decreased estriol Normal or low inhibin A
846
When should NSAIDs not be used in an acute gout attack?
Contraindicated in pts w/PUD and should be avoided in renal failure
847
Features of Central precocious puberty v. peripheral:
CPP: early maturation of HPG axis; see typical pubertal sequence w/breast or testicular development first, followed by pubic and axillary hair development PPP: d/t excess sex hormone; see pubic and axillary hair development first, and often no development of breast or testes. Often have other features of adrenarche such as acne or hirsutism and oligomenorrhea in girls. **Both present w/advanced bone age**
848
Common causes of peripheral precocious puberty:
``` Nonclassic CAH Estrogen-secreting ovarian cysts Exogenous estrogen exposure DHEAS producing adrenal tms. Aromatase excess McCune-Albright syndrome Leydig-cell testicular tms. (produce androgens or estrogen) ```
849
Common causes of Central Precocious Puberty:
Hypothalamic or pituitary tms. Idiopathic precocious puberty Primary Hypothyroidism (TSH activates FSH) Tuberous sclerosis (d/t brain hamartomas) NF1 (rare, but optic gliomas can effect the hypothalamus)
850
What are the typical basal-insulin options for Type I diabetics?
2x/d NPH insulin or 1x/d insulin glargine at bedtime. | If a patient is experiencing hypoglycemic episodes it is likely these that will need to be adjusted
851
Do RBCs express HLA antigens?
NO! Only organs, bone marrow, and platelets
852
What is contamination bias? | *biostats*
When the control group in a controlled trial unintentionally receives the tx or intervention, thereby reducing the difference in outcomes b/w the control and treatment groups. Not a bias seen in observational studies
853
What are the physical exam findings a/w Mitral Stenosis?
Mitral facies – pink/purple patches on cheeks Loud S1, loud P2 if pHTN is present Opening snap (high-freq early diastolic sound) Mid-diastolic rumble (low-pitched, best heard at apex) Sxs reported: dyspnea, orthopnea, PND, hemoptysis, aFib, thromboembolisms, hoarseness from RLN compression d/t LA enlargement
854
What investigations do all patients w/Medullary thyroid cancer require?
Serum calcitonin and CEA measurements Neck US Genetic testing for RET mutations: if positive need metanephrine measurements before thyroidectomy to rule out pheo and cxs it can cause during surgery
855
In what toxicity syndrome is mechanical ventilation avoided?
Salicylate toxicity – the sedation and paralysis in prep for intubation can acutely worsen acidosis and exacerbate the toxicity. In addition normal ventilation strategies often cannot mimic the high RR providing beneficial alkalosis in these patients. Intubation should be reserved for those w/significant hypoventilation and respiratory failure
856
What kind of medication is Cilostazol?
A PDE-3 inhibitor – aka antiplatelet | Can be used in PVD and intermittent claudication when lifestyle and exercise interventions fail
857
How does thyroid hormone effect serum calcium levels?
Hyperthyroidism may cause mild hypercalcemia as a result of the increased bone turnover a/w hyperthyroidism
858
What is the most common cause of culture negative endocarditis?
Q fever – caused by coxiella burnetii; spores inhaled as aerosols and a/w cattle or sheep amniotic fluid May also present as pneumonia
859
What are common lab values seen in small intestinal bacterial overgrowth syndrome?
Macrocytic anemia and B12 deficiency | Will also have +Lactulose breath test
860
Tx of Dermatitis Herpetiformis:
Dapsone + Gluten-free diet
861
When should IV glucocorticoids be used in spinal cord compression/cauda equina syndrome?
In the setting of malingnancy or trauma | They are NOT recommended in the setting of suspected infection/epidural abscess
862
How is incidence rate calculated? | *biostats*
It is the number of new cases of disease occurring in a specified population in a given period IR = (# of new cases of disease during a period) / (Total person times contributed by the at-risk population)
863
What is the difference in SCD between structural heart diseases and those w/conduction abnormalities?
Most commonly seen in young patients Those w/conduction abnormalities (Brugada, Congenital long QT) are more typically to suffer from non-exertional SCD Those w/structural abnormalities (HOCM, AAOCA) often experience exertional SCD
864
What is Lofgren syndrome?
Associated w/Sarcoidosis – get erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, migratory polyarthralgia and fever
865
What are the CNS/endocrine manifestations seen in Sarcoidosis?
Facial n. palsy Central DI Hypercalcemia Can also cause adrenal insufficiency
866
What is the gold-standard confirmatory test for Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
Serotonin release assay
867
What is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis not eradicated by azithromycin?
Mycoplasma genitalium – tx w/moxifloxacin
868
How to dx Microscopic colitis and differentiate the 2 types:
Dx w/colonoscopic bx – lymphocytic infiltration of lamina propria Collagenous type – thickened subepithelial collagen band Lymphocytic type – high levels of intraepithelial lymphocytes (>20 for every 100 epithelial cells)
869
What are the features and triggers of Microscopic colitis?
MC is a chronic, immune-mediated colitis. Features: watery, non-bloody diarrhea (secretory), fecal urgency & incontinence, nocturnal diarrhea (classic sign) Less common sxs: abdP (50%), fatigue and wt. loss. Triggers: smoking, Rxs – NSAIDs, PPIs, SSRIs, Ranitidine
870
How will CNS tms manifest based on their location?
Supratentorial: Increased ICP, weakness, sensory changes, and seizures - Astrocytoma, Glioblastoma, Craniopharyngioma ``` Posterior fossa (infratentorial): Increased ICP, cerebellar dysfxn – dysmetria, ataxia, clumsiness - Astrocytoma, Ependymoma, Medulloblastoma ``` Brainstem: ataxia, clumsiness, CN palsies Spinal cord: back pain, weakness, abnormal gait - Ependymoma (much less common than post. fossa)
871
What Rx is used to diagnose and manage narrow-QRS-complex tachycardia?
Adenosine. | It slows the sinus rate, increases AVN conduction delay or can cause transient AVN block.
872
How should developmental dysplasia of the hip be managed?
Needs referral to ortho for tx – most need hip in brace that flexes and abducts it for 3+mos, but needs close monitoring by ortho for cxs of this harness position Most infants who are tx’d early have no long term sequelae but need monitoring until skeletal maturity to monitor for recurrent dysplasia
873
Labyrinthitis v. vestibular neuritis:
Labyrinthitis is vestibular neuritis + hearing loss | Often post-viral
874
What is the most effective single treatment for allergic rhinitis and its cxs?
Intranasal glucocorticoids – often cause epistaxis, can be prevented by adding nasal saline rinses
875
How to differentiate croup v. pertussis:
Croup has short prodrome of rhinorrhea and fever followed by abrupt onset of stridor, hoarseness and harsh, barking cough Pertussis has longer prodrome (10-14d) of rhinorrhea, cough +/- fever followed by weeks of increasingly severe cough. Not likely to have stridor or abrupt onset of cough.
876
When should abx be considered in acute rhino-sinusitis?
If ARS does not improve w/in 7-10d of symptomatic tx or if it worsens acutely after initial improvement
877
How is ADHF d/t peripartum cardiomyopathy managed?
Basically the same as any other cause of ADHF First initiate loop diuretic to get prompt symptom relief Then need to decreased both preload and afterload Direct arterial dilator (Hydralazine) decreases afterload Long acting nitrate (isosorbide mononitrate) decreases preload These will lessen contractile demands of left ventricle **Once the acute decompensation is adequately treated a BB should be added, and digoxin can be used for conduction abnormalities or persistent sxs despite adequate diuresis and vasodilator tx**
878
What should be considered in an acutely delirious and lethargic patient with known psychiatric history?
Psychogenic polydipsia – check serum Na+ levels for possible hyponatremia causing the delirium, may also lead to seizures although this is uncommon
879
Which SLE medication is safe during pregnancy?
Hydroxychloroquine | MTX, leflunomide, cyclophosphamide and mycophenolate are all contraindicated
880
What antibodies increase the risk of developing neonatal lupus?
Anti-SSA (Ro) and anti-SSB (La) – these also increase risk of congenital heart block
881
What is the treatment of spontaneous pneumomediastinum?
Analgesics + supplemental oxygen | Common in young males w/hx of lung disease, respiratory infection or hx of inhalational drug use
882
What is the major risk factor for more rapid CKD progression?
Proteinuria – higher urine protein concentrations are a/w more rapid decline in renal function HTN, hyperglycemia and African American and Asian decent are also risk factors
883
What are common features of distal (Type I) renal tubular acidosis?
Impaired H+ excretion causes hyperchloremic, hypokalemic non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. Hypercalciuria from chronic acidosis and a urine pH >5.5 predispose to recurrent stones
884
What are the causes of painful genital ulcers?
HSV and H. ducreyi | lymphogranuloma venereum and syphilis are PAINLESS
885
What is the management of breast pain?
If it is cyclic, bilateral and diffuse, patients can be observed unless a mass is palpated, then get imaging If it is noncyclic, unilateral and focal w/o a mass – need imaging; if mass is present then biopsy and refer to breast surgeon
886
Mgmt of hypercalcemia of malignancy:
IVF to increase renal excretion + calcitonin for short-term reductions Long-term need to be treated w/bisphosphonates (zolendronic acid)
887
When does further workup need to be done for a patient w/hypospadias?
If the hypospadias is accompanied by cryptorchidism – do pelvic US to look for uterus and karyotype to identify sex chromosomes If accompanied by other organ system abnormalities (CHD, cleft lip) then need upper tract imaging w/renal US
888
What should be considered in an HIV+ pt. w/TB sxs but labs and imaging that do not support classic TB?
Miliary TB Will see multiple organs effected – pulmonary (cough, night sweats), liver (RUQ pain, vomiting, increased transaminases), CNS and adrenal glands can also be involved **More common in recently incarcerated individuals**
889
What preventive imaging should be done in patients w/Sickle Cell disease?
Trancranial Doppler US – assess risk of stroke Done from age 2-16 Those w/high TCD velocity need chronic transfusion therapy to prevent stroke
890
CVS complications independently a/w OSA:
Resistant HTN Coronary artery disease Cardiac arrhythmias (aFib, bradycardia, ventricular ectopy) HF
891
What do each of the ventilator settings achieve and what are cxs a/w them?
Tidal volumes and respiratory rate affect ventilation – will optimize the pH and PaCO2 FiO2 and PEEP affect oxygenation – will change the PaO2 and O2 sat FiO2 >60% can cause oxygen toxicity, tidal volumes >8mL/kg predicted weight can cause alveolar overdistention and barotrauma
892
When should an ARDS patient be given a spontaneous breathing trial in prep for extubation?
If they are able to maintain adequate ventilation (pH >7.25) and oxygenation (PaO2 55-80) w/minimal ventilator support (FiO2 40% or less, and PEEP 8 or less)
893
Long-term consequences of exercise-induced hypothalamic amenorrhea:
Decreased bone mineral density | Increased total cholesterol and TGs
894
Mgmt of Splenic sequestration in SCD patients:
First step is aggressive IVF resuscitation (NS or Ringers) After resuscitation can give pRBCs to return Hct to normal but should not be first step as RBCs will release back into circulation w/IVF and over-transfusing can cause HF Splenectomy can be done electively after recovery from the initial event
895
What is the tx of acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Lower intraocular P w/topical BBs (timolol), miotic agents (pilocarpine), and a2-agonsits (apraclonidine) + oral or IV acetazolamide and IV mannitol **Pts may present w/o increased intraocular P, but still need tx**
896
What is the preferred tx of Lyme carditis?
IV ceftriaxone is DoC (cefotaxime and Pen G are alternatives) until AV block resolves, then tx w/3-4 wk course of Doxy or amoxicillin
897
What should be used to control dyspnea experienced at the end of life?
Opiates – particularly morphine; this is part of comfort care when patients are DNR/DNI
898
What are the manifestations and tx of Acalculous cholecystitis?
Primarily occurs in critically ill patients Signs/Sxs: unexplained fever, jaundice, leukocytosis, RUQ pain, increased ALP, BR and transaminases See GB wall thickening w/o stones on CT or US Tx: percutaneous cholecystostomy (aka GB drainage) + abx; cholecystectomy if perforation or necrosis occurs
899
Meds used to prevent opioid induced constipation:
Senna + Docusate or Lactulose alone | Methylnaltrexone can be used to tx refractory OIC but is not a preventative
900
What lab values need to be monitored in polycythemia of the newborn?
Glucose and BR – can develop hypoglycemia and hyperbilirubinemia d/t increased RBC volume. May require tx w/IVF, glucose and partial exchange transfusion in symptomatic newborns, but most are asx and do not require tx
901
Cxs of sickle cell trait:
``` Hematuria/papillary necrosis Hyposthenuria Splenic infarction (esp. at higher altitudes) Venous TE Priapism Exertional rhabdomyolysis ```
902
Manifestations of Hypophosphatemia:
Typically occur once phosphate drops below 1 Generalized weakness, diminished reflexes, paresthesias, ileus, and/or metabolic encephalopathy IV Phosphate for symptomatic pts, oral for asx
903
What cxs can occur after intrauterine fetal demise?
Coagulopathy (DIC) after several weeks of fetal retention
904
What lobe is Wernicke’s area in?
Dominant temporal
905
When should phototherapy be initiated in neonatal jaundice?
If BR climbs >12; >25 needs exchange transfusion and intensive phototherapy BR <12 needs q8h serum total and indirect BR checks and can be monitored
906
What is the mgmt. of Irritable bowel syndrome?
``` Lactose free diet High fibre diet Loperamide Biofeedback Reassurance Relaxation exercise ```
907
2 main types of dysphagia, their features and initial mgmt.:
1. Oropharyngeal dysphagia – difficulty initiating a swallow, often a/w coughing, drooling or aspiration. May also have referred ear pain. Need Nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy assessment or barium esophagram 2. Esophageal dysphagia – delayed sensations of food sticking in the upper or lower chest. Need EGD assessment.
908
Most likely carcinoma based on location in esophagus:
Adeno – more likely in mid to distal, caused by Barrett’s | Squamous – more likely in upper esophagus, caused by tobacco and alcohol
909
What is the order of therapy in managing HF?
1: add ACEI or ARB if ACEIs are not tolerated 2: Diuretic therapy (furosemide) BB (once euvolemic, if EF is 40% or less) Spironolactone (if EF is 35% or less), plus continue above Defibrillators (for EF <30%), plus continue above 3: Isosorbide dinitrate + Hydralazine (if AfAm) Digoxin (if sxs w/spironolactone) Cardiac resynch is QRS >150 4: Transplant/VAD evaluation
910
When do you give Vanc in pediatric sepsis?
ONLY if the patient is >28d old and there is suspicion of meningeal involvement **Ceftriaxone should also not be given before 28d, can cause kernicterus**
911
Characteristics of Acute Interstitial Nephritis:
Maculopapular rash, fever, new Rx exposure, +/- arthralgias. Mostly caused by Rxs – Pens (Naficilin common), TMP-SMX, cephalosporins, NSAIDs, omeprazole Labs: AKI, pyuria, hematuria, WBC casts, +/- eosinophilia Renal bx: inflammatory infiltrates and edema
912
Infectious causes of Acute Interstitial Nephritis:
Legionella, TB, Streptococcus | These are uncommon causes. Rxs are most common cause of AIN.
913
What is the timeline of different monozygotic twins?
0-4 days: dichorionic, diamniotic (25%) 4-8 days: monochorionic, diamniotic (most common – 75%) 8-12 days: monochorionic, monoamniotic (rare) >13 days: conjoined monochorionic, monoamniotic (rare) **All types will have 2 cords**