V2

Question 1

Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

a. Deliberate planning.
b. Crisis action planning.
c. Mobilization planning.
d. Force rotational planning.

Answer 1

a. Deliberate planning.

Question 2

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

a. Volume 1.
b. Volume 2.
c. Volume 3.
d. Volume 4.

Answer 2

a. Volume 1.

Question 3

Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
b. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
c. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
d. Joint Staff.

Answer 3

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

Question 4

Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?

a. Standard unit type code (UTC).
b. Joint force/capability.
c. In-lieu-of (ILO).
d. Ad hoc.

Answer 4

b. Joint force/capability.

Question 5

Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

a. Training.
b. Personnel.
c. Facility condition.
d. Equipment condition.

Answer 5

c. Facility condition.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

a. Training.
b. Personnel.
c. Home station mission.
d. Equipment condition.

Answer 6

c. Home station mission.

Question 7

The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI

a. 10–201.
b. 10–244.
c. 10–401.
d. 10–403.

Answer 7

b. 10–244.

Question 8

Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

a. AFI 10–201.
b. AFI 10–244.
c. AFI 10–401.
d. AFI 10–403.

Answer 8

a. AFI 10–201.

Question 9

Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

a. Pilot Units.
b. Joint Planners.
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron.
d. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.

Answer 9

a. Pilot Units.

Question 10

Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

a. Force protection.
b. Airfield operations.
c. Force accountability.
d. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

Answer 10

d. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

Question 11

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

a. force protection and logistics.
b. intelligence and force protection.
c. secure communications and intelligence.
d. secure communications and force accountability.

Answer 11

c. secure communications and intelligence.

Question 12

Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

a. Robust the airbase.
b. Operate the airbase.
c. Establish the airbase.
d. Generate the mission.

Answer 12

c. Establish the airbase.

Question 13

Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

a. 2 days, 7 days.
b. 2 days, 14 days.
c. 7 days, 14 days.
d. 14 days, 30 days.

Answer 13

b. 2 days, 14 days.

Question 14

Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

a. Generate the mission.
b. Establish the airbase.
c. Operate the airbase.
d. Robust the airbase.

Answer 14

d. Robust the airbase.

Question 15

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

a. Scott AFB, IL.
b. Travis AFB, CA.
c. Peterson AFB, CO.
d. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

Answer 15

d. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

Question 16

What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

a. O–4.
b. O–5.
c. O–6.
d. O–7.

Answer 16

c. O–6.

Question 17

Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

a. Command and control.
b. Operate the airbase.
c. Robust the airbase.
d. Open the airbase.

Answer 17

a. Command and control.

Question 18

In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

a. 2 kilometers (km).
b. 4 km.
c. 8 km.
d. 16 km.

Answer 18

d. 16 km.

Question 19

Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

a. Strategy.
b. Combat plans.
c. Combat support.
d. Combat operations.

Answer 19

c. Combat support.

Question 20

Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

a. MQ–9 Reaper.
b. RQ–11B Raven.
c. MQ–1B Predator.
d. RQ–4B Global Hawk.

Answer 20

b. RQ–11B Raven.

Question 21

Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
b. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
c. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
d. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

Answer 21

a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

Question 22

Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

a. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
b. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
c. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

Answer 22

d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

Question 23

All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

a. 1942.
b. 1954.
c. 1988.
d. 1998.

Answer 23

d. 1998.

Question 24

What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

a. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
b. MPTO 00–33A–1002.
c. MPTO 00–33A–2001.
d. MPTO 00–33A–2002.

Answer 24

a. MPTO 00–33A–1001.

Question 25

The five phases of Project Management are initiate, a. funding, execute, close, and control. b. plan, execute, monitor, and control. c. plan, execute, close, and control. d. plan, control, close, and support.

Answer 25

c. plan, execute, close, and control.

Question 26

What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase? a. Funding. b. Technical solution. c. Requirements management plan. d. Answers, guidance, and education.

Answer 26

d. Answers, guidance, and education.

Question 27

What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called? a. Processes. b. Priorities. c. Requirements. d. Technical solutions.

Answer 27

c. Requirements.

Question 28

Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan? a. Cost management plan. b. Allied support plan. c. Technical plan. d. Material plan.

Answer 28

a. Cost management plan.

Question 29

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a. the status. b. a milestone. c. a deliverable. d. the final result.

Answer 29

c. a deliverable.

Question 30

Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications? a. Status request. b. Defect repairs. c. Preventive action. d. Corrective action.

Answer 30

b. Defect repairs.

Question 31

What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system? a. AFTO Form 745. b. AFTO Form 747. c. AFTO Form 749. d. AF Form 1747.

Answer 31

b. AFTO Form 747.

Question 32

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed a. major. b. minor. c. major and minor. d. major and critical.

Answer 32

a. major.

Question 33

What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase? a. Follow-up. b. Controlling. c. Organization. d. Documenting.

Answer 33

a. Follow-up.

Question 34

Changes are requested during a project using an a. AF Form 1146. b. AF Form 1747. c. AFTO Form 46. d. AFTO Form 47.

Answer 34

a. AF Form 1146.

Question 35

Who implements a technical solution for a base? a. Project monitor. b. Project manager. c. Communication squadron. d. Implementing organization.

Answer 35

d. Implementing organization.

Question 36

What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties? a. Project monitor. b. Project manager. c. Program action officer. d. Program action monitor.

Answer 36

c. Program action officer.

Question 37

The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy, a. service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement. b. service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. c. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. d. service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

Answer 37

c. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

Question 38

In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle? a. Service improvement. b. Service transition. c. Service strategy. d. Service design.

Answer 38

c. Service strategy.

Question 39

In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment? a. Service design. b. Service strategy. c. Service transition. d. Service operation.

Answer 39

c. Service transition.

Question 40

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

Answer 40

b. 2.

Question 41

Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)? a. AFI 33–115. b. AFI 33–150. c. TO 00–33D–3001. d. TO 00–33D–3004.

Answer 41

b. AFI 33–150.

Question 42

Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order? a. Work orders. b. Trouble tickets. c. Infrastructure requirements. d. Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).

Answer 42

a. Work orders.

Question 43

Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources? a. Organic. b. Contract. c. Inorganic. d. Self-Help.

Answer 43

d. Self-Help.

Question 44

Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program? a. TO 00–33A–1001. b. TO 00–33D–3003. c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). d. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

Answer 44

b. TO 00–33D–3003.

Question 45

As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions? a. Base Communications Systems Officer. b. Affected Work Center. c. Base Civil Engineer. d. Project Managers.

Answer 45

c. Base Civil Engineer.

Question 46

Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special? a. Requires services from outside agencies. b. Mobility (deployment) equipment. c. Requires additional manpower. d. Requires additional funding.

Answer 46

d. Requires additional funding.

Question 47

In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements? a. Concept Plan. b. Functional Plan. c. Supporting Plan. d. Operational Plan.

Answer 47

a. Concept Plan.

Question 48

When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans? a. Concept Plan. b. Functional Plan. c. Supporting Plan. d. Operational Plan.

Answer 48

c. Supporting Plan.

Question 49

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the a. Programming Plan (PPLAN). b. Program Action Directive (PAD). c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. d. Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).

Answer 49

c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

Question 50

What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime? a. Special Measures. b. Administration. c. Assumptions. d. Logistics.

Answer 50

d. Logistics.

Question 51

Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? a. Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum. b. Facilities Utilization Board. c. Mission Briefings. d. Informal Meeting.

Answer 51

b. Facilities Utilization Board.

Question 52

The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for a. safety modifications. b. T–1 temporary modifications. c. T–2 temporary modifications. d. all temporary and permanent modifications.

Answer 52

d. all temporary and permanent modifications.

Question 53

Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities? a. Safety modifications. b. T–1 temporary modification. c. T–2 temporary modification. d. All temporary and permanent modifications.

Answer 53

c. T–2 temporary modification.

Question 54

Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process? a. Request for action and organization validation. b. Using command and lead command validation. c. Work center manager certification and approval. d. Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.

Answer 54

c. Work center manager certification and approval.

Question 55

Support agreements are documented on a. AF Form 1067. b. DD Form 1067. c. AF Form 1144. d. DD Form 1144.

Answer 55

d. DD Form 1144.

Question 56

As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? a. 6 months. b. 1 year. c. 2 years. d. 3 years.

Answer 56

d. 3 years.

Question 57

Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act? a. Unusual or compelling urgency. b. Unit commander’s interest. c. National security interests. d. Sole Source.

Answer 57

b. Unit commander’s interest.

Question 58

Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? a. 10 calendar days. b. 30 calendar days. c. 35 calendar days. d. 50 calendar days.

Answer 58

c. 35 calendar days.

Question 59

Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

Answer 59

c. Time and Material.

Question 60

Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

Answer 60

c. Time and Material.

Question 61

Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

Answer 61

a. Sole Source.

Question 62

Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply? a. Sole Source. b. Time and Material. c. Indefinite Delivery. d. Blanket Purchase Agreement.

Answer 62

d. Blanket Purchase Agreement.

Question 63

Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract Quality Assurance Program? a. Contracting Officer Representative. b. Functional Director/Commander. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Contracting Office.

Answer 63

d. Contracting Office.

Question 64

Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)? a. Contracting Officer Representative. b. Functional Director/Commander. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Contracting Office.

Answer 64

b. Functional Director/Commander.

Question 65

Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders? a. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator. b. Contracting Officer Representative. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Unit Contract Monitor.

Answer 65

a. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.

Question 66

Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support? a. Facility Manager. b. Quality Assurance Evaluator. c. Functional Director/Commander. d. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

Answer 66

d. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

Question 67

What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required? a. AF Form 332. b. AF Form 1146. c. DD Form 1144. d. DD Form 1391.

Answer 67

d. DD Form 1391.

Question 68

Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects? a. Major Construction. b. Minor Construction. c. All military construction. d. None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.

Answer 68

c. All military construction.

Question 69

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is a. $750 thousand (K). b. $1 million (M). c. $1.5 M. d. $5 M.

Answer 69

c. $1.5 M.

Question 70

Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards? a. Base Civil Engineering. b. Gaining Work Center. c. Contracting Office. d. Quality Assurance.

Answer 70

a. Base Civil Engineering.