Vaccination

Question 1

The single most common cause of vaccination failure in kittens is thought to be:

a) natural exposure to infectious agents
b) failure to recieve maternal antibody
c) stopping the vaccination course too early
d) failure to recieve at least 3 kitten vaccinations

Answer 1

c) stopping the vaccination course too early

Question 2

The second component of the registered dual vaccine against Leptospira interrogans var. copenhagani in Australia (Protech C2i) is:

a) Leptospira interrogans var. icterohaemorrhagiae
b) Canine Influenza Virus
c) Leptospira interrogans var. Australis
d) Canine Coronavirus

Answer 2

d) Canine Coronavirus

Question 3

Where a sustained risk of infection exists following the initial kitten series, Feline Leukaemia Virus should be boosted:

a) prior to entering high risk situations (cattery / cat show)
b) not more often than every 2-3 years
c) at least triennialy, depending on percieved risk
d) annually

Answer 3

b) not more often than every 2-3 years

Question 4

In dogs, passive immunity from maternally derived antibodies will generally have waned by:

a) 4 to 6 weeks
b) 6 to 8 weeks
c) 8 to 12 weeks
d) 12 to 16 weeks

Answer 4

c) 8 to 12 weeks

Question 5

Which type of vaccine is recommended to be safe to administer to pregnant dogs:

a) modified live core vaccine
b) recombinant core vaccine
c) killed virus vaccine
d) none of these types of vaccine

Answer 5

d) none of these types of vaccine

*safety evaluations of killed vaccine have not been performed, though they would probably be safe

Question 6

The 2015 WSAVA Vaccinations Guidelines Group recommended protocol for vaccination of puppies against parvovirus is to administer at:

a) 6 to 8 weeks, then every 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks of age or older
b) 8 to 9 weeks, then 3 to 4 weeks later
c) 6 to 8 weeks, 10 to 12 weeks and 14 to 16 weeks
d) 10 to 12 weeks, then every 3 to 4 weeks until 16 weeks of age

Answer 6

a) 6 to 8 weeks, then every 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks of age or older

Question 7

The rationale for repeated doses of vaccine in the puppy series is that:

a) the first vaccination stimulates a primary immune response, subsequent vaccinations are boosters
b) only the final vaccination induces a reliable primary immune response - the initial vaccinations prime the system
c) maternal derived antibody may prevent primary active immunisation and persists for a variable time
d) the currently available vaccines are not very effective at inducing immunity in dogs with a single dose

Answer 7

c) maternal derived antibody may prevent primary active immunisation and persists for a variable time

Question 8

The WSAVA’s recommended schedule for core vaccination in kittens is:

a) 6 to 8 weeks, 10 to 12 weeks and 14 to 16 weeks
b) any time from 6 weeks, with the final vaccination dose at 14 to 16 weeks
c) 6 to 8 weeks, then every 2 to 4 weeks until 16 weeks of age or older
d) 8 to 9 weeks, 12 to 14 weeks and 16 to 18 weeks

Answer 8

c) 6 to 8 weeks, then every 2 to 4 weeks until 16 weeks of age or older

Question 9

The 2015 WSAVA guidelines for puppies and kittens differ from previous recommendations in the timing of the first booster of the intial puppy series. Rather than waiting till 12 months, they recommend that a booster as early as 6 months may be prudent. Why?

a) a series of 3 initial vaccinations is now known to be unreliably protective so a fourth is recommended
b) owners are more likely to bring the puppy or kitten back for a 6m desexing if it requires vaccination then as well
c) should the 16 week+ vaccination fail to provide immunity to the puppy, it would be unprotected until 1 year of age
d) duration of immunity after the intial kitten or puppy series may not stretch to 12m without boosting

Answer 9

c) should the 16 week+ vaccination fail to provide immunity to the puppy, it would be unprotected until 1 year of age

Question 10

Which of the following is TRUE regarding subsequent vaccination of a cat found to be infected with FIV?

a) the cat should be vaccinated more frequently, with modified live viruses, as the immune system will be less responsive
b) the cat should be immunised against FIV to minimise spreading and spread to other cats
c) in case the cat has become immunosuppressed, use of killed core vaccines is recommended
d) in case the cat has become immunosuppresed, it should never be vaccinated again

Answer 10

c) in case the cat has become immunosuppressed, use of killed core vaccines is recommended

Question 11

According to WSAVA guidelines a ‘not recommended’ vaccine is one which:

a) has unknown efficacy
b) has a low protective value
c) has potential side effects
d) has little scientific justification for its use

Answer 11

d) has little scientific justification for its use

Question 12

With respect to the primary purpose of annual health checks and the role of vaccination in them:

a) annual health checks are an essential revenue source for vets since animals are no longer being vaccinated annually
b) vaccination is only one component of a preventative health care plan and each pet’s need for non-core vaccines must be individually assessed
c) vaccination remains the primary purpose of an annual health check
d) annual revaccination with core vaccines remains the optimum standard of care for most dogs and cats

Answer 12

b) vaccination is only one component of a preventative health care plan and each pet’s need for non-core vaccines must be individually assessed

Question 13

Which of the following would be the strongest indication for an adult Australian cat to be vaccinated against FeLV?

a) Prolonged intimate contact with a known FeLV positive cat
b) visiting a boarding cattery where cats are not tested or vaccinated against FeLV
c) outdoor access
d) temporarily housing a stray cat of unknown vaccination status in the same household as a cat not vaccinated against FeLV

Answer 13

a) Prolonged intimate contact with a known FeLV positive cat

Question 14

Some vaccination manufacturers have produced an ‘F4’ vaccination containing FPV, FCV, FHV-1 and Chlamydophila felis. The component(s) of this vaccinae which is non-core are:

a) Chlamydophila felis
b) the three respiratory components: FCV, FHV-1 and Chlamydophila felis
c) Feline Calicivirus
d) Feline Herpesviirus

Answer 14

a) Chlamydophila felis

Question 15

Infectious (modified live) vaccine administered by the intranasal route:

a) may be given as early as 3-4 weeks of age because of induction of a mucosal immune response
b) is contraindicated; only killed vaccines may be given by other than parenteral routes
c) should only be given after 6 weeks of age because of interference from maternally derived antibody
d) should not be administered before 4 weeks of age because of the risk of reversion to virulence

Answer 15

a) may be given as early as 3-4 weeks of age because of induction of a mucosal immune response

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a probably cause of vaccine failure?

a) neutralisation of the vaccine virus by maternally derived antibody prior to 14 weeks of age
b) poor immunogenicity of the vaccine due to incorrect storage or handling
c) too long an interval between adult dog vaccinations
d) the dog is phenotypically a non-responder

Answer 16

c) too long an interval between adult dog vaccinations

Question 17

At least two intial doses of an inactivated/killed vaccine are required:

a) for all dogs, regardless of age, because the first dose merely primes the immune system and the second dose provides the protective immune response
b) for puppies only, because of their immature immune systems and the relatively poor antigenicity of the vaccine
c) for adult dogs only because the first dose merely primes the immune system and the second dose provides the protective immune response
d) for puppies only because of the potential for antigen masking by maternally derived antibodies

Answer 17

a) for all dogs, regardless of age, because the first dose merely primes the immune system and the second dose provides the protective immune response

Question 18

The type of feline vaccine MOST likely to provide immunity for 3 years or longer is:

a) any of the modified live virus core vaccines
b) a killed virus core vaccine
c) modified live virus vaccine against Feline Panleukopaenia but not the MLV respiratory vaccines
d) an intranasal respiratory virus vaccine

Answer 18

c) modified live virus vaccine against Feline Panleukopaenia but not the MLV respiratory vaccines

Question 19

“Experts” vary slightly in their recommendation for the timing of the first puppy vaccination. The major difficulty when deciding whether to vaccinate a puppy initially at 6, 7, 8 or 9 weeks is:

a) the experts keep changing their minds as there is very little real evidence
b) the various guidelines completely contradict each other
c) it is impossible to determine when a given puppies maternal antibodies will have waned
d) you can never predict when and owner will bring a puppy in for its first vaccination

Answer 19

c) it is impossible to determine when a given puppies maternal antibodies will have waned

Question 20

The current WSAVA recommendation is that the final kitten vaccination be given at:

a) 10-12 weeks
b) 12-14 weeks
c) 14-16 weeks
d) 16 weeks of age or older

Answer 20

d) 16 weeks of age or older

Question 21

The best way to prevent retrovirus infection in breeding catteries is:

a) vaccination of retrovirus negative cats
b) a program of testing and quarantine
c) good hygeine, together with testing any cats that become sick
d) routine vaccination of all kittens

Question 22

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a vaccine adverse event?

A) Transient, post-vaccinal, non-specific illness occurring 48 hours after vaccination

B) Difficulty administering an intranasal vaccine to a head shy dog

C) Reaction caused by misuse or mishandling by the veterinarian, e.g. administration of intranasal bacterin parenterally

D) Failure to immunise due to interference from maternally derived antibody

Answer 22

B) Difficulty administering an intranasal vaccine to a head shy dog

Question 23

For which of the following vaccines is a single dose NOT considered protective in adult dogs?

A) Parenteral Parainfluenza Virus

B) Parenteral Distemper Virus

C) Parenteral Bordetella bronchiseptica

D) Intranasal Bordetella bronchiseptica

Answer 23

C) Parenteral Bordetella bronchiseptica

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a core vaccine for dogs in Australia?

A) Canine Adenovirus-2

B) Canine Parvovirus-2

C) Canine Influenza Virus

D) Canine Distemper Virus

Answer 24

C) Canine Influenza Virus

Question 25

Viral infections trigger A) humoral immune responses only, hence serological testing correlates well with immunity to core viral diseases. B) both humoral and cell mediated immune responses, hence serological testing correlates poorly with immunity to core viral vaccines. C) mainly cell mediated immune responses, hence serological testing correlates poorly with immunity to core viral vaccines. D) both humoral and cell mediated immune responses, but it is mainly the antibody response that contributes to reduction in viral load and recovery.

Answer 25

D) both humoral and cell mediated immune responses, but it is mainly the antibody response that contributes to reduction in viral load and recovery.

Question 26

Each of the following is considered a non-core vaccine for dogs in Australia EXCEPT A) Bordetella bronchiseptica B) Canine Coronavirus C) Canine Parainfluenza Virus D) Leptospira interrogans serovar Copenhagani

Answer 26

B) Canine Coronavirus (is a core vaccine)

Question 27

Vaccination of cats against Chlamydophila felis is most appropriately utilised A) only in seronegative cats. B) in multi-cat households with sustained contact between cats. C) routinely in conjunction with FPV, FCV and FHV as an "F4". D) as part of a control regime for at-risk cats in environments where infections with clinical disease have been confirmed.

Answer 27

D) as part of a control regime for at-risk cats in environments where infections with clinical disease have been confirmed.

Question 28

A single dose of infectious (modified live or recombinant) vaccine A) will neutralise maternally derived antibody, but a second dose is then required to provide sustained immunity. B) will only prime the immune system; a second dose is required to provide sustained immunity. C) will prime, immunise and boost the immune response, provided there is no maternal antibody interference. D) will induce sustained immunity in animals of any age.

Answer 28

C) will prime, immunise and boost the immune response, provided there is no maternal antibody interference.

Question 29

Which of the following canine vaccines is not available in Australia? A) Canine Influenza Virus B) Canine Coronavirus C) Rabies Virus D) Intranasal Parainfluenza Virus

Answer 29

A) Canine Influenza Virus

Question 30

Intranasal vaccines against "kennel cough" agents have which proven advantage over parenterally administered vaccines? A) Complete protection, whereas parenteral vaccines provide only partial protection B) One dose is considered sufficient, whereas parenteral vaccines require two C) More rapid development of protection D) Intranasal vaccines induce more IgA than IgG and hence provide longer protection

Answer 30

C) More rapid development of protection

Question 31

For which of the following vaccines is a single dose considered protective in adult cats? a) Feline Leukaemia Virus b) Feline Calicivirus c) Feline Panleukopenia Virus d) Feline Herpesvirus

Answer 31

c) Feline Panleukopenia Virus

Question 32

The most common side effect expected with use of modified live virus vaccines against Feline Herpesvirus-1 and Feline Calicivirus is A) injection site reactions and anaphylaxis. B) injection site sarcoma. C) abortion in pregnant queens. D) mild upper respiratory disease signs.

Answer 32

D) mild upper respiratory disease signs.

Question 33

To reduce the risk of an adverse reaction to a vaccine, which of the following is NOT appropriate? A) Serological testing to determine the need for revaccination, in the case of core canine vaccines B) Consideration of the indications and relevant risk before administering a non-core vaccine. C) Avoid administering multiple vaccines at the same appointment, especially to small breed dogs. D) Reducing the volume of an individual dose of vaccine, particularly for cats and small breed dogs.

Answer 33

C) Avoid administering multiple vaccines at the same appointment, especially to small breed dogs.

Question 34

A documented side effect of intranasal Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccines is A) development of head-shyness B) nasal carcinoma C) occasional transient upper respiratory signs D) transient increased shedding of vaccine virus

Answer 34

C) occasional transient upper respiratory signs

Question 35

Some vaccine manufacturers have produced an "F4" vaccine containing FPV, FCV, FHV-1 and Chlamydophila felis. The component of this vaccine combination which is most likely to produce adverse reactions such as lethargy and pyrexia is A) Chlamydophila felis B) Feline Panleukopenia Virus C) Feline Herpesvirus D) Feline Calicivirus

Answer 35

A) Chlamydophila felis

Question 36

The recommended regime for vaccinating kittens against Feline Leukaemia Virus is A) Two doses; the first from 8 weeks of age with the second 3 to 4 weeks later. B) Two doses; at 10 to 12 weeks and at 14 to 16 weeks. C) A single dose is sufficient and may be given any time from 8 weeks. D) Three doses; 8 to 9 weeks, then 3 to 4 weeks later and a final dose at 14 to 16 weeks.

Answer 36

A) Two doses; the first from 8 weeks of age with the second 3 to 4 weeks later.