Vaccines and Vaccine Development Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

Define Immunisation

  • different forms
A

an artificial process by which an individual is rendered immuneTerm includes:

– Passive immunisation – no immune response in the recipient

– Active immunisation (vaccination) – recipient develops a protective adaptive immune response

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2
Q

What is Passive Immunisation?

A
  • Immunity conferred without an active host response on behalf of recipient
  • Passive vaccines are preparations of antibodies taken from hyper-immune donors, either human or animal
  • protection is temporary
  • can be used to make anti-toxins
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3
Q

What is the disadvantage of using Horse serum to make diptheria anti-toxins?

A
  • The proteins on horse antibodies induce anti-antibodies
    • Following this between a week and 10 days after inoculation the antibodies will form complexes with the horse immunoglobulin and inactivate it
    • The complexes can be deposited and cause secondary immune complex disease
  • Horse antitoxin is more rabidly eliminated than human antitoxin - half-life of human IgG is ~20days vs 5days horse
  • Repeat administration of horse anti-serum can cause severe anaphylactic shock
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4
Q

What are clinical symptoms of Immune Complex disease?

A

chills, fever, rash, urticaria, arthritis, and glomerulonephritis.

these usually present them selves 7-10 days after coming into contact with the offensive antigen

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5
Q

Give examples of Passive Immunisation in vaccines

  • effect
A
  • Immunoglobulin replacement in antibody deficiency
    • taken from donors
  • VZV prophylaxis eg during exposure during pregnancy
  • Anti-toxin therapies eg snake anti-serum
    • Diphteria anti-toxin using anti-toxins form horses infected with it
  • protection is temporary
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6
Q

How would the following presentation of Vassilis zoster zirus (VZV) in pregnancy be managed

  • Definite history of previous chickenpox
  • No history of chickenpox or unsure
  • No history of chickenpox, or unsure
A
  • Definite history of previous chickenpox
    • not indicated in the blood after VZV serology
      • reassure patients
  • No history of chickenpox or unsure
    • VZV IgG positive
      • reassure patient
  • No history of chickenpox, or unsure
    • VZV IgG negative or equivocal
      • administer VZV immunoglobulin to protect against primary infection
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7
Q

What is Active Immunization (vaccination)

A
  • Immunity conferred in recipient following the generation of an adaptive immune response
  • General principle is to stimulate an adaptive immune response without causing clinically apparent infection
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8
Q

What are important requirements for vaccines?

A
  • safe to use and not cause the disease they aim to prevent
  • must have minimal side effects
  • must be long lasting
  • easy to store and transport
  • as cheap as possible
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9
Q

What are general principles of vaccines?

A
  • adminstered to target cohorts in advance of exposure to pathogen
  • enough people need to be vaccinated to reach heard immunity
  • vaccines are given to healthy people so risk to benefit ratio requires vaccines to have high safety standards
  • most vaccines work by generating a long-lasting, high-affinity IgG antibody response
    • strong CD4 T cell response is important for this
  • ‘problem’ diseases are generally those where the immune system cannot eliminate infection or generate long-lasting protective immunity during natural infection
    • MTB, HIV,malaria
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10
Q

What goes into vaccines?

(3)

A
  • Antigen: To stimulate an antigen-specific T and B cell response
  • Adjuvants: Immune potentiators to increase the immunogenicity of the vaccine
    • most act on toll-like receptors
  • ‘Excipients’: Various diluents and additives required for vaccine integrity
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11
Q

How are active vaccines classified in terms of the antigen?

A
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12
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines?

  • how are they formed?
A
  • Live but attenuated organisms used
    • attenuated –> reduced
  • Achieved by prolonged culture ex vivo in non-physiological conditions
  • This selects variants that are adapted to live in a culture
  • These variants are viable in vivo but are no longer able to cause disease in humans
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13
Q

Give examples of Live-attenuated vaccines

(4/7)

A
  • Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
  • Polio (Sabin)
  • BCG
  • Cholera
  • Zoster
  • VZV (not routinely used for primary prevention in UK at present)
  • Live influenza (not main product in UK at present)
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14
Q

What are the Pros of live attenuated vaccines?

A
  • Replication within-host, therefore produces highly effective and durable responses
  • In the case of viral vaccine, intracellular infection leads to a good CD8 response
  • Repeated boosting not required
  • In some diseases, may get secondary protection of unvaccinated individuals, who are infected with the live-attenuated vaccine strain eg polio
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15
Q

What are the Cons of live vaccines?

A
  • Storage problems, short shelf-life
    • needs a cold chain
  • May revert to wild type
    • Eg vaccine-associated poliomyelitis: around 1 in 750 000 recipients
  • Immunocompromised recipients may develop clinical disease
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16
Q

Give an overview of the Varicella-Zoster Virus

A
  • Primary infection = chickenpox
  • Cellular and humoral immunity provide lifelong protection, but viruses establish permanent infection of sensory ganglia –>
    • Viral reactivation=zoster
  • Particularly elderly, fairly debilitating and may cause long-term neuropathic pain
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17
Q

Give an overview of the Varicella-Zoster Vaccine

  • how does it work
  • efficacy in the UK
A
  • Live-attenuated VZV, works by induction of anti-VZV antibodies
  • 95% effective at preventing chickenpox
  • Attenuated virus does establish the infection of sensory ganglia, but subsequent zoster is probably rare
  • 3-5% mild post-vaccination varicella infection
  • Not on UK schedule at present, because:
    • VZV is a fairly benign childhood infection
    • ?Schedule is already crowded and controversial
    • Safety concerns based on evidence from other countries
      • ‘Disease shift’ to unvaccinated adults, in whom VZV is less well tolerated
      • Increase in zoster – probably reduced immune-boosting in adults
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18
Q

Give an overview of Zoster infection and age

A
  • The incidence of zoster increases with age, in parallel with declining cell-mediated immune responses to zoster
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19
Q

Explain the Zoster vaccination

  • type of vaccine
  • effect and use
A
  • Similar VZV preparation to that used for primary disease, but much higher dose
  • Aims to boost memory T cell responses to VZV
  • In over 60s, 50% reduction in zoster incidence after vaccination compared to controls; reduced severity and complications amongst vaccinated cases
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20
Q

What is Poliomyelitis

A
  • Enterovirus establishes infection in oropharynx and GI tract (alimentary phase)
  • Spreads to peyers patches then disseminated via lymphatics
  • Haematogenous spread (viremia phase)
  • 1% of patients develop neurological phase: replication in motor neurones in spinal cord, brainstem and motor cortex, leading to denervation and flaccid paralysis
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21
Q

What are the two Polio vaccines?

  • what type of vaccines are they
  • efficacy?
A
  • Sabin oral polio vaccine (OPV) = live-attenuated
    • Viable virus can be recovered from stool after immunisation
    • Highly effective, and also establishes some protection in the non-immunised population
    • 1 in 750 000 vaccine-associated paralytic polio
    • better suited to endemic areas where benefits of higher efficacy outweigh risk of vaccine-associated paralysis
  • Salk injected polio vaccine (IPV) = inactivated
    • Effective, but herd immunity inferior
    • better suited in lower prevalence areas (UK switched in 2004)
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22
Q

Explain the Tuberculosis infection

A
  • During primary infection, MTB establishes infection within phagolysosomes of macrophages.
  • Macrophages present TB antigen to MTB-specific CD4 T cells, which secrete IFN-g
    • this activates macrophages to encase TB in the granuloma.
  • It may be visible as a calcified lesion on plain CXR (Ghon focus)
  • Most TB thought to be re-activation of this primary infection
23
Q

What is the TB vaccination?

  • type of vaccine
  • administration
  • efficacy
A
  • Only licensed product is BCG (bacille Calmette-Guerin)
  • Produced by repeat passage of a non-tuberculous mycobacterium: Mycobacterium Bovis
    • gives an attenuated vaccine
  • Aims to increase Th1 (IFN-g) cell responses to M bovis, thereby conferring protection against MTB
  • Given by intradermal injection –> scar
  • 80% effective in preventing disseminated TB/ TB meningitis in children; little or no effect on pulmonary TB in adults
24
Q

What are Killed (Inactivated) vaccines?

  • how are they formed
  • action, overall efficacy
A
  • Entire organism used, but physical or chemical methods used to destroy viability (eg formaldehyde)
    • also preserves the immunogenicity of the organism
  • Stimulates B cells, and taken up by antigen-presenting cells to stimulate antigen-specific CD4 T cells
  • Probably elicit minimal CD8 response, as the vaccine cannot undergo intracellular replication
  • Responses less robust compared to live-attenuated vaccines
25
What are examples of Killed vaccines?
* Hepatitis A * Influenza (standard vaccine – live-attenuated also available but not routinely used) * Pertussis * typhoid
26
What are Pros of Killed vaccines?
* No potential for reversion * Safe for immunocompromised * Stable in storage (formaldehyde)
27
What are Cons of Killed vaccines?
* Weaker responses compared to live vaccines, and no CD8 response, therefore * Responses less durable than live vaccines * Generally, boosters required * Higher uptake generally required to achieve herd immunity
28
Give an overview of the Influenza virus
* Seasonal viral illness * Protective antibody responses largely directed against **haemagglutinin (H) and neuramidase (N) surface antigens** * Natural antigenic ‘drift’ each year means that protective immune response from previous years may not be protective * Major antigenic ‘shift’ when virus recombines with animal influenza strain – eg ‘Spanish’ Influenza (1918), H1N1 (2009)
29
What is the approach to producing Influenza vaccines?
* As immune responses are not durable, CDC attempts to predict likely dominant viruses for next season * Candidate viruses grown in hens eggs and distributed to manufacturers * Killed vaccine is standard UK approach * Live vaccine also available (nasal spray) * Success varies from year to year
30
What are Subunit vaccines? - different types (3)
* Uses only a critical part of the organism * Components may be: * purified from the organism or * generated by recombinant techniques * Protection depends on eliciting CD4 and antibody responses - Toxoids, Polysaccharide capsules, Recombinant protein subunit vaccines
31
What are Toxoid Subunit vaccines? - examples - how do they work
* Many examples relate to toxin-producing bacteria * Corynebacterium diphtheria * Clostridium tetani * Bordatella pertussis (whopping cough) * Toxins are taken and chemically detoxified to ‘toxoids’ * Retain immunogenicity * Work by stimulating antibody response; antibodies then neutralise the toxin
32
What is the vaccine used for tetanus?
* Subunit toxoid vaccine * you can still get infected with tetanus but the effect neuromuscular effect isn't there * Pre-formed high-affinity IgG antibodies can neutralise the toxin molecules in the circulation; * the immune complexes are then removed via the spleen * Anti-toxin can also be given in established cases (passive immunisation)
33
What are Polysaccharide capsules Subunit vaccines? - which two infections is this used in?
* Thick polysaccharide coats of ***Streptococcus pneumoniae*** and ***Neisseria meningitidis*** make them resistant to phagocytosis * Vaccines for these organisms formed of purified polysaccharide coats * Vaccines formed of purified polysaccharide coats; aim to _induce IgG antibodies that improve opsonisation_ * Suboptimal as polysaccharides are weakly immunogenic: * No protein/ peptide, so no T cell response * they can stimulate a small population of T-independent B cells * Latest vaccines utilise _vaccine conjugation_ to boost responses: protein carrier attached to polysaccharide antigen
34
Explain Vaccine Conjugation
* Naive B cell expressing surface IgM recognises polysaccharide antigen. * Antigen is internalised together with the protein conjugate * Conjugate is processed in the class II pathway. * Naive B cell presents peptides from the conjugate to a helper T cell with the correct receptor. * T cell helps the B cell to perform affinity maturation, but antibody is specific for the polysaccharide and not for the protein conjugate
35
What is Recombinant protein Subunit vaccines? - vaccines produced?
* The key immunogenic protein is required * the protein is then expressed in lower organisms * then purified to produce the vaccine * Hep B surface antigen * HPV vaccine
36
Explain the development Human Papillomavirus Vaccination - what does the vaccine protect against?
* HPV subtypes 16 and 18 infection major causal factor in cervical carcinoma * vaccine protects against this * Vaccine development problematic as HPV is difficult to culture so they used * Subunit vaccines are **‘empty virus particles**’ that prevent primary infection * _viral particles which only have the capsid protein_ * Quadrivalent vaccine covers additional HPV strains (genital warts, penile cancer)
37
What are the Pros of Subunit vaccines?
* Extremely safe as only parts of the organism is present * Work well where primary infection may be prevented by an antibody response * Works when the virus cannot easily be cultured eg HPV and Hep B
38
What are the cons of Subunit vaccines?
* Development requires detailed knowledge of virology, pathogenesis and immunology * Specialised and expensive production * Weaker immune responses – boosting often needed and response rate varies
39
Give three Adjuvant categories, examples of the adjuvants.
* Mineral salts → Aluminum hydroxide * Micro-fluidised detergents; emulsions, saponins → MF59, AS03 * Toll-Like-Receptor agonists → CpG Flagellin * in clinical trials CpG in Hep B vaccines induces B-cell and dendritic cell proliferation and differentiation, production of IL-6 and IFN-∝
40
What are Adjuvants?
* Boost immune response to the antigen * Eg alum, lipopolysaccharide * Work by **_binding to pattern-recognition receptors on antigen-presenting cells_** * This _enhances co-stimulation and cytokine secretion, which ensures a robust T/ B cell response_ * Important field for development in order to improve responses to subunit vaccines * Novel adjuvants are toll-like receptor ligands eg _CpG repeats_
41
How is Intracellular mRNa stability achieved?
* A specially modified Nucleotide positioned at the 5’ end (Cap) * A poly (A) tail (length) * The composition and structure of the 3’ untranslated regions (3’UTR)
42
Explain mRNA vaccines - how are they formed - how do they work
* For mRNA vaccines, they create a sequence generated which codes for critical pathogen antigens * Delivered via vector * eg lipid nanoparticles OR * ex vivo (harvest circulating monocytes then return to the recipient) * Sequence translated by host cells to produce encoded antigens, which then stimulates host immune response
43
What are the technical challenges of mRNA vaccines? - solutions?
* **Preventing degradation of mRNA** – solution was lipid nanoparticle delivery * polyethylene glycol (PEG)- used to encapsulate the mRNA and protect it against destruction * **Inflammatory response caused by mRNA** – solution was modifying nucleosides to reduce the inflammatory potential but still being able to create the protein of intrest
44
What is ‘Trained immunity’?
* describes the ‘epigenetic reprogramming’ of innate immune cells * Gene expression is regulated by epigenetic mechanisms such as histone protein modification, DNA methylation, and different types of RNAs that interfere with gene expression or mRNA translation. **Infections/vaccinations can change the epigenetic programme**
45
What are the Positives of mRNA vaccines?
* Can be produced more rapidly; can be easily **modifiable; is standardized and gives an improved response speed** in emerging outbreaks * Safety: no **pathogen particles or inactivated pathogen, non-infectious,** not integrated into host genome, **RNA strand degraded once protein is made** * Efficacy: reliable immune response, well-tolerated by healthy individuals, few side effects
46
Explain Viral vectors - challenges
* Benign virus that can be easily grown in culture engineered to carry genes encoding immunogenic antigens * Altered virus used as a _live-attenuated vaccine_ or a _non-replicating viral vaccine_ _Challenges_ * Pre-existing immunity to viral vector * Immune responses to viral vector may affect later use
47
What is the routine childhood immunization schedule in the UK
* they start at _eight weeks_ old with vaccines against → Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), polio, Haemophilus type b and hep B (thigh), minungococcal B () , Rotavirus gastroenteritis (by mouth) * 12 weeks then 16 weeks repeat of Td/IPV, 1 years old. 3 years 4 months old, 12 to 13 HPV, 14 years old tetanus and diptheria and polio
48
What would a pike protein against COVID-19 entail?
* The SARS-CoV-2 **spike protein** can bind to **ACE-2** (angiotensin converting enzyme-2) and **Nrp-1** (Neuropilin-1) both of which are located **at the cell surface**. * Regeneron Pharmaceuticals have developed an apparently effective **antibody cocktail** from recovered patients and humanised mice containing antibodies **that recognise different parts of the receptor binding domain** in a **non-competitive fashion** and abrogate binding. * If only one antibody or antibodies competing for binding are given, novel spike protein mutations occur rapidly. Non-competitive antibodies, if given together, appear to prevent novel spike mutants. This is why a cocktail is used.
49
What is the effect of therapeutic antibodies on COVID-19?
* therapeutic B-cells antibodies recognising the spike protein are administered to individuals to prevent serious disease courses * treatment with REGN-COV2 resulted in statistically significant reduction in the time-weighted average daily change from baseline in viral load
50
How does the Pfizer/Biontech COVID-19 virus work?
**BNT162b2** contains RNA that encodes an optimized **SARS-CoV-2 full-length spike protein** antigen
51
How does the Oxford/Astra Zeneca COVID-19 virus work?
**BNT162b2** contains RNA that encodes an optimized **SARS-CoV-2 full-length spike protein** antigen
52
How does the Moderna COVID-19 virus work?
**BNT162b2** contains RNA that encodes an optimized **SARS-CoV-2 full-length spike protein** antigen
53
What is herd immunity/ and how is it achieved?
* when an infection is no longer effectively transmitted across a population because too many individuals are immune * this requires a certain percentage of the population to be immune and depend on how many others typically get infected by one case (**R0**) * in the case of COVID-19 the R needs to be less than 1
54
What major side effect is attributed to the swine flue vaccine? * explain the incidence and cause?
* Narcolepsy * severe sleep disruption, loss of concentration, social difficulties, and complete loss of muscle control (cataplexy) in severe cases * 1 in 55,000 pandemrix jabs induced narcolepsy when given to 6 million people in the UK in 2009/10 * this occurrence rate would not have been picked up when testing for safety of the adjuvant/the vaccine * This was attributed to **AS03** an adjuvant used in some GSK vaccines