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Flashcards in Van amstel final Deck (59)
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1

You are presented with an 8 month old boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs: intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least the past 2 days. The goat had been fed 4 pounds of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following actions is most critical?
a. Ultrasound the kidneys
b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area
c. Cut urethral process
d. Do retrograde catheterization
e. Do blood potassium

b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area

need to r/o bladder rupture

2

Which one of the following should you do first to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12-month-old blocked goat, which lives on pasture/browse showing some abdominal distention? No palpable perineal swelling.
a. Do ventral abdominal stab and drain fluid
b. Check blood BUN & Creat
c. Do centesis and measure BUN in fluid
d. Do emergency laparotomy
e.Take a x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra

e.Take a x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra

Since on pasture worried about calcium carbonate (phosphate). Want to know how many stones are present so can decide further treatment. If pearl string of stones need to do more severe treatments.

3

Which procedures listed below are the best to evaluate/treat a goat that is obstructed with struvite for 8 days?
a. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
b. Cut urethral process, do normograde urethral flushing, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
c. Palpate perineum, do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
d. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, do blood potassium, do retrograde catheterization, do tube cystotomy
e. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, do blood potassium, marsupialization

c. Palpate perineum, do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy

Cutting the urethral process is not performed for struvite stones. Perineum should always be palpated to r/o rupture, pH should be above 4.5 to lavage stones, hyperK, hypoNa, deH20 and azotemia are all clinical signs seen w/ uroliths. Tube cystotomy is the treatment of choice for struvites.

4

Which one of the following is the best treatment for urolithiasis caused by struvite obstruction?
a. Retrograde flushing of the urethra using Walpoles solution
b. Cutting the urethral process followed by oral ammonium chloride
c. Marsupialize the bladder
d. Do a vesico-preputial anastomosis
e. Do tube cystotomy

e. Do tube cystotomy

Cutting the urethral process is more commonly used with calcium stones. Best practice for stuvites is tube cystotomy with normograde flush (acidic walpoles or rinc) to unblock.

5

Which of the following is the best treatment for multiple calcium stone obstruction?
a. Do urine diversion surgery
b. Do a tube cystotomy
c. Flush the bladder repeatedly with Walpoles solution
d. Do lithotripsy
e. Do urethral process amputation

a. Do urine diversion surgery

For multiple stones diversion is needed. Vesico-preputial anastomosis, perineal urethrostomy and bladder marsupialization are among the choices.

Tube cysto and walpoles are both tx for struvites.
Lithripsy is done for single stone and amputation is rarely done alone.

6

Which of the following is not a complication of chronic urethral obstruction?
a. Bladder atony
b. Bladder rupture
c. Hydronephrosis
d. Urethral rupture
e. Hypernatremia

e. Hypernatremia

HypoNa and HyperK is a comp.

7

Which of the following is a viable option for a goat with struvite obstruction and a tube cystotomy that did not become unblocked after 3 weeks of care?
a. Do marsupialization
b. Do low perineal urethrostomy
c. Do a second tube cystotomy
d. Do long-term tube cystotomy
e.Do contrast urethrogram to check for stricture

d. Do long-term tube cystotomy

8

Which of the following statements is false?
a. The gastrocnemius muscle extends the hock and flex the stifle
b. Overextension of the hock may indicate peroneus tertius rupture
c. Stall rest is a viable treatment for gastrocnemius rupture in goats
d. Boer goats are more susceptible to urethral stone formation than Anglo Nubian goats
e. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

e. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

Causes hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

9

Which of the following is false?
a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis
b. Marsupialization can cause severe urine scald
c. Ammonium chloride will reduce urine pH after a lag phase of several days
d. Anabolic steroids predispose to stone formation
e. Hyperkalemia cause dropped P waves and tented T waves on ECG

a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis

Does not prevent the formation of calcium crystals.

10

Which of the following is false?
a. Fusobacterium can survive in wet conditions for a prolonged period
b. Dichelobacter can only survive away from the carrier animal for a short period <14 days
c. Dichelobacter can live in infected horn for prolonged periods
d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle
e. Interdigital dermatitis is a polybacterial condition from which several species of bacteria including spirochetes can be cultured

d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle

In cattle foot rot is caused by fusobacterium, Dichelobacter causes it in SR

11

Which of the following is false?
a. Differentials for hard bag include mastitis and spontaneous milker
b. CAE is a oncogenic retrovirus
c. CAE can be neutralized by heating milk to 56C for 30 minutes
d. The virus can be spread through injections using the same needle
e. Carpal joints are commonly affected in CAE

b. CAE is a oncogenic retrovirus

Non-oncogenic

12

Which of the following is false?
a. Fusobacterium causes foot rot in cattle by causing an ascending cellulitis in the foot
b. One possible complication of foot rot in cattle is septic arthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint
c. Footrot in sheep results from undermining of the axial wall with a descending infection in the ventral aspects of the foot
d. Fusobacterium also cause foot rot in sheep
e. Following interdigital trauma, Fusobacterium may cause foot abscess “septic DIP joint” in sheep

d. Fusobacterium also cause foot rot in sheep

Foot rot in SR is caused by dichelobacter and it extends down to separate medial and lateral wall

13

Which is the best control method for foot rot in small ruminants?
a. Vaccinate every 3 weeks during spring and summer
b. Cull the chronic sheep
c. Treat all affected sheep with Tulathramycin for 7 days
d. Trim all sheep
e. Footbath all sheep once a week with formaldehyde

b. Cull the chronic sheep

Although control is done by trimming loose horns, foot baths once a week during high risk periods, Ab treatment, and vaccination. Disposal of chronic sheep is the best form of control.

14

Which of the following is false?
a. The success of long term indwelling Foley is largely dependent on owner compliance
b. Overfilled bladder can often be diagnosed on external abdominal palpation
c. Pitting edema is one way to identify water belly
d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed
e. Fusobacterium is a gram negative anaerobe

d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed

This sheep should be trimmed but separate from negative sheep.

15

All of the statements are true except:
A. Open mouth breathing in alpacas represents a severe problem since they are obligate nasal breathers
B. BCS of 3 in a lactating goat is normal
C. IM injections in the back of the leg in goats should not be used as a routine
D. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial
E. Both the infratrochlear and cornual nerves should be blocked for disbudding in goats

D. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial

This actually predisposes to rectal prolapse, amputation should be done between C1 and C2

16

All of the statements are true except:
a. Tetanus is a possible complication following open castration
b. Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated
c. Overgrowth of incisors in camelids occur because of continual growth of their roots
d. Quidding is usually a sign of dental disease
e. Fluoride deposition in teeth predisposes to excessive wear

b. Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated

Since roots of the molars are closed there is no need for floating unless C/S are seen like quidding, foot retention or painful mastication.

17

All of the statements are false except:
a. True floppy kid syndrome is characterized by hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis
b. True floppy kid syndrome is usually associated with prematurity
c. Hypoglycemia in goats occurs when the blood glucose drops to below 120
d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome
e. True floppy kid results from lactic acidosis from anerobic metabolism muscle tissue

d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid (administer bicarb to reverse acidosis, given when pH < 7.2)

True floppy kid syndrome is related to overconsumption of milk and infectious agents (clostridium/ E. Coli). Normal BG and systemic metabolic acidosis is seen with this disease

HypoG is associated with premies.

HypoG is <50

The lactic acidosis is actually from bacterial fermentation in the GIT.

18

All statements are true except:
a.Isotonic bicarb is indicated as the fluid of choice in cases where blood pH is less than 7,2
b. Leucopenia/degenerative left shift/ high fibrinogen are often associated with sepsis
c. In case of sepsis neonates are often unable to maintain blood glucose
d. Newborn goat kids usually only have enough brown fat for 5 hours to maintain their blood glucose
e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (GLU< 50)

e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (GLU< 50)

Dextrose should be administered IV or IP

19

All statements are true except:
a. Lepto, Clostridium, copper cause anemia through intravascular hemolysis
b. A PCV of <12 is one of the indications for a blood transfusion
c. Amprolium may predispose to polioencephalomalacia because it acts a thiamine analog
d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight
e. Fetal manipulation is not indicated until 30 minutes after onset of labor in goat-

d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight

The BV is actually 7% of BWT

20

Which of the following tests done once a year would give most information regarding parasite resistance against any particular anthelmintic?
a. FAMACHA eye color test
b. Fecal egg count on 1% of the herd
c. Fecal egg count reduction test
d. Consistency of the feces of 10% of the herd
e.Average body condition score of the herd

c. Fecal egg count reduction test

21

Which of the following would be most indicative of intestinal parasitism in a sheep flock?
a. Loss of body condition
b. Bottle jaw as result of decreased vascular oncotic pressure
c. Rumen atony
d. Constipation
e.FAMACHA score 2 in the majority of sheep

a. Loss of body condition

22

Which of the following techniques is the best to catch a llama?
a. Grab it by the halter
b. Drive it into the chute
c. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and grab it by the tail
d. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck

d. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck

23

Which of the following is not an important consideration when doing FAMACHA scores?
a. Time of membrane exposure before recording
b. Ambient temperature
c. Dust
d. Age
e. Fever

b. Ambient temperature

24

Which of the following should be included in spring/summer herd health program?
a. FAMACHA
b. Body condition score
c. Fecal floats on 10% of herd
d. FECRT on those with high egg counts
e. All of the above

e. All of the above

25

You are presented with an 8-month-old Boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs: intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least past 2 days. The goat had been fed 1-pound of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following diagnostic and treatment protocols should be followed in this case to ensure the best outcome for both the animal and client?
a. Sedate the animal with xylazine, ultrasound the bladder, marsupialize the bladder, tell the owner the goat will be able to breed
b. for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 5, tell the owner that the goat will unblock in the next 6-8 hours
c. Ultrasound the bladder and kidneys, since you suspect struvite do a tube cystotomy with normograde flushing
d. Check for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, ultrasound the kidneys, check blood potassium and creatinine, tube cystotomy and normograde flushing
e. Ultrasound the kidneys, check blood potassium and creatinine, tube cystotomy and normograde flushing, continue flushing post op.

b. for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 5, tell the owner that the goat will unblock in the next 6-8 hours

Grain --> struvite stones which are dissolved in acidic fluids and cystocenetesis.

26

Which of the following should you do to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12-month-old blocked goat which lives on pasture/browse?
a. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)
b. Ultrasound bladder and kidneys
c. Amputate the urethral process
d. Check blood potassium
e. Do retrograde catheterization

a. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)

Goats are pasture are predisposed to calcium stones. These stones are more stable so need more invasive surgeries.

27

Which procedures listed below are the best to evaluate/treat a goat that is obstructed with struvite for 8 days?
a. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
b. Cut urethral process, normograde urethral flushing, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
c. Palpate perineum, cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
d. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, blood potassium, retrograde catheterization, tube cystotomy
e. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, blood potassium, marsupialization

c. Palpate perineum, cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy

Do not cut the urethral process with stuvites only with calcium stones.

Always palp the perineum to r/o rupture. Stop lavage wje pH < 4.5.

Tube cystotomy and normograde flush with acidic solution.

28

Which of the following statements is false?
a. Cleft palate is a heritable trait
b. One of the main causes of FPT is dysgalactia
c. Unerupted incisors is a sign of prematurity
d. Cardiac murmurs are commonly present in newborn crias and is caused by a persistent right aortic arch
e. Meconium retention for the first 24 hours is a common finding

b. One of the main causes of FPT is dysgalactia

FPT is most commonly d/t agalactia/ delayed lactation (esp in 1-2 birth), mis-mothering or mastitis.

29

Which of the following statements is false?
a. FPT is one of the major problems camelid neonates
b. Mixed dyspnea in a premature cria is most likely caused by aspiration of amniotic fluid
c. Floppy ears and a silky coat are signs of dysmaturity
d, Hyperglycemia in a 3 day old cria with neuro signs is often associated with hyperosmolar syndrome
e. Total protein is a unreliable measure of IgG

Not sure if this is correct

b. Mixed dyspnea in a premature cria is most likely caused by aspiration of amniotic fluid

FPT is the biggest compliant 0-14 d. While floppy ears and as silky coat are signs of premies, dysmaturitiy is premie signs w/ normal gestation length. HyperG --> stress response --> hyperosmole. Total serum protein is affected by inflammation and deH2O, SRID is the gold standard test.

30

Which of the following statements is false?
a. Hypopyon is usually associated with sepsis
b. FPT is defined as a IgG level of less than 900
c. Jugular vein catheterization is preferably done on the left side of the neck
d. Blood sodium should be monitored during IV administration of isotonic fluids
e. Crias are born with variable blood IgG levels

c. Jugular vein catheterization is preferably done on the left side of the neck

The jug is hard to find and the esophagus runs on the left, so preferably right side for jug