Vascular Q&A Flashcards
(306 cards)
1
Q
The first major branch of the aorta is:
A
The innominate a
2
Q
T/F the superior thyroid arises from the subcllavian a
A
False
3
Q
the angular a is the terminal part of the :
A
Facial a
4
Q
The arterial pulsations felt in front of the ear and just above the zygomatic arch are from what artery.
A
Superficial temporal
5
Q
the common carotid a divides into its external and internal branches usally at the level of the upper border of the :
A
Thyroid cartilage
6
Q
What artery is usually the first branch of the ECA
A
Superior thyroid a
7
Q
T/F the middle communicating artery is in the circle of willis
A
false
8
Q
Of the following artereis arise from the ECA A) sperior thyroid B) Lingual a C) Facial a D) Ascending pharyngeal a E) all of the above
A
E
9
Q
the prominence of the larynx is formed by what
A
thyroid cartilage
10
Q
The vert a ususally arises from the:
A
subclavian
11
Q
the infraorbital a is the terminal branch of the :
A
Maxillary a
12
Q
the vertebrals branch from the subclavian a to unite to form the:
A
basilar
13
Q
the first intracranial branch of the ICA is the
A
ophthalmic a
14
Q
the circle of willis receives its blood supply from which combination of arteries A) internal and external carotid a B) subclavian and vertebral C) Posterior cerebral a and basilar D) carotid and vertebrals E) right and left vertebral a
A
D
15
Q
The three terminal branches of the ophthalmic a are the
A
nasal, frontal, and supraorbital
16
Q
two major branches of the ECA include the
A
superfical temporal and facial
17
Q
T/F the superfical temporal arteries are intracranial collateral pathways of cliinical significance
A
false
18
Q
Is the ICA low or high resistive
A
low
19
Q
two arteries creating the bidirectional signal obsereved 60 to 65 mm deep during transcranial insonation of the temporal window are the:
A
middle cerebral and anterior cerebral a
20
Q
what is the most common anomaly of the circle of willis
A
absence or hypoplasia of one or both of the communicating a
21
Q
the continuation of the innominate is the
A
subclavian
22
Q
the continuation of the subvlavian is the
A
vertebral
23
Q
the continuation of the common carotid is the
A
ICA
24
Q
the continuation of the vertebral is the
A
basilar
25
the continuation of the external carotid is the
superficial temporal
26
helical flow with flow separation in the posterolateral aspect f the carotid bulb is a sign of
normal flow dynamics
27
most common anatomic variant of the aortic arch is
a common orgin of teh innominate and L common carotid a
28
Which is NOT true of the GSV
A) originates along the medial dorsum of the foot
B) passes superiorlu anterior to the medial malleolus
C) it enters the femoral vein
D) it extends distally to the dorsum of the foot
E) it has more valves in the calf than in the thigh.
A
29
superficial vbein that recieves flow from the three main perforating veins of the distal calf
posterior arch vein
30
boyds perforating vein is located
near the knee
31
the left common iliac vein crosses _______ to the right common iliac artery just _______ to the aortic bifurcation
posterior , distal
32
the brachial vein connect the
ulnar and radial veins to the axillary vein
33
what vessel in the leg is the most difficult to image
Distal deep femoral vein
34
the term muscle pump refers to
the calf muscles
35
which vein in the antecubital fossa conects the cephalic and basilic veins?
median cubital v
36
T/F the cephalic is a superfical vein
true
37
T/F the brachiocephalic v is found on the right and left side of the neck
true
38
which of the following vessels join the brachial veins to form the axillary vein
basilic v
39
muscular veins of teh calf that empty into the popliteal vein behind the knee are _______ veins
gastrocnemius
40
compared to the arteries , veins have
thinner adventitia and media
41
T/F venous valves only allow blood away from the heart
FALSE
42
peripheral resistance increases with
greter length, smaller diameter, and higher blood viscosity.
43
what 3 arteries have low resistance
internal carotid, postprandial superior mesenteric, and renal a
44
T/F the dorsalis pedis is a branch of teh peroneal a
false
45
```
vessels and structures of the penis include all except
A) deep artery of the penis
B) doral a of the penis
C) corpus spongiosum
D) inferior vesicle a
E) dorsal v
```
D
46
```
which of the following vessels in NOT found on or near teh foot
A) the dorsalis pedis
B) the posterior tibia
C)peroneal
D) circumflex
E) all of the above
```
circumflex
47
usually the profunda femoris travels in relation to the superficial femora arteries
posteriolateral to teh superficial femoral a
48
the popliteal trifurcation is actually a double bifurcation; what are the branches
anterior tibial and tibioperoneal trunk; then posterior tibial and peroneal
49
the axillary artery conects the
brachial a to the subclavian
50
T/F the right subclavian a arises from the aortic arch
false
51
at the inguinal ilgament the external iliac a becomes the
common femoral a
52
this vessel courses along the medial aspect of the psoas muscle
external iliac a
53
the renal a aris from the _______ aorta
lateral
54
because of the location of the IVC the left renal vein crosses _______ to the aorta and _________ to the left renal a.
anterior and inferior
55
in a cross section of the aorta surrounding regions, the vein that is visualized superfical to the aorta and the origins of the right and left renal a and deep to the superfical mesenteric a is the :
L renal vein
56
the superior mesenteric artery typically originates from the
aorta between the celiac trunk and the renal a
57
the superior vena cave is formed by the junction of the
right and left brachiocephalic
58
the poral vein is formed by the
superior mesenteric and splenic
59
a useful landmark for locating the renal arteries is the
superior mesenteric a
60
the splenic, common hepatic and left gastric artereis arise from this abdominal artery
celiac
61
the most common anatomic variation of the renal a is
multiple renal a
62
which artery supplies the small intestin, right colon, and transverse colon
superior mesenteric
63
antother name for the hypogastric
internal iliac a
64
which artery is teh lefto branch of the celiac trunk
splenic
65
what is the name of the tiny intrarenal branches that arise fromt the interlobar arteries at right angles and course above the renal pyramids
arcuate a
66
the smallest vessels in the body are
capillaries
67
the term tunica adventitia refers to the
outer lininog of the arterial wall
68
the term tunica intima denotes
the inner lining of teh arterial wall
69
the blood supply to vascular tissue is provided by
vasa vasorum
70
the layer of arterial or venous wall composed entirely of endotheilal cells is teh
tunica intima
71
T/F capillaries only have intima and adventitia layers
false
72
a venule contains which vessel layers
tunica media and tunica intima
73
artherosclerosis is a disease that begins in the
intima
74
femal gender is a risk factor in artherosclersos T/F
false
75
what are the complications of plaque ulcerations
thrombosis, intraplaque hemorrhage, and emobilization
76
cerebrovascular fibromuscular dysplasia occurs in males or females
females
77
T/F artherosclerosisi is a red blood cell disease
false
78
a left arm blood pressure that is 40mmHg lower than the right can be the result of a what
thoracic outlet entrapment, sublcavian steal, coarctation of the aortic arch, and axillary artery embolus.
79
with a subvlacian artery stenosis on teh right side the flow in the right vertebral a will be _________
reversed
80
with a subclavian stenosis on the righ tthe right axillary artery signial will be _______
monophasic
81
what can produce a vertebral steal
an innominate artery occlusion, and left subclavian artery orgin stenosis
82
```
hypertensive diabetic 65yo male presents for cerebrovascular testing because of an asymptomatic bruit on the right side. You are considering all fo the following to be potential sources of the bruit EXCEPT
A) stenosis of the ECA
B) stenosis of teh subclavian a
C) occlusion of the CCA
D) dissection of the CCA
```
C
83
a disease that affects primarily the intima and may extend into the media is
artherosclerosis
84
after carotid bifurcation disease the next most common soruse of stroke symptoms is
cardiac source embolization
85
the strongest risk factor for stroke is
hypertension
86
in the cerebrovascular system artherosclerosis occurs most commonly in the
orgin of ICA
87
the most prevalnt type of strokek is
ischemic
88
where are carotid body tumors located?
between the internal and external carotid arteries
89
T/F subclavian steals are because of a severe stenosis in the proximal vertebral a
false
90
a 24 year old pt with a HX of recent automobile accident arrieves in the ICU with symtoms of acute right side weakness and aphasia. The most likely etiology of these symptomes is:
carotid dissection
91
a pt undergoes carotid endartectomy. 6 mo later angiography is performed because of symptoms referable to the other side. Angio gram reveals that the operated carotid is significantly narrowed. Most likely cause is
neointimal hyperplasia
92
the term hemiparesis means
weakness on one side
93
the NASET trial used the follwing arteriographic criterion to classify ICA diesase
diameter percentage stenosis calculated by dividing the minimal diameter by the diameter of the unstenosed distal ICA
94
what are symptoms of the brain stem or posterior circulation
dizziness, vertigo, ectasia, syncope
95
T/Famaurosis fugax is a posterior circulation symptom
false
96
symptom of vertebrobasilar insufficiency is
diplopia
97
T/F a bright yellow spot is noted within a branch artery on a ophthalmologic exam. This is known as a hollenhors plaque
true
98
pt complains of a temporary shading of the vision in one eye this symptom is called
amaurosis fugax
99
the incidenc of new stroke a year
500,000
100
TIA is
transient ischemic attack
101
the TIA of a right anterior hemisphere of the brain will likely affect
the left side of the body
102
amaurosis fugax related to an internal carotid lesion will cause
temporarly blindness or shading of the ipsilateral eye
103
TIA resolve in _____ hours
24
104
simultaneous bilateral ocular symptoms in the pt with suspected cerebrovascual disease generally originates from
vertebrobasilar a
105
T/F vertigo is a vertebrobasial symptom
true
106
T/F facial asymmetry is an anterior circulation symptom
true
107
a neurologic ischemic deficit that resolves completely after 24 hours describes a
RIND
108
amaurosis fugax can be interpreted as a
TIA
109
dysphagia is a symptom associated with ____________ insufficiency
vertebrobasilar
110
a binocular disturbance that disrupts vision in half the visual field of both eyes is called
homonymous hemianopia
111
parestehsia refers to
tingling sensation
112
a pt describes a 30 min episode of garbled speech this is called
dysphasia
113
a pt with dysphasia is right handed what area of circulation is sucpected
left hemisphere
114
T/F a subclavian steal is usually a harmeless hemodynamic phenomenon
true
115
T/F a subclavian steal is caused by arterial obstriction proximal to the orgin of the vertebral a
true
116
subclavian steal occurs more often on the right or left side
left
117
hemispheric stroke usually affects the middle_______ artery
cerebral
118
hemispheric stroke ususally affects the ________ side of the body
contralateral
119
stenosis of what vessel presents the highest risk of TIA
ICA
120
a decrease pulse at mid neack is suggestive of
common carotid stenosis if the contralateral pulse is normal
121
T/F severe stenosis may cause a bruit
true
122
bruits heard bilaterally, loudest low in the neck are most likely caused by
aortic valve stenosis
123
```
a stronger pulse is palpated in the right neck than on the left. This could result from all of the following EXCEPT
A) tortuous CCA
B) carotid aneurysm on the right
C) tech error
D) lefto carotid obstrucion
E) innominate occlusion
```
E
124
T/F a bruit is always an indication of disease
false
125
a bruit means what kind of flow exists
turbulent
126
a what may be indicative of a valvular dysfuncion in the heart
a bruit
127
during ordinary ausculation of a carotid bifurcation, the detection of a bruit that extends into diastole is
highly significant
128
which is least likely to cause a bruit in the neck
critical preocclusive stenosis of the ICA
129
why are brachial blood pressures obtained bilaterally when evaluating a pt for Cerebrovascular disease
the brachial blood pressures are compared to see if they are equal
130
T/F in pulse wave doppler the beam is continuously transmitted with intermittent reception accordint to vessel depth
false
131
in flow _______ loss of the spectreal window of pulsed dopple occurs
turbulence
132
a duplex image of the carotid bifurcation that demonstrates a goblet like configuration of the internal and external branches curving around a highly vascularized mass suggests
carotid body tumor
133
the best arterial wall image quality is obtained when teh angle is what degree
90
134
greatly increased mean velocities in the middle cerebral artery would be consistent of TCD following a subarachnoid__________
hemorrhage
135
in TCD normal direction of flow in the vertebral a is
away fromt the beam
136
T/F TCD is useful in evaluating temporal arteritis
false
137
best angel for doppler beam
60
138
TCD frequency often used
2MHz
139
normal direction of flow in TCD of the anterior cerebral a
away from beam
140
increase in mean velocity from 50 to 150cm/sec at depth of 50mm with TCD would indicate a significant stenosis in teh
middle cerebral a
141
you perform TCD the left anterior cerebral a. flow is to the beam this suggests
ipsilateral carotid obstruction, with right to left collateralization
142
the best way to prepare a transducer for intrapoerative use is:
place transducer and acoustic gel within a sterile sleeve or bag.
143
increasing the beam filter will either lower or raise the frequency shift.
lower the frequency shift.
144
among the chief limitations of continuous wave doppler is :
depth information is not possible; precise location of flow pattern cannot be determined.
145
in TCD the normal direction of flow is in the middle cerebral artery is
toward the beam
146
what dictates transducer frequency for b mode imaging
desired beam width, depths, and axial resolution
147
using TCD you find a strong signal with considerable diastolic flow at a depth of 50mm this is most likely
Middle cerebral a
148
TCD window for middle cerebral artery is
temporal
149
a mosaic of low red and blue frequencies in color flow in tissue lying outside of the lumen and oscillatory wave forms above and below baseline in the spectral waveform describes a
bruit
150
the TCD window used for assessing the ophthalmic artery and carotid siphon is
orbital
151
the doppler diagnostic criterion that is most important for calling greater than 80%
end diastolic velocity
152
an arterial stenosis that is 75% by cross sectional area reduction corresponds to a diameter reduction of
50%
153
an arterial stenosis that is 80% by diameter reduction corresponds to a cross section area reducion of
96%
154
you are examining hard copy of a TCD under the window suboccipital window the depth is 90mm this is likely
basilar a
155
the angle correct cursor for velocity estimates is best
adjusted parallel with arterial walls
156
on spectral doppler display the x axis shows what
time
157
on spectral doppler display the y axis is what
depth
158
you perform percussion maneuvers on the superficial temporary artery and see oscillations on the spectral display. The artery being insonated is most likely the
ECA
159
decreasing the PRF and wall filter will increase or decrease the color flow adjustment
increase
160
absence of diastolic flow in CCA spectral display will be seen in
a totally occluded internal carotid artery
161
vertebral waveform below the baseline shows
was a subclavian steal
162
name all of the acoustic windows in TCD temporal bone, orbit of the eye, subocciptal window, and the submandibular area
medial part of the frontal bone
163
collateral pathways in the event of ICA obstruction
Posterior and anterior, collateral hemisphere, ECA branches to ophthalamic branches.
164
one way to tell whether you are looking at the ECA and ICA
The eca has branches near the bifurcation and the ICA does not
165
major complications of cerebrovascular angiography occur in approximately
1% of the population
166
complications of cerebrovascular angiography include all of the following
death, stroke, arterial occlusion at the access site, renal failure.
167
T/F inadvertent venous pressure is a complication of cerebrovascular angiography
false
168
most common arterial puncture site for all forms of angiography is
CFA
169
advantages of angiography over duplex carotid studies include:
visualization of intracranial collateral's, superiority at calling ulceration's, entire cerebral vasculature is visible, ability to determine siphon stenosis
170
initial diagonsitc exam of a stroke pt is
CT
171
MRI process the radiofrequency pulces created by _____ and _______
tissue, and blood flow
172
pitfall of MRI is
no pacemakers, tends to overestimate stenosis, relies on pt cooperation.
173
endartectomy procedure is used for lower or upper exrtremities
lower
174
stenting procedures of the ica areless demanding than stening where
than the coronary arteries
175
hypertensive pt has experienced multiple TIA and has an 80% diameter stenosis of the ICA on teh side referable to symptoms what procedure is recomended
carotid endartectomy
176
NASCET trial indicated that the best treatment of a carotid stenosis is
endartectomy for stenosis greater than 70%
177
most common medical treatment for acute ischemic stroke consists of
rtPA
178
hypertension is associated with hyperperfusion syndrome after what
carotid endartectomy
179
primary concern in a pt with DVT is
PE
180
some causes of DVT are
trauma, hypercoagulability, extrinsic compression upon deep veins
181
greatest pressure of venous hypertension in secondary varicose vein occurs
during muscle contraction
182
T/F diabetes causes DVT
False
183
virchows triad includes
stasis hypercoagulability, and intimal injury
184
T/F smoking is a risk factor of DVT
false
185
what % of PE result from the lower legs
>90%
186
symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency might result from
calf vein thrombosis, pop vein thrombosis, superficial insufficiency, iliac vein thrombosis
187
pts suspected of having venous disease may complain of pain that is
relieved by elevation
188
edema caused by dvt is characterized by
swelling in the ankles and legs but not the foot
189
risk factors for dvt
trauma, extrinsic compression upon deep veins, cancer
190
complaints of chronic swelling and erythemia of the lower extremity only what percent have dvt
46-62%
191
edema caused by dvt is characterized by
swelling in ankles but not feet
192
T/F cancer is a risk factor of DVT
true
193
T./F arthritis is a risk factor of dvt
false
194
complaints of chronic unilateral extremity swelling aching and a sense of heaviness most likely sugessts
post phlebitic syndrome
195
pt with chronic venous insufficiency complains of sudden onset of edema and pain in affected leg this may be related to what
recurrence of acute dvt
196
pitting edema of both lower extremities is likely related to what system
cardiac or systemic
197
pts with a swollen limb who have just returned from a country where filariasis is endemic may be suspected of having
lymphedema
198
pt presents with bilateral lower extremitiy edema and nephrotic syndrome thrombus is suspected at which level
IVC
199
lower extremity ulcers are overwhelmingly the result of
venous disease
200
normally venous flow is from superficial to teh deep veins through perforating veins however this flow might be reversed when
DVT is present
201
________ is acute pronounced red discoloration and edema of the skin along the anterior calf is
cellulitis
202
pt with PE might have what symptoms
chest pain, reduced arterial blood gasses, diaphoresis, SOB.
203
typical findings of skin discoloration in a pt with chronic venous insufficiencies have what color ankles or calves
rusty brown
204
a condition that presents as a severely swollen blue cool lower extremity is called
phlegmasia cerulea dolens
205
clinical examination for DVT is
not specific or sensitive
206
T/F thickening of the toenails is associated with venous disease
false
207
lesions are usually found on the lower third of the leg around the medial aspect of the ankle in what type of ulceration
venous
208
sometime after being hit by a car a pt has severe pain in teh anterior aspect of the right knee and massive left lower extremity edema pt most likely has
extensive femoropopliteal dvt
209
pt presents with unilateral chronic swollen leg and a previous dvt 3 years prior most likely finding would be
pop vein is patent and valves are incompetent
210
chronic DVT will increase ambulatory ________- pressure
venous
211
brawny color is arterial or venous
venous
212
venous ulcers are usually not ___________ and arterual ulcers are located ___________ to the foot.
painfull, cehphalad
213
Homans sign, Bancroft sign , and lowenbergs sign are all clinical tests to attempt to diagnose
DVt
214
common physical finding in PE is
Tachypena
215
clinical presentation of PE includes
chest pain, dyspnea, pleural effusion, and tachypnea
216
T/F superficial thrombophlebitis is usually attributed to the
GSV
217
T/F superficial thrombophlebitis is usually recurrent
true
218
doppler examination alone without B mode is unlikely to detect the presence of thrombus in the _________- veins
peroneal
219
in continuous doppler reflux testing a normal result is : _________ of flow with proximal comression resuming on release
cessation
220
test for venous incompetence that uses tourniquets and alterations of pt position is
trendelenburg test
221
CW doppler performed for DVT reveals augmentation upon compression above the prove this proves the pt has
femoropoplietal and posterior tibial valvular insufficiency
222
T/F photoplethysmogrpahy is effective in detecting DVT
false
223
when performing lower extremity venous doppler assessmnet in normal pts cephalad flow diminishes during_________-
inspiration
224
the valsalva slows down venous flow ________ in the body
everywhere
225
commonly assessed characteristics of CW doppler
spontaneity, augmentation, competence, and phasicity
226
demonstration of vein wall coaptation in the extremities is best performed in
transverse with no color
227
with a valsalva the red flow lasts approximately half a second then blue flow returns upon release this is
valvular incompetence
228
limitations of CW doppler include
may be a bifid system, non occlusive thrombus, collateral vein may be mistaken,
229
in the femoral vein the sonographer notes thickened venous walls with bright echoes in it this is consistent with
chronic DVT
230
a dark thrombus poorly attached to the wall suggests
acute thrombus
231
large dark area in pop space no vascular connection likely a
bakers cyst
232
most difficult area to do vein wall coaptation
distal thigh
233
long bright echogenic streak is noted in the CFV, and appears to move with venous flow this is likely
a remnant of recanalized old dvt
234
pulsitile lower extremity venous doppler signal is associated with
CHF
235
CW doppler assessment of the PT reveals nonspontanious flow that augments with foot compression this is normal in a _______ pt.
cold
236
descending venography is performed to diagnose
valvular insuffieicncy
237
contrast venography
invasive
238
the venous puctrue for introducing contrast in venography is done where
dorsal vein on the foot
239
the venous puncture for valvular insufficiency in venography is done where
CFV
240
T/F coplications of venography includes
toxicity of the kidneys
241
acute DVT is commonly indicated in venoraphy as
areas of no contrast
242
gold standard for PE
pulmonary angiography
243
what can heparin cause
thrombocytopenia
244
complications of heparin
thrombocytopenia, formation of antiplatelet antibody, intrabdominal bleeding, platelet agregaton
245
types of IVC filters
birds nest, greenfield, nitinol filter, vena tech filter
246
agent of choice for PE
heparin
247
more than 90% of infrarenal aneurysms are of
degenerative orgin
248
takayasus arteries is a condition that causes nonartheroscleroic narroiwng of the brachiocephalic arteries in _________
females
249
most common source of lower or upper extremity peripheral arrterial embolus is
the heart
250
damage to venous valves are a complication of deep venous ___________.
recanalization
251
aneurysms are most often cased by
congenital arterial wall weakness
252
an occlusive disease of medium and small arteries in the distal upper and lower limbs of primarily young male heavy smokers is
thromboangitis oblierans
253
a condition which may result from reperfusion edema following bypass surgery causing ischemia due to compression and might call for treatment by fasciotomy is called
compartment syndrome
254
combination of neruopathy and peripherally distributed artherosclerosis makes the diabetic patient especially vulnerable to
foot lesions
255
the chances of a pt dying from a rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm averages
80%
256
what causes swelling of endothelial cells
smoking
257
in the lower extremity circulation the most common site of arterosclerosis is
the arterial segment beginning in hunters canal
258
popliteal aneurysms can cause symptoms by ___________ contiguous structures
compressing
259
T/F popliteal aneurysms are found bilaterally in > 10% of cases where they exist
true
260
T/F abdominal aneurysms pose a significant risk of rupture if > 6cm in diameter
True
261
risk of claudication in diabetic patients is greater than _____ times the risk in the general population
4
262
select the entity that is not a risk factor in periperal arteral occlusive disease
hypolipidema
263
the vascular disease that presents as back abdominal or flank pain is
abdominal aortic aneurysm
264
takayasus arteritis is most often found in
young women
265
common signs of advanced arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity include
loss of hair growth over the dorsum of the toes and feet, Thickening of the toenails, dependent rubor
266
the term cyanosis describes
blue color of the tissue due to ischemia
267
a bruit can be a sign of
iliac artery stenosis
268
right sided weakenss could be a sign of
left carotid artery occlusion
269
edema is a sign of
DVT
270
common evaluation for advanced lower extremity ischemia involves raising the supine patients leg and then having the patient sit and dangle the leg a postitive result is described as
elevation pallor, dependent rubor
271
pt representing with symptoms of clauication complain of
cramping pain in the calf thigh or buttocks with exercise and relieved by rest
272
pts presenting with a diagnosis of ischeimc rest pain may complain of
foot pain while in horizontal position, relieved by standing or dangling the foot in a dependent postition
273
patients found to have ulcerative or gangrene may have what diseases
arterial insufficiency, neuropathy, vasospasum, and venous disease
274
most common presenting symptoms in acute arterial occlusion incude
paralysis, pulselessness, pallor, and parestesisas
275
pts with advanced periperal arterial vascular occlusive disease exhibit what type of color
shiny, scaly skin, dependent rubor, pallor on elevation
276
a diabetic pt with redness of the skin in the foot and toe probably has
an infecton
277
a pulsitile mass in the groin after a catherization of a cardiac pt is most likely a
pseudoaneurysm of the femoral a
278
early arterlsclerosis of the lower extremity will be associated with
claudication
279
which sign or symptom is least likely to be associated with arterial embolization
progressive claudicaiton
280
rest pain is characterized by
pain at night in the forefoot or foot that may go away with leg dependency
281
the symptom or sigh most likely not associated with acute arterial occlusion is
claudication
282
ischemic ulcers are typically located
over the dorsum of the foot
283
common sites for ausulation of bruits in the lower extremity circulation include
abdomen, groin, popliteal space,
284
vibration noted while palpating pulses is called
a thirll
285
rubor is defined as
red skin color
286
ulcers due to arterial insufficiency are found in the
toes and distal foot
287
delayed return of the capillary blush after pressure on the pulp of the digit is a sign of
advanced ischemia
288
T/F sign of advanced ischemia in the lower extremity includes pitting edema
false
289
pulses sites commonly palpated in the lower extremity includes
common femoral, popliteal, PT, and AT
290
the absence of a bruit at the common femoral level can or cannot rule out a significant stenosis
cannot
291
the presence of a _______ may be the first indication of arterial disease
bruit
292
the symptoms of anterior tibial compartment syndrome are
swelling tenderness, sensory deficit or paresthesis, pain on passive stretch of the muscles in the compartment, weakness of the muscles in the compartment
293
unilateral claudiction in the calf and foot of a young individual suggests
popliteal artery entrapment
294
a pt complains of digital pallor or cyanosis induced by cold exposure or emotion stimuli these symptoms are characteristic of
raynaud's phenomenon
295
the pulsatility index is defined as
peak systolic to peak end diastolic velocity divided mean velocity
296
there is a pressure drop distal to the obstructed segment after exercise in pt with
intermittent claudication
297
an increase in peripheral resistance will cause an increase in the
pulse amplitude
298
________ is prolonged in obstructed limbs in comparison to limbs with no obstruction
hyperemia
299
ankle arm indices in claudicating pts are usually in the range of
0.5-0.9
300
ankle arm index is obtained by dividing the
ankle pressure by the higher brachial pressure
301
a velocity in the superficial femoral artery is 225cm/s and just proximal is 90cm/s this suggests a
50% stenosis
302
the right high thigh pressure is 108 the left high thigh is 142. The brachial is 122 what does this suggest
right femoral artery obstruction.
303
when assessing the digital artery with doppler patency of the palmar arch can be determined by
alternately compressing the radial and ulnar arteries while listening for changes in the digital artery signal
304
assesment of the palmar arch is useful
before placement of an arteriovenous shunt, and to evaluate blood flow to the digital arteries.
305
a popliteal to dorsal pedal lesser saphenous reverse bypass graft has a peak systolic velocity of 28cm/s at the distal anastomosis what is true of this velocity
it is normal for this graft
306
the two flow characteristics that define arterial stenosis anywhere in the body include focal acceleration of velocities and
distal turbulence.
