Vasodilators and Antihypertensives Flashcards

1
Q

What will a drug that increases smooth muscle intracellular cAMP or intracellular cGMP cause?

A

Vasodilatation

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2
Q

What do clonidine and methyldopa do? What are their side effects?

A
  • alpha 2 agonists
  • both have minimal alpha 1 agonist action
  • clonidine
    • can be given via epidural or subarachnoid route, can reduce post-op opioid requirements
    • diuresis via inhibition of ADH release
    • inhibits insulin release
    • rebound hypertension following abrupt cessation
  • methyldopa - given orally or (rarely) IV
    • sedation, positive direct Coombs test in 10-20% of cases
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3
Q

What is dexmedetomidine?

A

A more selective alpha 2 agonist

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4
Q

What is the MOA of ganglion blocking agents?

A
  • non-depolarizing competitive antagonist at ganglion type nicotinic receptor of autonomic ganglia
  • inhibits sympathetic input to peripheral vasculature
  • vasodilation
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5
Q

What are the SEs of ganglion blocking agents?

A
  • associated histamine release
  • SEs mainly due to parasympathetic antagonism
  • prev. used in treating hypertension and inducing peri-operative hypotension (eg trimetaphan)
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6
Q

What is the MOA of adrenergic neurone blocking agents?

A
  • enters adrenergic neurone via uptake 1 noradrenaline pathway
  • displaces noradrenaline and prevents further norad release
  • decreases alpha 1 receptor stimulation
  • vasodilation
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7
Q

How is guanethidine given?

A

Orally or IV

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8
Q

What are the SEs of adrenergic neurone blocking agents?

A
  • diarrhoea
  • postural hypotension
  • commonly used to manage chronic pain
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9
Q

Where does hydralazine act?

A
  • mainly on arterioles
  • bioavailability affected by acetylator status
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10
Q

What are the SEs of hydralazine?

A
  • reflex tachycardia
  • fluid retention
  • increased cerebral blood flow
  • nausea and vomiting
  • long term oral use can cause a lupus like syndrome
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11
Q

How does hydralazine work?

A

A directly acting vasodilator, producing NO which acts on G-protein coupled receptors activated guanylate cyclase and increasing intracellular cGMP levels to cause vasodilation.

Produces vasodilation of both arterial and venous vessels.

Arterial vasodilation reduces SVR while venous vasodilation increases venous capacitance and reduces preload.

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12
Q

How does dose affect how nitrates work?

A
  • lower doses act on veins
  • higher doses act on arterioles
  • GTN is highly lipid-soluble so can be given via the transdermal route
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13
Q

What are the SEs of nitrates?

A

Headache, flushing, postural hypotension and tachycardia

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14
Q

How does nitrate tolerance occur?

A

Due to depletion of sulphyldryl groups

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15
Q

Can nitrates cause methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Yes

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16
Q

How do nitrates like GTN and isosorbide mononitrate work?

A

They produce vasodilation of primarily venous vessels. This increases venous capacitance and reduces preload.

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17
Q

What is sodium nitroprusside? (SNP)

A

A directly acting vasodilator (produces NO which acts on G protein coupled receptors, activating guanylate cyclase and increasing intracellular cGMP levels to cause vasodilation)

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18
Q

How is SNP given and where does it act?

A
  • given only parenterally
  • rapid onset and offset
  • acts on arterioles and venules
  • increases ICP but autoregulation maintained
  • activates renin/angiotensin system and increases plasma catecholamines which can cause rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly
  • hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction can be inhibited causing shunt
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19
Q

What are the SEs of SNP?

A
  • reacts with oxyHb in RBCs to form cyanide, nitric oxide and methaemoglobin
  • high infusion rates can cause cyanide accumulation
  • methaemoglobin can react with cyanide to form cyanmethaemoglobin
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20
Q

Why is SNP kept in foil-covered syringes?

A
  • broken down into cyanide on exposure to light
21
Q

How many cyanide ions per molecule of SNP?

A

Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]·2H2O so 5 cyanide ions per molecule of SNP

22
Q

How does magnesium work in pre-eclampsia?

A

Mechanism unknown but possibly due to preventing cerebral vasospasm

23
Q

What is the MOA of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • blocks L-type Ca2+ channels and reduces Ca2+ entry into cells
  • causes vasodilation, reduces myocardial contractility, reduced propagation of cardiac depolarization
24
Q

What are the subgroups of calcium channel blocking agents?

A

Phenylalkylamines – Verapamil

  • used as anti-arrhythmics

Dihydropyridines – Nifedipine, Amlodipine

  • mainly cause arteriolar vasodilatation. Used as antihypertensive and anti-anginal

Benzothiazepines – Diltiazem

  • affect peripheral and myocardial Ca2+ channels. More often used as an anti-anginal
25
Q

What are the SEs of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • headache
  • flushing
  • tachycardia
  • postural hypotension
  • ankle oedema
26
Q

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A
  • high dose
    • inhibits sodium and chloride ion reabsorption in distal tubule of kideny
  • low dose
    • activates potassium channels which cause hyperpolarization and relaxation
27
Q

What do thiazide diuretics do?

A

Mimic the effect of sodium restriction.

Initially CO drops but then recovers and SVR is reduced due to low intracellular sodium ions.

28
Q

What are the SEs of thiazide diuretics?

A
  • potassium depletion
  • adverse effects of lipid metabolism
29
Q

What are the subgroups of ACE-i and angiotensin II-receptor antagonists?

A
  1. Active drug, metabolized to active metabolites - captopril
  2. Pro drugs activated in liver - ramipril
  3. Active drugs excreted unchanged in urine - lisinopril
30
Q

What are the SEs of ACEi and angiotensin II antagonists?

A
  • Transient hypotension can occur on initiation of treatment
  • Renal failure in presence of renal artery stenosis particularly with NSAIDs
  • Reduced aldosterone can cause hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia
  • Dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin
  • Proteinuria
  • Angio-oedema and bone marrow suppression are rare
31
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for treating essential hypertension in those <55yrs?

A

1st line

  • ACEi or angiotensin II inhibitor

2nd line

  • calcium channel blocker or thiazide diuretic
32
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for treating essential hypertension in >55yrs or black patients?

A

1st line

  • calcium channel blocker or thiazide diuretic

2nd line

  • ACEi or angiotensin II inhibitor (HTN in black population usually resistant to ACEi)
33
Q

What common agents are used for deliberate perioperative hypotension?

A
  • GTN
  • alpha1 adreno-receptor blockers
  • beta adreno-receptor blockers

(rarely SNP or hydralazine)

34
Q

What antihypertensives are used in pregnancy?

A
  • defined as new HTN after 20weeks gestation
  • moderate hypertension (oral)
    • methyldopa
    • labetalol
    • nifedipine
  • severe hypertension
    • labetalol po
    • nifedipine po
    • magnesium IV
    • hydralazine IV
    • labetalol IV
35
Q

What does B2 receptor activation do to SVR?

A

Causes vasodilation so reduces SVR

36
Q

How does ANP affect SVR?

A

ANP stimulates guanylyl cyclase and increases smooth muscle relaxation

37
Q

What effect does alpha 1 receptor activation cause on SVR?

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction

38
Q

What does angiotensin II do to SVR?

A

Increases it, by acting on AT1 receptors causing ateriolar vasoconstriction

39
Q

What are the side effects of clonidine?

A
  • dry mouth
  • sedation
  • depression
  • reduced gastric motility
  • reduced cerebral perfusion
40
Q

What is the does of clonidine given via epidural route?

A

30 micrograms/hr

41
Q

What is clonidine?

A

An alpha 2 agonist (has some alpha 1 agonist action)

42
Q

How does SNP affect cerebral autoregulation?

A

Cerebral autoregulation is maintained.

43
Q

How does nifedipine affect the MAC of volatile agents?

A

It reduces it

44
Q

How does nifedipine affect thromboxane production?

A

It inhibits it

45
Q

What is hydralazine metabolized to?

A

Acetylated and hydroxylated metabolites

46
Q

How does hydralazine work?

A

Increases intracellular cGMP

47
Q

Can hydralazine be given to pregnant women?

A

Yes

48
Q

Can hydralazine be given orally?

A

Yes but it’s bioavailability is variable, from 25-55%

49
Q
A