VERTEBRAL COLUMN MERRILLS STUDY GUIDE Flashcards by Anjiya Budhwani

All are functions of the vertebral column, except:

a. supports the trunk.
b. protects the spinal cord.
c. supports the skull.
d. produces cerebrospinal fluid.

d. produces cerebrospinal fluid.

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The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:

a. sacroiliac joint.
b. pubic symphysis.
c. acetabulum.
d. L5-S1 joint.

a. sacroiliac joint.

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At birth, how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?

a. 24
b. 27
c. 33
d. 54

c. 33

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How many vertebrae are there in the sacrum?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

c. 5

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When viewed from the side, the vertebral column should present how many curves?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

c. 4

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An abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine is termed:

a. scoliosis.
b. spondylosis.
c. lordosis.
d. kyphosis.

d. kyphosis.

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An abnormally increased concavity of the lumbar spine is termed:

a. lordosis.
b. kyphosis.
c. scoliosis.
d. scoliokyphosis.

a. lordosis.

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An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed:

a. scoliosis.
b. kyphosis.
c. lordosis.
d. scoliokyphosis.

a. scoliosis.

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The short, thick processes that project posteriorly on each side of a vertebral body are called
the:

a. pedicles.
b. laminae.
c. transverse processes.
d. spinous processes.

a. pedicles.

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The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the _____
joints.

a. costovertebral
b. costotransverse
c. intervertebral
d. zygapophyseal

d. zygapophyseal

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The condition in which an intervertebral disk “slips” and protrudes into the vertebral canal is called:

a. vertebrogenesis.
b. spondylolysis.
c. spondylolisthesis.
d. herniated nucleus pulposus.

d. herniated nucleus pulposus.

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Which vertebral process projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae and pedicles?

a. Spinous process
b. Transverse process
c. Superior articular process
d. Inferior articular process

a. Spinous process

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Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the spinal column through the:

a. vertebral arch.
b. vertebral notches.
c. vertebral foramen.
d. intervertebral foramina.

d. intervertebral foramina.

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The part identified in this figure is the:

a. body.
b. lamina.
c. pedicle.
d. transverse process.

c. pedicle.

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The part identified in this figure is the:

a. vertebral arch.
b. vertebral foramen.
c. intervertebral foramina.
d. transverse foramen.

b. vertebral foramen.

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The part identified in this figure is the:

a. lamina.
b. pedicle.
c. superior articular process.
d. inferior articular process.

c. superior articular process.

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The first cervical vertebra is called the:

a. axis.
b. atlas.
c. dens.
d. vertebra prominens.

b. atlas.

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18. The vertebra prominens is the name given to the _____ vertebra. a. first cervical b. second cervical c. seventh cervical d. first thoracic

c. seventh cervical

19. The part identified by the arrow on the vertebra in this figure is the: a. superior articular process. b. inferior articular process. c. transverse process. d. facet.

d. facet.

20. The openings in the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the vertebral artery and vein are called the: a. transverse foramen. b. vertebral foramina. c. intervertebral foramina. d. inferior vertebral notch.

a. transverse foramen.

21. The bony part identified in this figure is the: a. spinous process. b. transverse process. c. pedicle. d. lamina.

b. transverse process.

22. The bony part identified in this figure is the: a. lamina. b. pedicle. c. superior articular process. d. inferior articular process.

a. lamina.

23. The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine open: a. laterally. b. 45 degrees anteriorly. c. 70 degrees anteriorly. d. 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly.

d. 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly.

24. The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique d. PA oblique

b. Lateral

25. How many thoracic vertebrae have a small concave facet on the transverse process, for articulation with the tubercle of a rib? a. 7 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

c. 10

26. The zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the midsagittal plane? a. 45 b. 90 c. 15 to 20 d. 70 to 75

d. 70 to 75

27. How much is the body rotated from the lateral position to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic region? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 15 to 20 degrees d. 70 to 75 degrees

c. 15 to 20 degrees

28. The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. PA oblique d. AP oblique

b. Lateral

29. The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the midsagittal plane? a. 45 b. 90 c. 15 to 20 d. 70 to 75

b. 90

30. The part identified on the lumbar vertebra in this figure is the: a. superior vertebral notch. b. inferior vertebral notch. c. superior articular process. d. inferior articular process.

a. superior vertebral notch.

31. The zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine form an angle of how many degrees from the posterior midsagittal plane? a. 40 to 60 b. 15 to 20 c. 30 to 50 d. 70 to 75

c. 30 to 50

32. The intervertebral foramina of the superior four lumbar vertebrae are situated how many degrees from the midsagittal plane? a. 90 b. 15 to 20 c. 30 to 50 d. 70 to 75

a. 90

33. The condition of the lumbar spine in which there is anterior displacement of one vertebra over another is termed: a. scoliosis. b. spondylolysis. c. spondylolisthesis. d. scoliokyphosis.

c. spondylolisthesis.

34. On each side of the sacral base is a large winglike mass called the: a. ala. b. base. c. promontory. d. superior articular process.

a. ala.

35. The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is _____ degrees. a. 10 to 15 b. 15 to 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 45 to 50

c. 25 to 30

36. The x-ray projection demonstrated in this figure is the: a. AP cervical spine. b. AP axial cervical spine. c. AP, open mouth, atlas and axis. d. AP, Fuchs method, atlas and axis.

c. AP, open mouth, atlas and axis.

37. Where should the center of the IR be positioned for the “open mouth” AP projection of the atlas and axis? a. To the “Adam’s apple” b. First cervical vertebra c. Second cervical vertebra d. Fourth cervical vertebra

c. Second cervical vertebra

38. Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP “open mouth” atlas and axis? a. Glabellomeatal line b. Orbitomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process

d. A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process

39. For which projection is the patient instructed to softly phonate “ah” during the exposure? a. Lateral cervical vertebrae b. AP “open mouth” atlas and axis c. AP dens, Fuchs method d. AP axial cervical spine

b. AP “open mouth” atlas and axis

40. Where is the central ray directed for an “open mouth” AP projection of the atlas and axis? a. Perpendicular through the open mouth b. Perpendicular to the acanthion c. Parallel to the acanthiomeatal line d. Parallel to the orbitomeatal line

a. Perpendicular through the open mouth

41. The respiration phase for the “open mouth” AP projection of the atlas and axis is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. softly phonate “ah” during the exposure.

d. softly phonate “ah” during the exposure.

42. Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum? a. Grandy b. Fuchs c. Twining d. Pawlow

b. Fuchs

43. Which of the following describes the anatomy of interest for the Fuchs method? a. AP, dens b. AP, atlas and axis c. AP, cervicothoracic region d. Lateral, cervicothoracic region

a. AP, dens

44. Where is the center of the IR positioned for the AP projection of the dens, Fuchs method? a. Acanthion b. Mental point c. External acoustic meatus d. Tip of the mastoid process

d. Tip of the mastoid process

45. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP projection of the dens, Fuchs method? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 15 degrees cephalad d. 20 degrees cephalad

a. 0 degrees

46. Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the tabletop for the AP axial cervical vertebrae? a. Glabellomeatal line b. Orbitomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. The occlusal plane

d. The occlusal plane

47. Where is the IR centered for an AP axial cervical spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

48. The central-ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is: a. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad. b. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad. c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad. d. variable, depending on the body habitus.

c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad.

49. Where is the IR centered for a lateral cervical spine (Grandy method)? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

50. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral cervical spine? a. Third cervical vertebra b. Fourth cervical vertebra c. Fifth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

b. Fourth cervical vertebra

51. What is the recommended SID for the lateral cervical spine (Grandy method)? a. 40 inches b. 48 inches c. 40 to 55 inches d. 60 to 72 inches

d. 60 to 72 inches

52. The respiration phase for a lateral cervical spine is: a. full expiration. b. full inspiration. c. suspended respiration. d. softly phonate “ah” during the exposure.

a. full expiration.

53. The Grandy method is a(n): a. lateral projection of the cervical vertebrae. b. lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region. c. AP/PA thoracolumbar spine. d. lateral thoracolumbar spine.

a. lateral projection of the cervical vertebrae.

54. Where is the central ray centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

55. The phase of respiration for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine is: a. shallow breathing. b. suspended respiration. c. full expiration. d. full inspiration.

b. suspended respiration.

56. Which projections of the cervical spine will demonstrate the lower five zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Lateral 2. Lateral in hyperflexion 3. Lateral in hyperextension a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

57. Where is the IR centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral projection of the cervical spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

58. How much is the body rotated for an AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. 45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 70 degrees d. 40 to 60 degrees

a. 45 degrees

59. What is the central-ray angle for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. 15 degrees cephalad b. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad d. Perpendicular

b. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

60. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on an AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine? a. Those farthest from the IR b. Those closest to the IR c. Both sides equally demonstrated d. The inferior six closest to the IR

a. Those farthest from the IR

61. Where is the central ray directed for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

62. What is the recommended SID for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine? a. 40 to 48 inches b. 48 to 60 inches c. 54 to 62 inches d. 60 to 72 inches

d. 60 to 72 inches

63. Where is the central ray directed for a PA axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra

c. Fourth cervical vertebra

64. What is the central-ray angle for the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. 45 degrees cephalad b. 45 degrees caudad c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad d. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

d. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

65. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine? a. Those closest to the IR b. Those farthest from the IR c. Both sides are equally demonstrated d. The inferior side farthest from the IR

a. Those closest to the IR

66. The respiration phase for an AP or PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine is: a. shallow breathing. b. suspended respiration. c. full inspiration. d. full expiration.

b. suspended respiration.

67. Which of the following methods uses a chewing motion of the mandible to demonstrate the cervical spine in an AP projection? a. Ottonello b. Grandy c. Twining d. Fuchs

a. Ottonello

68. Which projection is recommended to demonstrate the cervical vertebral arches or pillars when the patient cannot hyperextend the neck? a. AP axial b. PA axial c. AP axial oblique with right and left head rotation d. Lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position

c. AP axial oblique with right and left head rotation

69. How is the neck positioned for the AP axial projection of the vertebral arch (pillars)? a. With the occlusal plane perpendicular to the image receptor b. With the occlusal plane parallel to the image receptor c. In hyperextension d. In hyperflexion

c. In hyperextension

70. What is the central-ray angulation for an AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine on a trauma patient? a. 15 to 20 degrees caudad b. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad c. 30 to 40 degrees caudad d. 30 to 40 degrees cephalad

c. 30 to 40 degrees caudad

71. Where does the central ray exit for the AP axial oblique projection to demonstrate the cervical spine pillars and laminae? a. C4 b. C5 c. C7 d. T2

c. C7

72. Which of the following will demonstrate the cervicothoracic region in the lateral projection? a. Ottonello method b. Swimmer’s technique c. Ferguson method d. Fuchs method

b. Swimmer’s technique

73. The swimmer’s technique demonstrates the cervicothoracic region in which projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP axial d. AP axial oblique

b. Lateral

74. The swimmer’s technique lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the: a. cervical vertebrae. b. thoracic vertebrae. c. atlas and axis. d. cervicothoracic vertebrae.

d. cervicothoracic vertebrae.

75. Where is the IR centered for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s technique)? a. C5 b. C6 c. C6-C7 interspace d. C7-T1 interspace

d. C7-T1 interspace

76. What is the central-ray angulation for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s technique) when the shoulder can be depressed? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees caudad

a. 0 degrees

77. Where is the central ray directed for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s technique)? a. C4 b. C5 c. C6-C7 interspace d. C7-T1 interspace

d. C7-T1 interspace

78. When the shoulder is immobile and cannot be depressed sufficiently for the cervicothoracic region lateral projection (swimmer’s technique), the central ray is angled: a. 10 to 20 degrees cephalad. b. 10 to 20 degrees caudad. c. 3 to 5 degrees caudad. d. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.

c. 3 to 5 degrees caudad.

79. For the cervicothoracic region lateral projection (swimmer’s technique), the recommended position of the humeral head closest to the IR is moved: a. anteriorly. b. posteriorly. c. medially. d. laterally.

a. anteriorly.

80. Where should the superior edge of the IR/collimated field be placed for an AP projection of the thoracic vertebrae? a. 1 inch above the shoulders b. 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders c. 1 to 2 inches below the shoulders d. At the level of the shoulders

b. 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders

81. Which of the following should be performed to place the back in contact with the table for an AP thoracic spine? 1. Flex the hips. 2. Flex the knees. 3. Flex the cervical spine. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

a. 1 and 2

82. Where should the cathode end of an x-ray be placed for an AP thoracic spine to take advantage of the “heel effect” of the tube? a. Toward the head b. Toward the feet c. Head or foot end d. Variable, depending on body habitus

b. Toward the feet

83. Where should the arms be placed for a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. Over the head b. Flexed in front of the thorax c. At right angles to the long axis of the body d. Variable, depending on body habitus

c. At right angles to the long axis of the body

84. What is the central-ray angulation for the lateral projection of the thoracic spine if the vertebral column is not elevated to a horizontal plane? a. 3 to 5 degrees caudad b. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad

d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad

85. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine? a. Level of T5 b. Level of T7 c. Level of T9 d. Level of T10

b. Level of T7

86. If a lead rubber sheet is not placed on the table when performing a lateral projection of the thoracic spine, the image may be: a. underexposed. b. overexposed. c. too high in contrast. d. too low in contrast.

a. underexposed.

87. Which positioning maneuver helps to reduce the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine for the AP projection? a. Flexing the hips and knees b. Abducting the legs 45 degrees c. Raising the arms overhead d. Arms in right angle abduction, elbows flexed

a. Flexing the hips and knees

88. Where is the central ray directed for an AP lumbosacral spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. Iliac crests d. The ASIS

c. Iliac crests

89. Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the lumbosacral spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. The ASIS d. The iliac crests

d. The iliac crests

90. The phase of respiration for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is: a. suspended respiration. b. deep inspiration. c. deep expiration. d. shallow breathing.

a. suspended respiration.

91. Which of the following planes is placed perpendicular to the tabletop and centered to the midline of the grid for a lateral lumbar spine? a. Horizontal plane b. Midcoronal plane c. Midsagittal plane d. Transverse plane

b. Midcoronal plane

92. All of the following might be used to provide an optimal image on a lateral projection of the lumbar spine, except: a. close collimation. b. sponge to support spine in horizontal position. c. 72-inch SID. d. leaded rubber sheet.

c. 72-inch SID.

93. Where is a 14 X 17 inch (35 X 43 cm) exposure field centered for a lateral lumbar spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. The ASIS d. The iliac crests

d. The iliac crests

94. If the lumbar spine cannot be adjusted so it is horizontal for the lateral projection, the central ray should be angled: a. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, cephalad. b. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, caudad. c. 8 degrees men, 12 degrees women, cephalad. d. 8 degrees men, 12 degrees women, caudad.

a. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, cephalad.

95. Which of the following will prevent the AEC detector from prematurely terminating the exposure during a lateral lumbar spine? a. Using a 10 X 12 inch (24 X 30 cm) exposure field b. Using a 14 X 17 inch (35 X 43 cm) exposure field c. Collimating a 2-inch border from the IR edges d. Placing a sheet of lead rubber on the table behind the patient

d. Placing a sheet of lead rubber on the table behind the patient

96. Which of the following describes the central-ray centering point for the L5-S1 lateral projection? a. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS b. 3 inches posterior to the ASIS c. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1.5 inches below the iliac crest d. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 2 inches below the iliac crest

c. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1.5 inches below the iliac crest

97. An alternate method of positioning the central ray for the L5-S1 lateral projection is: a. parallel with the interiliac line. b. perpendicular to the interiliac line. c. parallel with the midsagittal plane. d. perpendicular to the midcoronal plane.

a. parallel with the interiliac line.

98. Which of the following is the essential projection used to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique d. PA

c. AP oblique.

99. To demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine, MSP of the patient is rotated _____ degrees. a. 30 b. 45 c. 50 d. 55

b. 45

100. Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine? a. Joints farthest from the IR b. Joints closest to the IR c. Both joints equally demonstrated d. The L1 to L4 joints closest to the IR

b. Joints closest to the IR

101. Where is the longitudinal plane of the lumbar spine positioned for the AP oblique projection? a. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS b. 2 inches lateral to the elevated ASIS c. 2 inches medial to the lower ASIS d. 2 inches lateral to the lower ASIS

a. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS

102. The respiration phase for the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. shallow breathing.

b. expiration.

103. What is the central-ray centering point for an AP oblique lumbar spine? a. At MSP at the level of the ASIS b. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS at the level of the iliac crest c. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS and 1 to 1.5 inches above the iliac crest d. 2 inches lateral to the elevated ASIS and 2 inches above the iliac crest

c. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS and 1 to 1.5 inches above the iliac crest

104. Which projection of the lumbar spine displays the vertebrae in the form of a “Scottie dog”? 1. Lateral 2. AP oblique 3. PA oblique a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

105. What is the central-ray angle for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction? a. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad b. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad c. 35 to 45 degrees cephalad d. 40 to 50 degrees cephalad

b. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad

106. How are the lower limbs positioned for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction? a. Extended b. Flexed c. Externally rotated d. Internally rotated

a. Extended

107. Where does the central ray enter the body for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1.5 inches superior to the pubic symphysis c. 2 to 2.5 inches superior to the ASIS d. At the level of the ASISs

b. 1.5 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

108. The projection demonstrated in this figure is the: a. AP oblique, sacroiliac joint. b. PA oblique, sacroiliac joint. c. AP oblique, lumbar spine. d. PA oblique, lumbar spine.

a. AP oblique, sacroiliac joint.

109. How many degrees is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint? a. 20 to 25 b. 25 to 30 c. 30 to 35 d. 35 to 40

b. 25 to 30

110. Which plane is centered to the midline of the grid when positioning for an AP oblique sacroiliac joint? a. Midcoronal plane b. Midsagittal plane c. Longitudinal plane 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS d. Longitudinal plane 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS

c. Longitudinal plane 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS

111. The central-ray angle for an AP oblique sacroiliac joint is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees caudad.

a. 0 degrees.

112. The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum is: a. 10 degrees caudad. b. 10 degrees cephalad. c. 15 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees cephalad.

d. 15 degrees cephalad.

113. Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum? a. 2 inches at the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch inferior to the symphysis c. 1 inch at the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

114. Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a sacrum radiography, and a PA projection performed. What is the central-ray angle for this projection? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 15 degrees cephalad

b. 15 degrees caudad

115. The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the coccyx is: a. 10 degrees caudad. b. 15 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 15 degrees cephalad.

a. 10 degrees caudad.

116. Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis c. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis d. 3 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

c. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

117. Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a PA projection of the coccyx. What is the central-ray angle for this projection? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees cephalad

b. 10 degrees cephalad

118. Where is the central ray positioned for a lateral sacrum? a. At the level of the ASIS and 3.5 inches posterior b. At the level of the ASIS and 4 inches posterior c. 3 inches inferior to the iliac crest d. 4 inches inferior to the iliac crest

a. At the level of the ASIS and 3.5 inches posterior

119. Where is the central ray positioned for a lateral coccyx? a. 3 inches posterior to ASIS and 1 inch inferior b. 3.5 inches posterior to ASIS and 2 inches inferior c. 4 inches inferior to the iliac crest d. 5 inches inferior to the iliac crest

b. 3.5 inches posterior to ASIS and 2 inches inferior

120. Which of the following devices should be used to improve image quality on the lateral projection of the sacrum or coccyx? 1. Sandbags 2. Close collimation 3. Sheet of leaded rubber a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

c. 2 and 3

121. In reference to the ASIS, where is the central-ray entrance for a lateral coccyx? a. 3.5 inches (9 cm) posterior and 2 inches (5 cm) inferior b. 3.5 inches (9 cm) anterior and 2 inches (5 cm) superior c. 2 inches (5 cm) posterior and 3 inches (9 cm) inferior d. 2 inches (5 cm) anterior and 3 inches (9 cm) superior

a. 3.5 inches (9 cm) posterior and 2 inches (5 cm) inferior

122. The central-ray angle for a lateral coccyx and sacrum is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad.

a. 0 degrees.

123. Which of the following techniques should be utilized to decrease radiation dose during scoliosis radiography? 1. Close collimation 2. Breast shields 3. PA projection a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

124. Which of the following methods is used to evaluate the thoracic and lumbar spine during scoliosis radiography? a. Pawlow b. Ferguson c. Twining d. Lindblom

b. Ferguson

125. The part identified in this figure is the a. ala. b. base. c. promontory. d. first sacral segment.

b. base.

126. How many true, or movable, vertebrae are there in the vertebral column? a. 7 b. 12 c. 24 d. 33

c. 24

127. The vertebral body and the vertebral arch surround a space called the: a. lamina. b. vertebral notch. c. vertebral foramen. d. intervertebral foramina.

c. vertebral foramen.

128. Spina bifida is a congenital deformity of the vertebral column in which the _____ fail to unite posteriorly. a. arches b. bodies c. pedicles d. lamina

d. lamina

129. The articulating surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are covered with fibrocartilage. These surfaces are called: a. facets. b. notches. c. foramens. d. tubercles.

a. facets.

130. The articulating facet on the inferior articular process of the vertebrae is located on its _____ surface. a. posterior b. anterior c. superior d. inferior

b. anterior

131. The articulating facet on the superior articular process of the vertebrae is located on its _____ surface. a. inferior b. superior c. anterior d. posterior

d. posterior

132. Which vertebra contains both an anterior and a posterior arch? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral

a. Cervical

133. The vertebral foramen of the first cervical vertebra contains the: 1. dens. 2. facets. 3. spinal cord. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3

134. The second cervical vertebra is called the: a. dens. b. atlas. c. axis. d. vertebra prominens.

c. axis.

135. How many foramina are located in each cervical vertebra? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

c. Three

136. The superior and inferior articular processes of the cervical spine form thick columns called the: a. facets. b. laminae. c. pedicles. d. articular pillars.

d. articular pillars.

137. Which thoracic vertebrae contain only a single costal facet on each side of its body? a. T1, T2 b. T1, T2, T3 c. T11, T12 d. T10, T11, T12

d. T10, T11, T12

138. Which thoracic vertebrae contain costal facets on the transverse process? a. T1-T3 b. T1-T9 c. T1-T10 d. T1-T12

c. T1-T10

139. The part identified on the vertebra above is the a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. transverse process. d. superior articular process.

b. lamina.

140. The part identified on the vertebrae above is the a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. mammillary process.

d. mammillary process.

141. The part identified on the lumbar vertebra above is the: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. facet. d. transverse process.

c. facet.

142. The part of the lamina that lies between the superior and inferior articular processes on a typical lumbar vertebra is called the a. transverse process. b. pars interarticularis. c. accessory process. d. mammillary process.

b. pars interarticularis.

143. All of the joints of the vertebral column are synovial—freely movable—except one. Which joint is not? a. Intervertebral b. Zygapophyseal c. Costovertebral d. Costotransverse

a. Intervertebral

144. The intervertebral joints of the spinal column are classified as: a. fibrous syndesmosis. b. cartilaginous symphysis. c. synovial gliding. d. synovial pivot.

b. cartilaginous symphysis.

145. The zygapophyseal joints of the vertebral column are classified as: a. synovial gliding. b. synovial pivot. c. synovial ellipsoidal. d. cartilaginous symphysis.

a. synovial gliding.

146. What is the projection and anatomy of interest in the figure below? a. AP oblique cervical spine b. PA axial cervical spine c. Lateral cervical spine d. AP axial cervical spine

d. AP axial cervical spine

147. Which projection of the vertebral column is depicted in the figure below? a. Lateral cervical spine b. Lateral cervicothoracic spine c. AP axial oblique cervical spine d. Oblique thoracic spine

b. Lateral cervicothoracic spine

148. Where is the central ray centered on the patient to obtain the image below? a. MCP at the level of C7-T1 b. MCP at the level of T1-T2 c. MSP at the level of C7-T1 d. MSP at the level of C7-T2

a. MCP at the level of C7-T1

149. To reduce distortion of the intervertebral joint spaces of the lumbar spine for an AP projection, an SID of _____ inches is suggested. a. 36 b. 40 c. 48 d. 72

c. 48

150. When only the lumbar vertebrae (not lumbosacral) are imaged in the AP projection, the central ray is directed _____ inches above the iliac crests. a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. 1.5

151. One fourth of the length of the vertebral column is made up of the: a. vertebral bodies. b. intervertebral disks. c. transverse processes. d. intervertebral foramina.

b. intervertebral disks.

152. What type of compensating filter is suggested for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a. Wedge b. Double wedge c. Trough d. Boomerang

a. Wedge

153. A fracture of the anterior arch of C2 due to hyperextension is termed a _____ fracture. a. Pott b. Jefferson c. Hangman d. clay-shoveler

c. Hangman

154. The average range of the angle of the L4-S1 zygapophyseal joints are _____ degrees. a. 0 to 30 b. 0 to 45 c. 15 to 45 d. 45 to 60

d. 45 to 60

155. The average range of the angle of the L1-L3 zygapophyseal joints are _____ degrees. a. 0 to 30 b. 0 to 35 c. 15 to 45 d. 45 to 60

a. 0 to 30

156. What projection and position are demonstrated in the image below? a. Lateral, left lateral in hyperflexion b. Lateral, left lateral in hyperextension c. AP, hyperflexion d. AP, hyperextension

a. Lateral, left lateral in hyperflexion

157. Examine this AP oblique projection image. What patient position was required to obtain this image? a. 25 to 30 degree LPO b. 25 to 30 degree RPO c. 30 to 45 degree LPO d. 30 to 45 degree RPO

b. 25 to 30 degree RPO

158. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below? a. Occipital base b. Lateral mass of C1 c. Dens of C2 d. Body of C2

c. Dens of C2

159. What anatomy is labeled with the letter E in the image below? a. Occipital base b. Lateral mass of C1 c. Dens of C2 d. Body of C2

b. Lateral mass of C1

160. What anatomy is labeled with the letter D in the image below? a. T1 b. C5 c. C7 d. T2

c. C7

161. What anatomy is labeled with the letter A in the image below? a. Zygapophyseal joint of C4-C5 b. Zygapophyseal joint of C5-C6 c. Intervertebral foramen of C4-C5 d. Intervertebral foramen of C5-C6

c. Intervertebral foramen of C4-C5

162. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below? a. Intervertebral disk space of C6-C7 b. Intervertebral foramen of C6-C7 c. Intervertebral disk space of C7-T1 d. Intervertebral foramen of C7-T1

a. Intervertebral disk space of C6-C7

163. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below? a. Lamina of C6 b. Pedicle of C6 c. Lamina of C5 d. Pedicle of C5

b. Pedicle of C6

164. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below? a. Body of L2 b. Body of L3 c. Pedicle of L2 d. Pedicle of L3

a. Body of L2

165. What anatomy is labeled with the letter D in the image below? a. Intervertebral foramen of L4-L5 b. Zygapophyseal joint of L4-L5 c. Intervertebral foramen of L3-L4 d. Zygapophyseal joint of L3-L4

c. Intervertebral foramen of L3-L4

166. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below? a. Intervertebral foramen of L2-L3 b. Intervertebral disk space of L2-L3 c. Intervertebral foramen of L3-L4 d. Intervertebral disk space of L3-L4

b. Intervertebral disk space of L2-L3

167. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below? a. L2-L3 zygapophyseal joint b. L2-L3 intervertebral foramen c. L1-L2 zygapophyseal joint d. L1-L2 intervertebral foramen

c. L1-L2 zygapophyseal joint

168. What anatomy is labeled with the letter E in the image below? a. L2 pedicle b. L2 lamina c. L3 pedicle d. L3 lamina

c. L3 pedicle

169. If this is an AP oblique projection, what is the patient position in the image below? a. 45 degree RPO b. 45 degree LPO c. 45 degree RAO d. 45 degree LAO

a. 45 degree RPO

170. What anatomy is demonstrated in this AP oblique projection in the image below? a. Right SI joint b. Left SI joint c. L5-S1 joint space d. L5-S1 zygapophyseal joint

b. Left SI joint

171. What anatomy and projection is demonstrated in the image below? a. AP axial sacrum b. AP oblique SI joints c. AP coccyx d. AP axial lumbosacral junction (Ferguson method)

a. AP axial sacrum

172. How is the central ray directed to obtain this image? a. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad b. 15 to 20 degrees caudad c. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad d. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

a. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

173. Letter A in the image below labels the _____ body. a. C2 b. C3 c. C4 d. C5

c. C4

174. Letter B in the image below labels the a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. transverse process.

c. spinous process.

175. A radiograph of an AP open-mouth C-spine projection reveals that the upper incisors are projected over the dens. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? a. The neck was hyperextended. b. The neck was hyperflexed. c. The neck was rotated to the left. d. The neck was rotated to the right.

b. The neck was hyperflexed.

176. A radiograph of an AP open-mouth C-spine projection reveals the base of the skull is projected over the dens. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?

a. The neck was hyperextended.

178. Which two vertebral areas have a lordotic curve? (Select all that apply.) a. Sacral b. Lumbar c. Thoracic d. Cervical

ANS: B, D

177. A patient has pain and an abnormal growth in the upper thoracic area. The physician orders a thoracic spine series. The lateral projection of the thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect is obscured by the patient’s

a. Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer’s) lateral projection.

179. Which two vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve? (Select all that apply.) a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacrococcygeal

ANS: B, D

180. A typical vertebra is composed of which two main parts? (Select all that apply.) a. Lamina b. Vertebral foramen c. Body d. Vertebral arch

ANS: C, D

181. The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine are demonstrated on which two of the following projections? (Select all that apply.) a. AP axial b. Lateral c. AP axial oblique d. PA axial oblique

ANS: C, D

182. Which two of the following devices are necessary to obtain optimal image quality on a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? (Select all that apply.) a. Close collimation b. IR holder c. Compression band d. Leaded rubber sheet

ANS: A, D

183. Which two breathing techniques can be used for a lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae? (Select all that apply.) a. Suspended after full inhalation b. Suspended respiration c. Quiet breathing d. Rapid, shallow panting

ANS: B, C

184. Which two projections will demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint? (Select all that apply.) a. AP oblique, RPO position b. AP oblique, LPO position c. PA oblique, RAO position d. PA oblique, LAO position

ANS: B, C

185. Which two projections of the spine are improved significantly with the use of a compensating filter? (Select all that apply.) a. AP axial cervical b. Lateral sacrum/coccyx c. AP thoracic d. Lateral cervicothoracic (swimmer’s)

ANS: C, D

186. Which two of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the T-Spine? (Select all that apply.) a. T1-T12 b. Open zygapophyseal joints c. Open intervertebral disk spaces d. Ribs superimposed posteriorly

ANS: C, D

187. For the AP axial C-Spine Radiograph, which two of the following demonstrates no rotation on the image? (Select all that apply.) a. Spinous processes equidistant to the pedicles b. Spinous processes aligned with the midline of the cervical bodies c. Superimposed zygapophyseal joints d. Dens, atlas and axis

ANS: A, B

188. A novice technologist performed suboptimal images of the thoracic spine. What can the technologist do to improve the radiographic quality of the images? (Select all that apply.) a. Place a sheet of leaded rubber on the table behind the patient. b. Use a 40 inch SID. c. Place support under the waist. d. Close collimation.

ANS: A, D

189. Which two of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.) a. For an AP projection of the thoracic spine, knees and hips should be extended to reduce thoracic curvature. b. For a lateral projection of the thoracic spine, the patient's anterior half should be aligned to CR. c. For the lateral projection of the thoracic spine, the central ray is directed perpendicular to T7. d. For an AP projection of the thoracic spine, exposure is made after breathing is suspended at the end of expiration.

ANS: C, D

190. Which are advantages of PA projection over AP projection of the lumbar spine? (Select all that apply.) a. It places the intervertebral disk spaces almost parallel to the divergent beam of radiation. b. It reduces radiation dose to the patient. c. Provides an increased object image receptor distance of the lumbar vertebrae. d. It increases radiation dose to the patient.

ANS: A, B

191. Which of the following are performed at a 60 to 72 inch (152- to 183-cm) SID? (Select all that apply.) a. AP “open-mouth” C-spine b. AP/PA axial oblique C-spine c. Lateral “Grandy” C-spine d. Lateral “Hyperflexion and Hyperextension” C-spine

ANS: B, C, D

VERTEBRAL COLUMN MERRILLS STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

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