Vertigo, Hearing Loss & N/V-Drugs Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

name 3 major classes of drugs that have ototoxicity

A

aminoglycosides
cisplatin
loop diuretics

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2
Q

name the drug class: causes ototoxicity that is usually not reversible; possible improvement w/ N-acetylcysteine; dose dependent

A

aminoglycosides

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3
Q

which class of drugs produces irreversible ototoxicity?

A

cytostatic drugs (cisplatin)

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4
Q

is the ototoxicity with loop diuretics reversible?

A

can be irreversible

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5
Q

are most of the drugs that cause ototoxicity reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

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6
Q

which drug class enters into outer hair cell –> cell death by either caspase-dependent or caspase independent mechanisms?

A

aminoglycoside

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7
Q

which drug enters outer hair cells and results in cell death, which appears to be primarily caspase-dependent?

A

cisplatin

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8
Q

how do the loop diuretics cause ototoxicity?

A

interfering with the production and maintenance of endolymph in the stria vascularis

  • upset the fluid balance & this results in edema & loss of function
  • the effect is dose-rate dependent (the concentration gradient is an important factor in the penetration of drugs into this area of the body)
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9
Q

meclizine, diphenhydramine, & promethazine all work to treat vertigo via which two types of receptors?

A

H1 & M1 receptors

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10
Q

which drug is useful for nausea arising from higher brain centers mediating fear, emotion, anticipation?

A

diazepam

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11
Q

which drug used to treat vertigo has the longest duration of action?

A

scopolamine

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12
Q

diphenhydramine & promethazine are inhibitors of what CYP enzyme?

A

CYP2D6

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13
Q

what are the general adverse effects of the drugs that treat vertigo?

A

drowsiness, dizziness

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14
Q

scopolamine is an antagonist at what receptor?

A

M1

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15
Q

diphenhydramine, meclizine, & promethazine all block which 2 receptors in the treatment of vertigo?

A

H1 & M1

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16
Q

which drug used to treat vertigo has a BBW for use by injection?

A

promethazine

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17
Q

which drug used to treat vertigo has an adverse effect of fatal respiratory depression in <2 y/o?

18
Q

all 4 drugs to treat vertigo (diphenhydramine, meclizine, promethazine, & scopolamine) are all inappropriate in what pt population?

19
Q

the vomiting process appears to be coordinated by what center in the lateral retcular formation of the mid-brainstem adjacent to both the CTZ in the area postrema at the bottom of the 4th ventricle & the solitary tract nucleus?

A

central emesis center

20
Q

the lack of a BBB allows the CTZ to monitor blood & CSF constantly for toxins & to relay info to what center to trigger nausea and vomiting?

A

emesis center

21
Q

other than the CTZ, what are four other inputs to the emesis center?

A
  1. vagus nerve (via solitary tract nucleus)
  2. splanchnic afferents via the spinal cord
  3. cerebral cortex
  4. vestibular apparatus
22
Q

the CTZ has high concentrations of what 3 receptors?

A

serotonin (5-HT3), Dopamine (D2), Opioids

23
Q

the solitary tract nucleus has what 4 types of receptors?

A

Enkephalin
histamine
ACh
5-HT3

24
Q

what is the efferent component for the emesis center?

A

sends efferents to nuclei responsible for respiratory, salivary, vasomotor activity, and striated & smooth muscle involved in act of vomiting

25
what is the only 5HT-3 antagonists that has to be adjusted in hepatic disease?
ondansetron
26
all the 5HT-3 antagonists have what cardiac adverse effect?
QT-prolongation
27
ECG monitoring is recommended in pts taking which two 5HT-3 antagonists?
dolasetron or Ondansetron
28
what are the most common adverse effects of the 5-HT3 antagonists?
headache constipation diarrhea
29
the serotonin antagonists are used for CINV & PONV prophylaxis, often with what other drug class?
corticosteroid
30
which two D2 receptor antagonists are considered general purpose anti-nausea & anti-emetic drugs?
prochlorperazine | Chlorpromazine
31
Prochlorperazine & Chlorpromazine are D2 receptor antagonists and have what two other functions?
1. antihistaminic 2. anticholinergic (used in other forms of Nausea, such as motion sickness)
32
chronic use of D2 receptor antagonists can have what adverse effect?
bone marrow suppression / blood dyscrasias
33
co-administration of D2 receptor antagonists with what other drug class may cause increased CNS adverse effects?
antipsychotics
34
phenothiazines (prochlorperazine, chlorpromazine) are associated with what cardiac adverse effect?
risk of QT prolongation w/ Torsades de pointes
35
what is the MOA for aprepitant?
substance P/NK-1 receptor antagonist - central action (solitary tract) essential - peripheral effects (vagal terminals in GI tract) also contribute
36
Aprepitant is metabolized by what CYP enzyme?
CYP3A4
37
what is the name of the pro-drug substance P / NK-1 receptor antagonist that is activated by extra-hepatic metabolism?
fosaprepitant
38
MOA dronabinol
G-protein coupled decreased neuronal activity in the medullary vomiting center & solitary tract nucleus - oppose 5-HT3 mediated stim of vagal afferents - appetite stim. via CB receptors in lateral hypothalamus (lower doses than for antiemetic action)
39
emesis is most likely from what 6 anti-neoplastic drugs?
``` cisplatin mechlorethamine streptozotocin cyclophosphamide carmustine dacarbazine ```
40
what is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis against acute emesis?
serotonin receptor antagonist + corticosteroid & possibly NK-1 antagonist
41
how do corticosteroids help reduce emesis caused by antineoplastic drugs?
corticosteroids act on steroid receptors in solitary tract nucleus (reduced release o serotonin has been proposed)