vet prep Flashcards
(265 cards)
1
Q
most equine uroliths are composed of what substance
A
calcium carbonate
2
Q
mean circulating life span of a cat RBC
A
68days
3
Q
mean circulating life span of a dog RBC
A
110days
4
Q
most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs
A
immune mediated adenitis
5
Q
how many chambers in a snake heart
A
3 chambers
6
Q
zoonotic fungal pathogen in pigeon feces
A
cryptococcus
7
Q
normally found in the guttural pouch of a healthy horse
A
Streptococcus equi ssp. zooepidemicus
8
Q
4 components of teratology of fallot
A
- overriding aorta
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- pulmonic stenosis
- ventricular septal defect
leads to hypoxemia causing polycythemia
9
Q
treatment of choice for Erysipelas in chickens
A
rapid acting pens
intramuscular sodium penicillin
10
Q
You are examining a turkey flock that has been experiencing significant losses recently. Birds have been dying suddenly after exhibiting ataxia and weakness. Necropsy reveals diffuse darkening of the skin and enlarged and friable livers and spleens in affected animals. You perform an impression smear of the spleen and identify Gram-positive, slender, pleomorphic rods.
A
erysipelas
11
Q
what species does T verrucosum cause ringworm in
A
cattle
12
Q
what species does M. naanum cause ringworm in
A
pigs and llamas
13
Q
what drug can cause esophageal stricture if it remains in the esophagus for too long
A
doxycycline
14
Q
what does castration prevent the risk of in dogs in regards to the prostate
A
Castration reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostatitis.
15
Q
How many injections and at what spacing is PGF2-alpha given to synchronize a dairy cow?
A
2 injections 11-14 days apart
16
Q
neonatal rabbits need to nurse how often
A
1-2 times a day
17
Q
pigs have prolonged estrus cycles, some gilts seem to be in heat all the time… what is cause
A
high estrogen … check mycotoxins in feed could be zearalone
18
Q
2 most common uroliths in a horse
A
Calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate
19
Q
what disease??
An adult chicken in a small, back-yard flock has lost weight and is thin and sluggish. The chicken is euthanized and on necropsy, you find multiple solid-to-soft crumbly, gray nodules that range in size from less than 1 millimeter to several centimeters in size deeply embedded and throughout several organs and tissues including the liver, spleen, and intestines.
A
avian tuberculosis – acid fast staining bact
20
Q
how long is the interestrus period in cats
A
1-3 weeks
21
Q
most common histopathologic finding in
Acute serum hepatitis in horses, also known as Theiler’s Disease
A
Severe widespread hepatic necrosis
22
Q
which parrots are sexually dimorphic
A
Eclectus parrot
23
Q
how many blood groups do cattle have
A
11
24
Q
fescue toxicosis in a pregnant mare
A
decreased milk prodction
prolonged gestation
25
ratio of ECF to ICF
1:2
26
most common intestinal neoplasia in a horse
lymphosarcoma
27
A 5-year old cat presents to you with an acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as ulcerative and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. Which of the following viruses can cause this type of syndrome in cats
calicivirus
28
etiology of calf diptheria
Fusobacterium necrophorum
29
What hemagglutinin types of avian influenza virus are reportable to state and federal authorities, as well as to the World Health Organization, and can result in international importation bans on poultry products
H5
| H7
30
most effective ABx for potomac horse fever
tetracycline -- its a neorickettsial dz
31
where is aqueous production in the feline eye
ciliary body
32
when do cows ovulate
24-30 hours after the onset of estrus
| estrus is usually 8-18hours long
33
at what point is a cows placenta considered retained
12hours
34
Your client's turkey developed nasal and ocular discharge, weight loss, inappetence, and then died. You performed a necropsy and found pneumonia, multifocal necrosis in the liver and spleen, and severe pericarditis. Histopathologic findings included many basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the affected organs. What is the most likely cause of death?
chlamydia psittaci
35
ferret is intermittently dragging pelvic limbs
insulinoma
36
treatment of choice for chronic canine KCS
Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid
37
in what species do glucocorticoids cause an increase in serum ALP
dogs
38
which test has the highest negative predictive value for FIP diagnosis
rivaltas test
39
what antibiotic should you not give guinea pigs
streptomycin
40
What organ is most affected by pyrrolizidine alkaloids in the horse
liver
41
differentials for a ping on the left side of a cow
Ruminal tympany and left displaced abomasum
42
what organization regulates salmon
FDA
43
what are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, and ascites or edema
44
what virus causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
bovine herpesvirus 1
45
what is the risk of giving MLV for IBR
abortions at 5-6months gestation
| never give to neonatal calves - leads to generalized infection
46
how many forms of disease exist for IBR
6 forms
47
the latent infection of bovine herpesvirus 1 if maintained where
ganglia
48
this disease is also known as red nose
IBR / BHV1
49
what is the causative agent for infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
bovine herpesvirus 1
| infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
50
dairy cow with vulvar discharge, decreased milk production, excessive tail twitching and frequent urination
infectious pustular vulvovaginitis -- BHV1
51
acute bovine diarrhea is most common in what age range
6months - 24 months
52
T/F
| abortion can occur at any stage with BVD
true
53
congenital defects from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation
100-150 days
| includes hydrocephalus , cerebellar hypoplasia
54
persistently infected from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation
40-125 days - exposed to NCP biotype
55
how to diagnose BVD
antigen detection - detect and eliminate carriers
56
what is aminocaproic acid
anti-fibrinolytic medication listed that may promote hemostasis
57
What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria?
hypophosphatemia
58
closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve
VII - facial nerve
59
opening of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve
III - oculomotor nerve
60
most common viral cause of equine abortion
EHV1
61
vaccination protocol for EHV1
5, 7, 9 months of pregnancy
62
what is cranial nerve 1
olfactory nerve - sense of smell
63
what is cranial nerve II
optic - visual from retina to occipital lobe of the brain
64
what is cranial nerve III
oculomotor
65
CN IV
trochlear
66
CN V
trigeminal
67
CNVI
Abducens - lateral rectus and retractor bulbi
68
sensation of taste to rostral tongue
facial nerve
69
VII CN
facial nerve
70
cranial nerve that provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and some salivary glands
the facial nerve -- test with schirmer tear test
71
CN VIII
vestibulochochlear
72
Cn IX
glossopharyngeal - motor for swallowing and caudal tongue taste
73
motor to the tongue
CN XII hypoglossal
74
treatment for EIPH
lasix -- furosemide before racing (4 hours prior)
75
what nerves run near the guttural pouch
sympathetic trunk
| CN VII, IX, X, XII
76
what vessels run near the guttural pouch
internal and external carotids
| maxillary arteries
77
soft, nonpainful swelling of the throat latch in young foals
guttural pouch tympany - surgically correct
78
accumulation of exudate in the guttural pouch
GP empyema
79
what is the most common bacteria leading to guttural pouch empyema
strep zoo
80
how to treat guttural pouch empyema
aggressive lavage
| systemic and local antimicrobials
81
fungal plaques in the guttural pouch
GP mycosis -- aspergillosis -- leads to erosion
82
TX GP mycosis
surgically occlude vessel
83
most common cause of cutaneous ulcerative granulomas in the horse
habronemiasis (NEMATODE) -- summer sores
| can TX with ivermectin
84
intermediate host of habronema
stomoxy calciltrans
musca domesticas
lay L3 of the nematode in moist areas like lips, eyes, wounds
85
what is the normal activating clotting time
60-90 seconds
86
hemophilia A
x linked factor deficiency -- VIII deficient
| ACT and PTT with be elevated
87
Hemophilia B
factor IX deficiency
| PTT and ACT will be elevated
88
what factors are involved in the common pathway
2, 5, 1, 10
89
what factors are in the intrinsic pathway
12, 11, 9, 8
90
most common cause of acute hepatitis and hepatic failure in horses
acute serum hepatitis -- associated with the admin of tetanus antitoxin
91
horse with liver fibrosis, megalocytosis, and bile duct proliferation
pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis
92
what is the cause of theilers disease in horses
this is also acute serum hepatitis
| from administration of the tetanus antitoxin in adult horses
93
clinical signs of theilers disease
```
depression
anorexia
icterus
photosensitization
hepatoencepthalopathy
```
94
most common isolate cultures in neonatal sepsis
e coli
95
causative agent of EPM
sarcocystis neurona - DH opossum
96
horse with asymmetric ataxia and muscle atrophy
EPM
97
treatment for EPM
TMS
ponazuril
nitazoxinade
some horses improve but will never go back to normal
98
bronchoconstriction and accumulation of mucus with neutrophils in a horse
recurrent airway obstruction -- heaves
also called heaves - increased expiratory effort
99
diagnosing heaves
curshmanns spirals on cytology
BAL fluid has neutrophils
horse >7 in stall -- allergens cause
100
in a healthy horse BAL fluid should consist mostly of
macrophages
101
rhodococcus equi typically affects what age range
foals between 1-6 months old
102
drugs of choice for treating R.equi
macrolides -- erythromycin
| Rifampin
103
pathogenesis of R.equi
aerosolized in dry and dusty env.
inhaled by foal
invades alveolar MACROPHAGES
produces pyogranulomatous pneumonia and oulmonary abcessation
104
complications of R.equi
1. internal abcessation
2. septic arthritis
3. osteomyelitis
4. non septic joint effusion
105
typical age range that gets equine strangles
<2-5 years old
106
drug of choice to treat equine strangles
penicillin + isolation and disinfection protocols
107
what is the causative agent of equine strangles
gram POSITIVE
| streptococcus equi -- this is not a normal inhabitant of the equine respiratory tract
108
4 complications of equine strangles
1. internal abscessation - BASTARD STRANGLES
2. Purpura hemorrhagica - causes a vasculitis and edema of the limbs
3. guttural pouch empyema
4. septicemia and encephalitis
109
etiologic agent of greasy pig disease
staph hyicus
| gram positive cocci
110
causes discoloration of teeth in young animals
tetracyclines
111
can cause cartilage damage in young animals
fluoroquinolones
112
most nephrotoxic abx group
aminoglycosides
113
what type of HS reaction is atopy, flea allergy dermatitis, and bee stings
type 1
114
HSrxn mediated by IgE noted in 15-30min
type 1
115
hypersensitivity mediated by IgG and IgM
type 2 - cytotoxic
116
examples of type II HS
immune mediated hemolytic anemia
neonatal isoerythrolysis
blood transfusion reactions
117
systemic lupus erythematosus HS type
3
118
HS type mediated by soluble immune complexes
type III
119
immune hypersens rxn that is delayed -- example is poison ivy
type 4
120
how is catgut suture broken down
proteolytic breakdown - very fast - dont use in organs
121
toxic dose of metronidazole
>30 mg/kg/day
122
deficiency in small animals fed overcooked meat diets or all fish diets
thiamine deficiency
123
what abx is contraindicated for otitis media and interna
aminoglycosides
| clohexadine is commonly implicated!!
124
what does the presence of a head tremor indicate
cerebellar disease
125
toxic principle in johnson grass - sorghum
cyanide - bright red cherry colored blood
126
treatment for cyanide poisoning
sodium nitrite
| sodium thiosulfate
127
what is the toxic principle of pigweed and nightshades
nitrate accumulating plants
128
how is the urine in nitrate poisoning
methemoglobinuria - diminished oxygen carrying capacity
129
treatment for nitrate poisoning
1% methylene blue - reduces the methemoglobin
130
this plant is a teratogen in cattle but not sheep and causes crooked calf syndrome
lupine
131
a plant that contains thiaminase and leads to polioencephalomalacia
bracken fern
132
plant that causes sweating and ataxia in horses
castor bean
133
plant that affects horses and causes chewing disease also known as nigropallidal encephalomalacia - chewing and dropping food
yellow star thistle
134
perilla mint
respiratory distress
135
what type of virus causes border disease
pestivirus
136
clinical signs in lambs with border disease
```
undersized at birth
excessively hairy or pigmented fleece
muscle tremors
cerebral cavitations
demyelination
```
137
what is the treatment for border disease in sheep
no effective treatment
138
signs of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants
cortical blindness - absent menace, intact palpebral and plr
head pressing
brain tissue may fluoresce under UV light
139
cause of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants
high concentrate/high grain diets
| treat with thiamine
140
is scrapie zoonotic
there is no evidence
141
what is the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy of sheep
scrapie - scratching, rubbing, lip smacking
| REPORTABLE
142
what is pizzle rot
ulcerative posthitis in ovine
143
etiologic agent of ulcerative posthitis
corynebacterium renale / high protein diets
144
where do most uroliths lodge in small ruminants
urethral process
145
Chronic bacterial infection forming visceral granulomas (nodules) in a variety of mature/adult birds,
resulting in progressive wasting and death;
avian tuberculosis
| mycobacterium avium
146
mycobacterium avium is what type of bacteria
non-motile, non-spore-forming bacterial rod that stains
| acid-fast; AE viruses are enterotropic and are spread in feces.
147
how to prevent avian tuberculosis
all in all out system
separate old and young chickens
cull affected birds
148
emaciated bird with breast muscle atrophy and no internal body fat?
avian tuberculosis
| mycobacterium avian
149
what age do clinical signs of fowl pox appear
1-2 weeks old
150
treatment of fowl pox
cull chicks
151
what genus of virus causes infectious bronchitis virus
coronavirus
152
acute, contagious viral disease of chickens that primarily causes
respiratory disease. It is characterized by rales, nasal discharge, coughing, and sneezing. In susceptible
laying flocks, there is a drop in egg production and reduced egg shell quality.
infectious bronchitis (IBV)
153
how is infectious bronchitis spread and what is the incubation period
incubation period is 18-36 hours
| spread via inhalation - aerosol / and contaminated equipment
154
young chicks appear to be depressed and are huddling in a heat source
IBV
155
what do birds with nephrotropic forms of IBV look like
depressed and dehydrated with ruffled feathers
156
laying flock is having eggs that appear thin-shelled, wrinkled, and irregularly shaped. these chickens are also sneezing
IBV
157
what three avian respiratory diseases often look similar in the field
infectious bronchitis,
Newcastle disease and
infectious laryngotracheitis
158
Rapidly spreading and debilitating upper respiratory infection that occurs primarily in laying
chickens and causes distinctive foul odor with swelling of infraorbital sinuses and edema of the face.
infectious coryza
159
avibacterium paragallinum
infectious coryza - gram neg rod
160
T/F
| turkeys are the main carrier of infectious coryza
false - turkeys are not affected
| chronically sick or subclinical chickens are the main carriers
161
how is infectious coryza transmitted
bird to bird by contact, oculonasal secretions, aerosolized cough
droplets and contaminated feed or drinking water.
does not last long in the environment
162
chicken with facial edema, infraorbital sinus is filled with a yellow exudate, and oculonasal discharge is present
infectious coryza
163
what type of virus is infectious laryngotracheitis
herpesvirus
164
acute, highly infectious viral disease, characterized by conjunctivitis,
loud gasping, exudate plugging the glottis, and coughing of blood-filled exudate
infectious laryngotracheitis
165
T/F
| because infectious laryngotracheitis spreads slowly, birds can be vaccinated during an outbreak
true
166
white exudative/fibrinous plugs in a birds trachea
infectious laryngotracheitis
167
how does mareks virus replicate
3 phases
1- productive - in feather epithelium
2-latent- predominantly in T lymphocytes
3- transmission -only in t lymphocytes virulent
168
what type of virus is mareks
herpesvirus
169
how is mareks transmitted
shed in molted feathers/feather dander and inhaled by other birds
170
treatment for mareks
| vaccination for marekts
no treatment
| in ovo vax
171
vaccination for mycoplasma gallisepticum
chickens only - could kill turkeys
172
how to prevent bordatella avium
never backtrakc from older to younger turkeys
flush water lines between flocks
all in all out
173
turkey with mucus in sinuses, racoon eye appearance, and tracheal collapse causing a voice change
bordatella avium
174
what is the typical age range for atopy presenting
1-3 yrs
175
diagnosis for a wheezing/coughing cat with labored breathing and a bronchial pattern on radiographs
asthma
176
a rapidly acting bronchodilator for feline asthma
albuterol
177
horse presenting for discharge around the ear should be assessed for this situation
dentigerous cyst
178
cricopharyngeal achalasia
pharyngoesophageal sphincter fails to relax
179
what is the gold standard for diagnosis of mammary gland infection in cows
milk culture
180
what lobes surround the gall bladder in a dog
quadrate lobe and right medial lobe
181
gestation period in a cat
63 days
182
distribution in the lungs of aspiration pneumonia
cranioventral
183
most common nasal tumor in dogs
adenocarcinoma
184
treatment of choice for nasal adenocarcinoma
radiation therapy - gives MST of 12 months
peroxicam gives 3 months
185
most common primary bone tumor
osteosarcoma
186
common locations of osteosarcoma
remember towards the elbow
| away from the knee
187
at what day are fetus visibile for dog on rads
45 days
188
what day can you detect dog pregnancy on ultrasound
day 20
189
penn hip vs ofa
penn hip as early as 16weeks
| OFA must be 2
190
rules for a triple pelvic osteotomy
between 4-12months old
| cannot have signs of DJD on rads
191
most common skin tumor in dogs
mast cell tumor
192
margins for mast cell
2-3cm and 1facial plane deep PLUS radiation therapy to treat
193
indolent ulcer tx
grid debride
| terramycin
194
age difference between food allergy and atopy
food allergy <1yr
atopy between 1-3
food allergy will be year round and atopy will be seasonal
195
competitive inhibitor to the receptor for IL-31 which prevents JAK1 and STAT to be
activated; thereby blocking itch
apoquel
196
Monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-31 which prevents IL-31 from
binding and activating the JAK/STAT pathway
cytopoint
197
cats on prednisone
could have gi issues and hepatic conversion so give predniSOLONE instead
198
arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
```
familial -- boxers common
VPCS
syncope
dx with holter monitor
sotalol
```
199
small breed dog, palpation of trachea leads to coughing spasm
collapsing trachea - can DX on endoscopy
200
where does the cranial cruciate ligament originate
the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle
201
what are the 3 functions of the crania cruciate ligament
1. prevent cranial drawer
2. prevent excessive hyperextension
3. prevent internal rotation
202
what clinical sign will you always have after a TPLO
positive cranial drawer
203
what does the tibial tuberosity advancement eliminate
tibial thrust
204
key clinical signs of diabetes melitus
```
pu/pd
polyphagia
wt loss
plantigrade stance in cats
cataracts in dogs
```
205
what type of diet for a healthy diabetic patient
HIGH FIBER -
| high protein,low carb in cats
206
when to give regular insulin
DKA patients
207
most common breed with ununited anconeal process
german shepherds (usually 4-12months old)
208
what red view is best for ununited anconeal process
flexed lateral projection
209
Abnormal endochondral ossification resulting in thickening of the articular cartilage
OCD of humeral condyle
210
who is permethrin toxic to
cats
211
who is fipronil toxic to
bunnies
212
fipronil
fleas
ticks
lice
213
milbemycin
hookworms
heartworms
whipworms
214
what radiograph is diagnostic for GDV
right lateral
215
which way does the stomach normally rotate in GDV
counter-clockwise when looking in dorsal recumbency
216
most predisposed breed to GDV
great dane
217
what is the lactate level in a GDV that is a negative prognostic indicator
>6
218
test of choice to dx heartworm in dogs
antigen test - detects adult females
** in cats this can indicate exposure but not necessarily infection
219
cats echocardiogram shows double lined echodensity
HEARTWORM
220
treatment of choice for a dog with heartworm
melarsomine
221
2 most common spots of hemangiosarcoma
spleen
| right auricle
222
what is the most common tumor to metastasize to the brain
HSA
223
commonly affected areas of cutaneous hemangiosarcoma
from chronic sun exposure
| ventral abdomen and medial thighs
224
5 Ps of hyperadrenocorticism
```
pu
pd
polyphagia
panting
pot belly
```
225
tx for horse with cushins
peroglide
226
tx dog with cushings
mitotane
| trilostane
227
Low dose dex supression test
most cushings dogs will have >1.4 at 8 hours
PDT will have <50% baseline at 4 hours
AT will not suppress ever
228
2 main tests for diagnosing cushings
LDDST
| ACTH stim
229
addisons (hypoadrenocorticism) clinical signs
```
hyperkalemia
hyponatremia
USG <1.030
absence of a stress leukogram
bradycardia
```
230
test of choice for addisons
ACTH stimulation using dexamethasone
| <2ug/dl is positive
231
tx hypothyroid dog
levothyroxine
232
old labrador with voice change, dyspnea, and inspiratory stridor
LARPAR
| -risk of aspiration pneumonia
233
when a normal patient inhales, how do the aretynoids act
should abduct
234
can diagnose laryngeal paralysis with this medication under light General anesthesia
doxapram
235
treatment of choice for lar par
Crycoarytenoid lateralization
| "tie back"
236
T/F
| Mast cell tumor grade can be determined by cytology
FALSEEEE
237
most common malignant oral tumor in a dog
melanoma -- especially chows
238
what fraction of oral metastatic melanomas are amelanotic
1/3
239
what percent of oral melanomas are metastatic
80%
240
what tumor size of melanoma is a negative prognostic factor
>2cm MST 5.5mo
| <2cm MST 17mo
241
treatment for oral melanoma
wide excision and radiation therapy
| cisplatin and carboplatin shrink
242
where does OSA mets to
lungs
243
elevation of this enzyme means a worse prognosis for osa
alkaline phosphate
244
poster child for congenital extrahepatic single shunts
yorkies
245
dramatically elevated post prandial bile acids
SHUNT
246
what type of crystal would be most common with portosystemic shunts
ammonium biurate
247
T/F
| Portosystemic shunt patients need high protein diets
false
248
toxic effect of rodenticide
inhibiting vitamin K1 epoxide reductase
| depletes factor VII
249
ethylene glycol crystals
ca oxalate
250
treatment for ingestion of household cleaners
DO NOT INDUCE EMESIS
| give dilute milk
251
treatment for ethylene glycol
begin before toxic metabolites are generated
| fomepizole (4-MP)
252
what stones do you use an alkalizing diet? acidifying?
alk - cysteine and urate
| acid - struvite
253
what is the cushings response
compensatory increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
254
treatment of ostertagia
ivermectin
255
chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint
bog spavin
256
thickening of the plantar tarsal ligament due to strain
curb
257
osteoarthritis of the hock
bone spavin
258
tx dipylidium caninum
praziquantel
259
why should you not use enrofloxacin in growing puppies
cartilage abnormalities
260
you diagnose isospora suis eggs in a 13 day old piglet what would you use to treat it
ponazuril
261
this parasite involves migration through the horses lungs and could cause respiratory signs
parascaris equorum
262
bacterial or white blood cell casts in the urine are highly suggestive of
pyelonephritis
263
most common site of fracture in rabbits
L7
264
most common cause of pyo in dogs older than 8
cystic endometrial hyperplasia
265
what is the effect of pyloric outflow obstruction on chloride and acid-base status
decreased serum chloride
| metabolic alkalosis
