Veterinary public health

Question 1

• In food safety, what is meant by primary and secondary prevention?

Answer 1

Primary prevention is insuring a healthy, pathogen free animal on farm, while secondary is everything that comes after

Question 2

What is the difference between quality assurance and quality control?

Answer 2

Quality assurance is a corporate oversite - a statement of their goals/objectives.
Quality control is the daily in-plant activities to ensure overall corporate QA goal is achieved

Question 3

• What is the role of SAFEMEAT

Answer 3

A body of representatives from government and industry providing oversight and direction on meat safety systems through the production chain - farm, feedlot, saleyard, transport, processing and distribution. It promotes best practice management systems and ensures that when red meat is bought from Australia, the buyer can be confident in the safety and quality of their choice.

Question 4

How can the claims made on the NVD be backed up?

Answer 4

Being accredited through LPA and hence be open to auditing and consequences for providing false/misleading information on the NVD

Question 5

• What types of vendor declaration are there?

Answer 5

For stockfeed:

• Two commodity vendor declarations (blended multivendor or non-blended grain and oilseed grower / trader)
• Two by-product vendor declarations (ex grower/by-product trader, ex food processor/manufacturer)
• Two fodder vendor declaration (hay, silage, straw, stubble)

Question 6

What are the benefits of participating in an assurance scheme?

Answer 6

If attributes are valued by consumers - price premium
Security of market access / import penetration
Source of improved management

Question 7

What are quoted as being farmer perceptions of being part of an assurance scheme?

Answer 7

More paperwork, outside interference, additional costs, means of off farm purchasers to force down prices, no incentives

Question 8

What is the difference between a Waybill and an NVD?

Answer 8

A waybill is legally required and provides traceability. It must accompany the stock being moved.
A national vendor deceleration (NVD) is voluntary (although most use) and is used for residue declaration and compliance.
A combined NVD/Waybill (Pigpass for swine) is an acceptable be an alternative.

Question 9

• What is ‘water deprivation’

Answer 9

A continuous period without access to water and includes time off water during mustering, yarded, empty out time, transport and unloading etc without water. If max time off water is reached, a spell is mandatory before starting another journey.

Question 10

What is ‘salvage slaughter’ and how does it differ from ‘emergency slaughter’?

Answer 10

Salvage slaughter is an on-farm procedure for diseased/injured animals - these animals should not make it to an abattoir.
Emergency slaughter is used to prevent undue suffering of animals that have been afflicted with a disability during transport, unloading or yarding. May be possible to consider some for human consumption
Casualty slaughter does not require immediate slaughter but is prioritised for slaughter as soon as practical on day of arrival

Question 11

• What is a ‘restricted slaughter’ and an ‘Australia suspect’?

Answer 11

A restricted slaughter is applied to an animal that has passed for slaughter subject to conditions specified by the vet/meat inspector. It is also called a “suspect animal” and if in a export plant an “Australia suspect”
Often, this is animals have a condition that at PM might result in condemnation of the carcase/parts of carcase if the condition is systemic, acute or malignant.
Often sent through at end of shit to prevent contamination of those passed for unconditional slaughter

Question 12

• What is the FAO cleanliness score and what is its relevance to ante mortem inspection?

Answer 12

Category 1 - No evidence of adherent faecal material and very limited amounts of loose straw/bedding
Category 2 - Light covering of dried faecal material and limited amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
Category 3 - Animals with significant amounts of straw/bedding/dirt over large areas of predilection sites
Category 4 - animals with heavy amounts of adherent dirt/faeces on fore/hindlimbs and/or on predilection sites and/or significant amounts of straw/bedding attached to hide or between areas of dried faecal material. Hair clipping may be practiced before animals are permitted for slaughter
Category 5 - Heavy amounts of adherent dirt/faeces on predilection sites. Balls of adherent dirt/feces may be evident on underside of abdoment. Rejected for slaughter and returned to premises of origin or subjected to hide clipping

Question 13

Why might some animals be withheld from slaughter?

Answer 13

Is/suspected of being with WHP, heavily soiled and require extra cleaning, exhausted animal, have abnormality that require test, that can be treated, will recover with time, stress etc. Require a new antemortem before slaughter.

Question 14

Why might some animals be rejected for slaughter?

Answer 14

Dying, diseased, immature, pyrexia etc

Especially if current, on-going, systemic issues.

Question 15

• Discuss the concept that vets are required for ante mortem inspection –are they?

Answer 15

Meat safety inspector - not necessarily a vet. Must be a vet in an export plant

Question 16

• It is important that cattle or pigs should be able to see light coming up from under the restrainer conveyor because it aids entrance. True or false?

Answer 16

False - light coming up from under the restrainer conveyor may cause balking at the entrance. Lighting over the top of the conveyor will help induce cattle to raise their heads for the stunner.

Question 17

• Which of  the  following  is  an  indicator  of  a  poor  mechanical  stun?
–Animal  collapses  immediately
–Ventral  deviation  of  the  eyeball   
–No corneal  reflex
–No rhythmic  breathing

Answer 17

Ventral deviation of the eyeball - Eyes should remain fixed

Question 18

• In the first 5 seconds following the stun of a pig by a head-only electrical stun, what can indicate insufficient current had been applied?

Answer 18

Blinking in first 5 seconds in pigs, squealing/bark. Note - stuck within 20 s

Question 19

• List four signs of the tonic phase of an effective electrical stun?

Answer 19

Immediate collapse
No rhythmic breathing
Forelimbs extended, hindlimbs tucked into the body
fixed, dilated pupil
Head raised

Question 20

What is the tonic phase of slaughter?

Answer 20

During the first (tonic) phase, when current flows through the brain, the animal collapses and stops breathing, with the front legs extended rigidly and the hind legs flexed into the body.

Question 21

What is the clonic phase of slaughter?

Answer 21

The second (clonic) phase sees the animal relax and start involuntary kicking of both the fore and hind legs.

Question 22

What is the 3rd phase?

Answer 22

As the clonic activity subsides, the animal moves into the third (recovery or exhaustion) phase.
onset of the third phase is an indication that the animal is beginning to recover and may be able to experience pain.

Question 23

• Explain how you would audit stun success

Answer 23

% stunned correctly on the first attempt. Should be >95% with a captive bolt and >99% for electrical
Vocalisation % - should be less than 3% in cattle or less than 10% in pigs
Slipping %, Falling %, Use of prodder

Question 24

• What is the maximum stun to stick interval for cattle following a nonpenetrating captive bolt?

Answer 24

30 seconds

Question 25

• If a particular electrical stunning method persistently leads to interrupted stunning, suggest three ways it can be improved.

Answer 25

- Improve presentation of animal so electrodes are easier to place accurately and firmly - Improve equipment to reduce electrical resistance of animal and electrodes - Minimise stress/excitement - Animals should not remain restrained for long periods and should be stunned at an even rate

Question 26

What causes ‘blood splash’?

Answer 26

Excessive stun to stick interval - high pressure in vessels for extended time. Ineffective stunning (double/triple/quadruple stunning). Preslaughter excitement/stress.

Question 27

• Rapid sticking, under 20 seconds for pigs, is imperative with penetrating captive bolts. True or false?

Answer 27

False - non reversible, no immediate rush from a welfare perspective. Want to do it moderately soon due to hygiene however

Question 28

• According to Industry Welfare Standards, 5% is not. True or false?

Answer 28

False, acceptable is

Question 29

Very exceptionally, in order to meet certain religious requirements, it is permitted in Australia to perform a neck stick without pre-or post-stunning in cattle and sheep. True or false?

Answer 29

True - Aus state/territory meat-inspection authorities can approve abattoir - only 1500 animals a year

Question 30

• Explain why the proximal-distal position of a neck stick in cattle can be problematic in terms of welfare.

Answer 30

Cut must be as high up as possible so to cut occipitovertebral anastomosis. Sheep do not have this anatomosis & this is why they do not have to be stunned following the out if neck vessels are completely severed

Question 31

• What is ballooning?

Answer 31

Trauma to the carotids can cause the proximal & distal ends of the carotids to withdraw & partially seal. "False aneurysm" This partial blockage delays the fall in central & cerebral arterial pressure & a maintenance of sensibility → unacceptable

Question 32

• Religious slaughter is less of a welfare issue than conventional captive bolt slaughter. Discuss

Answer 32

The 2 main welfare concerns in religious slaughter is the lack of stun & restrain / handling of the animals. A quick, sharp blade, used correctly maybe much more welfare friendly than poor mechanical / electrical stunning with poorly maintained equipment or bad technique. Restraint & handling in religious slaughter can be an issue.

Question 33

Veterinary involvement is legally required at ante mortem inspection according to what legislation?

Answer 33

Only required in export plants. Ante-mortem must be done by a "meat safety inspector" as per Australian standard 4696

Question 34

Who is legally allowed to conduct post mortem examination at an abattoir?

Answer 34

A meat inspector - must be a vet in export plants

Question 35

• What is the significance of ‘Australia’ on any of the stamps used at the abattoir?

Answer 35

Carcases & carcase parts (other than offal) passed without restriction for export

Question 36

• Where would you find the legally required details pertaining to ante and post mortem dispositions

Answer 36

Schedule 3 A.S. 4696

Question 37

• In the modern risk-based approach to inspection why do final products continue to be tested?

Answer 37

To verify that any controls put in place are in fact working and are controlling the risk factor identified.

Question 38

It is acceptable for a carcase to be sent to the retain rail and be released without a Dept. official further inspecting it. Comment on this statement indicating its veracity

Answer 38

True - when the inspectors sent it to the retain rail they have already passed it subject to minor intervenion - disposition already made. Verifying intervention left to trimmers and final meat inspectors.

Question 39

When would you condemn or partially condemn a carcase?

Answer 39

Condemn if generalised, systemic, disseminated, acute, toxic, pyrexic, nervous signs, immature. If something is localised and contained, may partially condemn and keep rest of carcase - as long as no sign of spread. Can assess spread using regional lymph nodes - all head lymph nodes drain to lateral retropharyngeal lymph node.

Question 40

• Discuss: use of lymph nodes is a useful way of assessing spread of infection or neoplasia

Answer 40

o A reactive lymph node in regional lymph nodes can show evidence of spread of any condition or disease

Question 41

Discuss: use of lymph nodes is a useful way of assessing suitability to consume

Answer 41

o Many diseas don't affect nodes - hygiene very important

Question 42

• According to the A.S. 4696, the carcase and all its parts must be in the chiller within how long after stunning?

Answer 42

2h, but must be down to 7 degrees C within 24 hours

Question 43

Give an example of something that is GMP within the chiller of a beef abattoir?

Answer 43

Anything that improves the quality of the final product is good manufacturing practice. In the beef abbitour chiller this includes things such as not allowing carcasses to come in contact with each other, not putting hot carcases next to cold ones and keeping chiller doors shut

Question 44

Shrinkage in the chiller represents a serious loss. How can it be minimised?

Answer 44

o Enevitable - maintaining low temperatures, minimal air circulation and high relative humidity - +/- spray chilling

Question 45

Muscle fibres shorten little if the muscle enters rigor at 20-15°C. T/F?

Answer 45

False - 10-15 degrees celsius

Question 46

Looking at a piece of meat - what are the states of oxygenation?

Answer 46

metmyoglobin - Fe oxidised - brown colour deoxymyoglobin - water bound - purple colour oxymyoglobin - bound to oxygen = red colour

Question 47

What is the Refrigeration Index?

Answer 47

o legally req o index for log growth of E.coli o predicts expected growth of E. coli o takes into account meat temp, pH, water activity, lactate conc etc o There are legal requirements for RI levels must be less than 1.5

Question 48

Can Cysticercus cellulosae (immature) or taenia solium cause infection in humans?

Answer 48

``` Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) causes both intestinal infection with the adult tapeworm and somatic infections with the larvae (cysticerci) in humans occurs when offal fed raw ```

Question 49

Cysticercus bovis (immature) or Taenia saginata (adult) is a parasite of what animal, can it infect humans?

Answer 49

Beef tapeworm a zoonotic tapeworm . It is an intestinal parasite in humans causing taeniasis (a type of helminthiasis) and cysticercosis in cattle. Human infection occurs when offal fed raw

Question 50

What is taenia ovis and can it infect humans?

Answer 50

Cysticercus ovis is the larval stage (cysticercoid, metacestode) of Taenia ovis, a tapeworm parasite of dogs and other canids (coyotes, wolves, foxes, very occasionally cats, etc.), that has sheep and goats as well as various wild ruminants as intermediate hosts. No it is not contagious to humans

Question 51

When is pipestem liver seen?

Answer 51

Cholefibrosis – pipestem liver end stage liver disease, severely fibrosed Fasciola hepatica – condemn liver – condemn carcase if emaciated or other systemic pathology

Question 52

Explain ‘site of microbiological control’ in the context of chilling meat

Answer 52

Any contamination will be on the surface of the meat, hence in a carcase the site of microbiological control is the surface.

Question 53

Explain the concept of ‘cold chain’ giving examples

Answer 53

o A supply chain where all storage and distribution activities maintain the product withing a given temperature range o Milk, vaccines, seafood etc

Question 54

Give an example of something that is GMP within the chiller of a beef abattoir?

Answer 54

o Anything that improves the quality of the final product is good manufacturing practice. In the beef abbitour chiller this includes things such as not allowing carcasses to come in contact with each other, not putting hot carcases next to cold ones and keeping chiller doors shut.

Question 55

Explain how the ultimate pH is reached

Answer 55

The ultimate pH is the pH when glycogen has been used up of enzymes have been inactivated and hence there is no ATP to allow muscle relaxation. We want an ultimate pH of 5.5-5.7.

Question 56

How would you prevent PSE and DFD meat?

Answer 56

PSE - low stress slaughter techniques. Improve handling and stunning and keep animals as calm as possible prior to slaughter DFD - Feed and rest for 24/48 hours prior to slaughter to build up glycogen stores.

Question 57

What causes | –Cold shortening?

Answer 57

Slow fall in pH & rapid cooling. If animals are chilled to

Question 58

What causes | –PSE?

Answer 58

Pale soft Exudative. Mostly pork. Short term glycogen depletion immediately prior to death due to poor handling / stunning. PH falls very quickly while temp stays high. Protein denaturation causes loss of colour, firmness & water holding ability

Question 59

What causes | DFD?

Answer 59

PH> 5.7 or a meat colour greater than 3. Caused by a long-term glycogen depletion (mustering, transport etc) causing low glycogen and hence ATP runs out quickly with substantial lactic acid production and hence pH stays high. High pH prevents conversion to oxymyoglobin. Poor keeping quality.

Question 60

What does the abbatoir window diagram depict?

Answer 60

Shows that if meat is cooled rapidly without glycogen being used up and lactic acid produced (dropping pH) then cold shortening occures (red). However if pH drops rapidly due to rapid glycolysis before chilling then heat 'shortening' will occur where acidity inactivates proteolytic enzymes that would have tenderised the meat during the aging process

Question 61

Why is electricity applied to a carcase in an abattoir setting?

Answer 61

Helps prevent toughening, prevents broken backs during hid pulling, eliminates kicking at pre-dressing and quickens the onset of rigor

Question 62

What effect does the application of electricity have on meat quality?

Answer 62

Improper use can lead to rapid pH drop and a PSE like condition Proper use leads to tenderisation and prevention of cold shortening - improved meat quality

Question 63

What are the main differences between hanging by the Achilles or by the tenderstretch method?

Answer 63

Achilles saves space. Many commercially important cuts are not overly stretched Tender stretch stretches a lot of the commercially important cuts but takes up more room. Doesn't stretch tenderloin as much. Improves texture and decreases drip loss.

Question 64

What is the purpose of AusMeat Language?

Answer 64

Used for production descriptions, such as fat depth, marbling, set, age, pH etc. Is used so that costumers can order exactly what they want & get it every time

Question 65

What is modified atmosphere packaging and why is it used

Answer 65

protects meat from contamination & inhibits bacterial growth. reduces evaporation loss & drying makes product look better

Question 66

• List two benefits of curing meats with sodium nitrite or sodium nitrate

Answer 66

Inhibit botulism. makes food pink

Question 67

What is the risk to the consumer of not using nitrates or nitrites in cured meat?

Answer 67

stomach cancer? Accumulation of nitrosamines -> hot meat such as bacon causes cancer

Question 68

Fish parasites are not killed by cold smoking what can be done prior to smoking to help control parasites?

Answer 68

freezing @

Question 69

What is the ALOP?

Answer 69

- ALOP is the level of protection called the appropriate level of protection (ALOP) or the acceptable level of risk - SPS agreement stresses that members have the right to adopt SPS measures to achieve their self determined health protection level

Question 70

What is the purpose of the OIE and name two other organisations that fulfil a similar role in plants and food stuffs?

Answer 70

- The World organization for Animal health - Ensure transparency in the global animal disease and zoonosis situation, publish health standards for for trade in animals and animal products, promoting veterinary skills. Improving the safety of food of animal origin and promoting animal welfare through a science based approach

Question 71

What is the Precautionary Principle, and give an example?

Answer 71

- requirement of WTO agreement on the application of sanitary and phytosanitary measures - highlight the importance of surveillance schemes - practical application of ‘pre cautionary principle’ in regard to the importation of natural products - if an action or policy has suspected risk of causing harm to the public or to the environment that the action or policy is harmful - protect the public from exposure to harm - eg. In Europe, avoid importing growth hormones in US and Australian beef

Question 72

What are Market Access programs and give three examples?

Answer 72

- companies must demonstrate compliance with the importing country’s requirements - implemented program to monitor the compliance in abattoirs, independent boning rooms, wild game harvesters etc - eg. use of hormones, slaughter, control of disease, resides, WHP etc

Question 73

What are some examples of Market Access programs?

Answer 73

- TSE - Australian government supervised musim slaughter programme (AGSMS) - Freedom Assurance programme

Question 74

What organisation is responsible for controlling food safety within Australia?

Answer 74

- WHO - Australian government AusAID - FAO - Food standards Australia New Zealand (FSANZ) o Develops standards that regulate the use of ingredients, processing aids, colourings, additives, vitamins and minerals

Question 75

What is best practice?

Answer 75

- a method or technique that has consistently shown results superior to those achieved with other means and that is used as a benchmark - contributes to final quality product - i.e. bone cuts on rail, not table, more times meat is handled the greater the risk of unacceptable bacteria loads on the product - produce a safe, wholesome product

Question 76

What is a Standard operating procedures (SOPs)?

Answer 76

- detailed written instructions to achieve uniformity of the performance of a specific function - reference to commonly done practices or tasks

Question 77

What do Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) cover?

Answer 77

- Hygiene concerns including personal hygiene of food handlers: - Cleaning & sanitation requirements - Pest control measures - Maintenance measures for all equipment

Question 78

What is approved arrangement?

Answer 78

- the arrangement for the business that is approved by the controlling authority - company must always do what the AA says - 50 – 60 steps - a lot of actions that need to be controlled - experience based on industry or company knowledge, direction based on legal requirements, base on emerging research and science

Question 79

What are the verification activities?

Answer 79

- review of methods used by a companies QA team - specific checks of the HACCP critical limits - end product testing o visual o chemical analysis o microbilogical - auditing, evaluation of any corrective action taken

Question 80

What is the role of inspection in food control?

Answer 80

- quality control and food safety is responsibility of food producers and processes - government must ensure this right is protected - inspection is crucial to this effect - lack of training and proper facilities renders control efforts ineffective and untrustworthy - shift from product based to risk based inspections

Question 81

What is AEMIS?

Answer 81

- Australian Export Meat inspection system – ensure safety, suitability and integrity of Australian meat and meat products

Question 82

What is MEVS?

Answer 82

- Meat establishment verification system - National approach to inspection and verification of export abattoirs to support government certification for export of meat and meat products

Question 83

Describe three roles of the OPV under MEVS

Answer 83

1. Antemortem inspection 2. PM inspection verification 3. Animal welfare verification 4. Food safety verification 5. Product integrity and certification verification 6. Importing country requirements verification

Question 84

Describe three roles of the OPV under MEVS

Answer 84

1. Antemortem inspection 2. PM inspection verification 3. Animal welfare verification 4. Food safety verification 5. Product integrity and certification verification 6. Importing country requirements verification

Question 85

What is GMP and GHP?

Answer 85

- GMP = good manufacturing practices = sanitary guidelines, regulatory guidelines, food processing and handling - GHP = good hygiene practice = reduce contamination, reduce disease, dirt

Question 86

What type of areas do SOPs cover?

Answer 86

- welfare - chillers - boning room - produce the product to national and international standards as required including GMP

Question 87

What is the issue with post mortem meat inspection?

Answer 87

- palpation and incision of lymph nodes, infected tissues or tissues with abnormalities can give rise to cross contamination - it is GHP to avoid incision where possible, visual inspection - if condemned GHP put in a red container

Question 88

What is the GHP undertaken for chillers?

Answer 88

- move carcase into the chiller as soon as possible to speed up the surface drying and hinder bacterial growth - must be in the chiller within 2 hours - do not allow carcases to touch the walls/floors or other carcases - do not over load - allow adequate spacing between carcases - adjust cooling regime optimally in terms of air temp, speed and RH - avoid temp fluctuations - RH approaching 100% in the maintenance phase affect the quality – desiccation

Question 89

What is a peripheral hazard?

Answer 89

- With faecal contamination - the faecal cross contamination should be avoided at de-hiding: the food safety hazard can be controlled by adherence to GHP –therefore controlling food safety hazards at this de-hiding step does not need to be part of a HACCP plan - in the context of the HACCP plan then the hazard at de-hiding is seen to be peripheral = peripheral hazard - peripheral hazards are controlled by SOPs, SSOPs, WI, GHP and GMP - only when the system is controlled can you implement HACCP

Question 90

What is a pre-requisite program? (PRP)

Answer 90

- food safety hazards which are controlled by such programs as GMP, GHP, best practice

Question 91

Out of 100 hazards, how many might be ready to be controlled by HACCP?

Answer 91

- 2 – 3 - the rest will be controlled by the PRPs - they could all be controlled by the PRPs but a few are identified as requiring special attention i.e. HACCP plan - HACCP needs to be built on a foundation of pre-requistie programs

Question 92

What is ISO22000?

Answer 92

- introduces the concept that GMP can be as important as HACCP - refers to all supportive practices as PRPs – must be identified which are critical to food safety o operational PRPs and must be managed as if they are CCPs

Question 93

What are the two different types of CCPs?

Answer 93

- CCP 1 = completely controls a hazard = elimination | - CCP 2 = minimises hazard = reduction

Question 94

What is the difference between Critical control points and Critical limit?

Answer 94

``` Critical control points = (CCP) points in the production process where some sort of control is critical in order to prevent the hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level control of manufacturing process as far upstream in the processing system as possible by utilising operator control and or continuous monitoring techniques at critical control points Critical limit (CL) at the CCP – a defined limit below which or above which the hazard will be deemed to be out of control CL – time to slaughter? Temperature of chilling? Vocalisation of animals on killing floor? Microbial killing with thermal process etc? ```