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Chemical Pathology > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

1
Q

Where do most of the errors within the virological total testing process lie

A

Preanalytical

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2
Q

Name 10 examples of pre analytical errors within the total testing process

A

• Incorrect analysis ordered
• orderer of test not marked
• incorrect test request
• test request lost
• pt id error
• pt preparation error
• mislabelling of test tube
• sample collection error
• incorrect handling of samples
• transport error

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3
Q

Name 4 examples of analytical errors within the total testing process

A

• Sample lost
• sample mix up
• equipment failure
• analytical error
(Least errors)

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4
Q

Name 4 examples of post analytical errors within the total testing process

A

• test result lost
• turnaround time
• transcription error
• incorrect interpretation

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5
Q

Name 6 complications of measles infection

A

• Otitis media
• diarrhoea
• pneumonia
• encephalitis
• persistent measles infection
- subacute sclerosing panencephalitis sspe
- measles inclusion body encephalitis MIBE in inmunosuppressed
• higher mortality in children, especially under 5 years

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6
Q

Name 3 common symptoms of congenital rubella syndrome

A

• Eyes: cataracts > pigmentatory retinopathy > glaucoma
• ears: hearing loss
• heart: congenital heart disease- PDA > ps

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7
Q

Test for hepatitis A?

A

Hepatitis A IGM blood specimen

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8
Q

Test for hepatitis B infection?

A

Hep B surface antigen, blood sample

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9
Q

Test for hepatitis B immunity?

A

Blood: surface antibody

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10
Q

Test for hepatitis C infection?

A

Blood: Hepatitis C antibodies
If positive, confirm with HCV PCR

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11
Q

What does hiv-1 DNA pcr test detect

A

Viral DNA and RNA

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12
Q

Which patients get hiv-1 DNA pcr test

A

Infant diagnosis <24 months to avoid false positive with ELISA (maternal antibodies)
Confirm positive with another PCR

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13
Q

What does HIV ELISA test detect

A

Antibodies and p24 antigen

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14
Q

Which patients receive HIV ELISA test

A

> 24 months

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15
Q

What does rapid HIV test detect

A

HIV antibodies only

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16
Q

Who receives rapid HIV test

A

•>24 months
Confirm positive rapid tests with pcr in all children 18-24 months

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17
Q

Major side effect of zidovudine (azt)?

A

Bone marrow suppression: anaemia, neutropenia

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18
Q

Major side effect of NRTI drugs (eg tenofovir TDF, lamivudine 3Tc, abacavir, zidovudine)?

A

Mitochondrial dysfunction: lactic acidosis, hepatic toxicity, pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy, lipoatrophy, myopathy

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19
Q

Name 7 risk factors for severe SARS cov 2 disease or mortality

A

• older age
• ht
• cardiovascular disease
• COPD
• Diabetes
• obesity
• Malignancy

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20
Q

Name 2 major side effects of tenofovir TDF (NRTI)

A

• Mitochondrial dysfunction: lactic acidosis, hepatic toxicity, pancreatitis,peripheral neuropathy, lipoatrophy, myopathy
. Renal toxicity: renal tubular dysfunction

21
Q

Name 4 major side effects of protease inhibitors (eg lopinavir/ rotinavir)

A

• Hyperlipidaemia, fat accumulation
• insulin resistance, diabetes
• osteopenia
• some cause skin rashes and hypersensitivity reactions

22
Q

Name major side effects of NNRTI (eg nevirapine NvP, efavirenz efv)

A

Skin rashes and hypersensitivity reactions

23
Q

Name 2 major side effects of abacavir ABC (nrti)

A

• Skin rashes and hypersensitivity reactions
• mitochondrial dysfunction: lactic acidosis, hepatic toxicity, myopathy, pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy, lipoatrophy

24
Q

Define art treatment failure

A

Unsuppressed viral load >1000 for >3 months

25
Q

Test for measles infection (rubeola) (2)

A

• Serology igm/igg
• PCR of nasopharyngeal /throat swab within 5 days of macula popular rash onset, or urine.

26
Q

Test for rubella infection (German measles) (2)

A

• Serology igm/igg
• PCR of throat swab or urine

27
Q

Test for Herpes 6/7 infection (roseola infantum) (2)

A

Mostly clinical dx, not routine lab test: fever then maculopopular rash on trunk
Can do
• serology hhv -6 igm/igg only some labs
• Blood PCR

28
Q

Test for parvovirus B19 infection (slapped cheek disease ) (2)

A

• Serology ig m/ig G
• Blood PCR

29
Q

Test for vesicular rashes in childhood?

A

Eg VZv, hsv, enterovirus
Vesicle flood PCR for all

30
Q

Test for mumps infection (2)

A

• Serology igm/ig G
• PCR of oral /buccal swab, or urine

31
Q

Test for viral CNS meningitis and encephalitis?

A

Eg enterovirus meningitis, mumps meningitis, HSV 1/2 encephalitis
All CSF PCR

32
Q

Test for rabies encephalitis?

A

Saliva PCR
notifiable

33
Q

Test for CNS polio?

A

2 stools 2 days apart within 2 weeks of onset: cell culture, PCR
Notifiable
(Stool most sensitive test)

34
Q

Test for HsV ocular dendritic ulcer?

A

Corneal/vesicle swab for PCR

35
Q

Test for adenovirus pink eye?

A

Eye or throat swab PCR

36
Q

Test for viral upper respiratory infections?

A

Eg rhino, coronavirus
Nasal/throat swab PCR

37
Q

Test for viral lower respiratory infections?

A

NPA PCR

38
Q

Test for viral gastroenteritis?

A

Eg rotavirus, norovirus
Stool PCR

39
Q

Name 9 category 1 viral notifiable conditions, and who and how to report

A

Immediate reporting within 24 hours by healthcare provider and lab
• acute flaccid paralysis
• measles
• poliomyelitis
• rabies
• Respiratory disease caused by novel respiratory pathogen
• rift valley fever
• smallpox
• viral haemorrhagic fever diseases
• yellow fever

40
Q

Name 5 category 2 viral notifiable conditions, and who and how to report

A

Within 7 days by healthcare provider and lab
• congenital rubella syndrome
• hepatitis A, b, c, E

41
Q

Name 3 category 3 viral notifiable conditions, and who and how to report

A

Within 7 days by lab
• West Nile virus, Sindbis virus, chikungunya virus
. Dengue fever virus, other imported arboviruses
• rubella virus

42
Q

How long defer art if cryptococcal or Tb meningitis

A

4-6 weeks

43
Q

HIV prophylaxis for infant with maternal vl at delivery <1000

A

Nevirapine only 6 weeks

44
Q

HIV prophylaxis for infant with maternal vl at delivery > 1000 and breastfed

A

NvP 12 weeks, AZT 6 weeks

45
Q

HIV prophylaxis for infant with maternal vl at delivery > 1000 and formula fed

A

NVp 6 weeks AZT 6 weeks

46
Q

Name 3 drugs that treat both hepatitis B and HIV

A

. Lamivudine
• tenafovir
• entricitabine

47
Q

Describe epi vaccination against polio

A

OPV: birth, 6 weeks (can cause Vapp)
IPV (as part of Dtap - ipv-hib- hepb): 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks, 18 months

48
Q

Max age that can give rotavirus vaccine?

A

24 weeks (cause intussasception)

Chemical Pathology (23 decks)

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