Viruses 2 Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
What is the incubation period of smallpox?
A
10-14 days
2
Q
What are the stages of smallpox rash?
A
- Macules
- Papules
- Vesicles
- Pustules
- Crusts
3
Q
What is the portal of entry for the smallpox virus?
A
The mucous membrane of upper respiratory tract
4
Q
What is the primary multiplication site for the smallpox virus?
A
Lymphoid tissue
5
Q
What genus does the smallpox virus belong to?
A
Orthopoxvirus
6
Q
What is the classification of the smallpox virus?
A
Variola
7
Q
True or False: The smallpox virus has been officially declared eradicated.
A
True
8
Q
What are the main methods of laboratory diagnosis for smallpox?
A
- Direct examination with electron microscopy
- Nucleic acid detection using PCR
- Virus isolation using cell culture
- Serology & antibody assays
9
Q
What is the treatment available for smallpox?
A
- Vaccinia immune globulin
- Antiviral agents like tecovirimat and brincidofovir
10
Q
What type of vaccine is used for smallpox prevention?
A
Live, attenuated vaccine
11
Q
What is the typical lesion for Molluscum contagiosum?
A
A small, firm, umbilicated papule
12
Q
Fill in the blank: The virus responsible for monkeypox is called _______.
A
Monkeypox virus
13
Q
What species does the Orf virus belong to?
A
Parapoxvirus
14
Q
What are the modes of transmission for monkeypox?
A
- Animal-to-human
- Human-to-human
15
Q
What is the incubation period for monkeypox?
A
6 to 16 days
16
Q
What are the key properties of Poxviruses?
A
- Brick or oval shape
- Dumbbell-shaped core
- Large double stranded DNA genome
- Replication in cytoplasm
- Extremely resistant to ether and glycerol
17
Q
What is the primary reservoir host suspected for monkeypox?
A
Rodents and squirrels
18
Q
What is the classification of Molluscum contagiosum virus?
A
Molluscipoxvirus
19
Q
What is the typical clinical presentation of Orf virus infection in humans?
A
Milder infections with vesicles or pustules
20
Q
What precautions should be taken to prevent Orf virus infection?
A
- Avoid direct contact with infected animals
- Avoid contact with contaminated materials
21
Q
How can smallpox be transmitted?
A
By respiratory spread and contact with contaminated objects
22
Q
True or False: The smallpox virus can infect both humans and monkeys.
A
True
23
Q
What are the genera that cause disease in humans within the Chordopoxvirinae subfamily?
A
- Orthopoxvirus
- Molluscipoxvirus
- Parapoxvirus
- Yatapoxvirus
24
Q
What is the primary application of vectors in human somatic gene therapy?
A
Ability to infect replicating and non-replicating cells, accommodate large transgenes, and code for proteins without integrating into the host cell’s genome.
Used in conditions like cystic fibrosis and alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency.
25
What viral infection can cause hydrops foetalis in pregnant women?
B19 virus infection.
## Footnote
It causes severe fetal anemia and may lead to edema.
26
What is the first sign of illness in Erythema infectiosum caused by B19 virus?
Marked erythema of the cheeks ('slapped-cheeks' appearance).
## Footnote
Followed by a rash on the trunk and limbs.
27
True or False: Most pregnancies affected by B19 virus infection result in congenital abnormalities.
False.
## Footnote
Most pregnancies continue to term with normal delivery.
28
What is the clinical manifestation of B19 virus infection characterized by acute anemia in individuals with underlying hemolytic anemia?
Aplastic crisis.
## Footnote
Symptoms include severe anemia with critically low hemoglobin levels.
29
What are the common laboratory methods for diagnosing B19 virus infection?
Serological methods and molecular methods.
## Footnote
Includes B19 antigen detection and PCR for viral DNA.
30
Fill in the blank: The most common clinical manifestation of B19 virus infection is ______.
Erythema infectiosum.
31
What is the role of the erythrocyte P antigen in B19 virus infection?
It is the cell receptor for B19 virus.
## Footnote
Individuals lacking the P antigen are immune to infection.
32
What is the epidemiology of parvovirus B19 infection in children?
Common in school-aged children, with antibody seroprevalence increasing with age.
## Footnote
Transmission occurs mainly in daycare facilities.
33
What are the characteristics of parvoviruses?
Small DNA viruses, single-stranded, non-enveloped.
## Footnote
Classified into two groups based on replication requirements.
34
What is the pathogenesis of B19 virus infection?
Infection of rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors leads to suppression of erythropoiesis and lysis of host cells.
## Footnote
Results in transient loss of erythrocyte precursors.
35
What is the typical recovery time for joint involvement in B19 arthropathy?
2 to 4 weeks.
## Footnote
Joint involvement occurs mostly in women.
36
Fill in the blank: No specific ______ therapy is available for the treatment of B19 virus infection.
antiviral.
37
What type of anemia is self-limiting in normal individuals with B19 virus infection?
Aplastic anemia.
## Footnote
Blood transfusion support is usually not required.
38
What kind of conditions does chronic B19 infection commonly occur in?
Immunodeficiency conditions like HIV, chemotherapy, or transplant recipients.
## Footnote
Seen as chronic anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia.
39
True or False: There is a vaccine available for B19 virus infection.
False.
## Footnote
No vaccine is currently available.
40
What serological methods are used for diagnosing B19 virus infection?
Antigen detection and antibody detection.
## Footnote
A ≥4-fold rise in antibodies is rarely used.
41
What are the common adenovirus serotypes associated with respiratory disease?
3, 4, 7, 14, 21.
## Footnote
Especially prevalent in military recruits.
42
What is the size range of parvovirus B19?
18-26 nm in diameter.
## Footnote
It is the smallest DNA virus.
43
What are the common clinical manifestations of B19 virus infection in children?
Erythema infectiosum and mild respiratory illness.
## Footnote
May not always present with rash.
44
What type of microscopy is used for laboratory diagnosis of viral infections?
Electron microscopy.
## Footnote
Useful for observing cytopathic effects.
45
What is epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?
A highly contagious condition characterized by insidious onset of unilateral red eye, possible subsequent bilateral involvement, photophobia, tearing, and pain.
## Footnote
Fever and lymphadenopathy may be present in some children. May occur as an epidemic usually caused by serotype 8 and less often by serotypes 19 and 37.
46
What are the symptoms of conjunctivitis?
Follicular conjunctivitis where the mucosa of the palpebral conjunctiva becomes nodular.
## Footnote
Swimming pool conjunctivitis may occur due to irritation of the eye by a foreign body, dust, or debris.
47
What is the structure of adenoviruses?
Double stranded, non-enveloped DNA viruses measuring 80 - 110nm in diameter, with a DNA core complex encased in an eicosahedral capsid and fibers protruding from each of the 12 vertices of the capsid.
48
What is the stability of adenoviruses?
Relatively stable, remain viable for about 1 week at 37°C, but readily inactivated at 50°C. Resistant to ether, bile salts, drying, detergents, GIT secretions, and mild chlorine treatment.
49
What is the treatment and prevention for adenovirus infections?
No specific treatment; live, non-attenuated vaccines against serotypes 4, 7, and 21 are used only by the military. Vaccines are monovalent and delivered by mouth in an enteric-coated capsule.
50
List the groups of human adenoviruses.
* Group A: 12, 18, 31
* Group B: 3, 7, 11, 14, 16, 21, 34, 35
* Group C: 1, 2, 5, 6
* Group D: 8-10, 13, 15, 17, 19, 20, 22-30, 32, 33, 36-39, 42-47
* Group E: 4
* Group F: 40, 41
51
What are common clinical manifestations of adenovirus infections?
* More than 50% of infections are asymptomatic
* Upper respiratory tract: pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acute respiratory disease, laryngitis
* Lower respiratory tract: bronchitis, atypical pneumonia, bronchiolitis, croup
* Urogenital tract: haematuria, dysuria
* Gastrointestinal tract: fever, watery diarrhoea
52
What are the main sources of adenovirus infection?
Symptomatic and asymptomatic infected persons due to intermittent shedding of the virus in respiratory secretions and faeces.
53
What are the common modes of transmission for adenoviruses?
* Aerosol
* Faeco-oral (most common among young children)
* Direct inoculation via fingers or poorly chlorinated swimming pools.
54
What are the risk factors for adenovirus infections?
* Overcrowding
* Poor hygiene
* Close contact
55
True or False: Adenoviruses cause 5-10% of febrile illnesses.
True
56
Fill in the blank: Adenoviruses are divided into _______ groups based on DNA homology and other properties.
6
57
What is the incubation period for adenoviruses?
Variable, generally 2-14 days.
58
What types of vaccines are available against adenoviruses?
Live, non-attenuated vaccines against serotypes 4, 7, and 21.
59
What is the significance of serotypes 8, 19, and 37 in adenoviruses?
They are the most common causes of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.
60
What is the primary disease caused by rotaviruses?
Acute gastroenteritis
61
True or False: Rotaviruses are a leading cause of severe diarrhea in children worldwide.
True
62
Fill in the blank: Rotaviruses are classified as ______ viruses.
double-stranded RNA
63
What age group is most affected by rotavirus infections?
Children under five years old
64
What is the mode of transmission for rotaviruses?
Fecal-oral route
65
Which rotavirus vaccine is commonly used in many countries?
RotaTeq or Rotarix
66
What are common symptoms of rotavirus infection?
Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain
67
True or False: Rotaviruses can survive on surfaces for several days.
True
68
What is the incubation period for rotavirus infection?
1 to 3 days
69
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for severe rotavirus infection? A) Malnutrition B) Immunodeficiency C) Age over 60 D) Lack of vaccination
C) Age over 60
70
What type of immunity is developed after a rotavirus infection?
Typically lifelong immunity to the specific strain
71
Fill in the blank: The rotavirus is part of the family ______.
Reoviridae
72
True or False: Rotavirus infections are only a concern in developing countries.
False
73
What is the main preventive measure against rotavirus infections?
Vaccination
74
Short Answer: How can rotavirus infections be diagnosed?
Through stool tests or enzyme immunoassays
75
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a complication of severe rotavirus infection? A) Dehydration B) Pneumonia C) Appendicitis D) Anemia
A) Dehydration
76
Fill in the blank: The rotavirus genome consists of ______ segments.
11
77
What is the primary treatment for rotavirus infection?
Rehydration therapy
78
True or False: Antiviral medications are effective against rotavirus.
False
79
What type of vaccine is RotaTeq?
Live attenuated vaccine
80
Short Answer: What role do healthcare professionals play in preventing rotavirus spread?
Promoting vaccination and hygiene practices
81
Multiple Choice: Which season is rotavirus infection most common? A) Winter B) Spring C) Summer D) Fall
A) Winter
82
True or False: Breastfeeding can reduce the severity of rotavirus infections.
True
83
What is the global impact of rotavirus on child mortality?
It contributes to hundreds of thousands of deaths annually.
84
Fill in the blank: The rotavirus is known for its ______ appearance under an electron microscope.
wheel-like
85
Short Answer: Why is rotavirus considered a public health priority?
Due to its high prevalence and potential for severe dehydration in infants and young children.
86
What type of virus is rabies?
Rabies is a lyssavirus.
87
True or False: Rabies can be transmitted through saliva.
True.
88
Fill in the blank: The primary animal reservoirs for rabies are __________.
bats, raccoons, skunks, and foxes.
89
What is the main symptom of rabies in humans?
Hydrophobia (fear of water) is a main symptom.
90
How is the rubella virus classified?
Rubella virus is classified as a togavirus.
91
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a symptom of rubella? A) Rash B) Fever C) Joint pain D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
92
What is the incubation period for rubella?
The incubation period for rubella is typically 14 to 21 days.
93
True or False: Rubella can cause congenital defects if contracted during pregnancy.
True.
94
What is the primary mode of transmission for rubella?
Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets.
95
Fill in the blank: The vaccine for rubella is often given in combination with __________ and __________.
measles and mumps.
96
What is the fatality rate of rabies once symptoms appear?
The fatality rate of rabies is nearly 100% once symptoms appear.
97
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of rabies? A) Confusion B) Hallucinations C) Rash D) Paralysis
C) Rash.
98
What is the treatment for rabies after exposure?
Post-exposure prophylaxis with rabies vaccine and rabies immune globulin.
99
True or False: Rubella is more serious in adults than in children.
True.
100
What is the characteristic rash associated with rubella?
A light pink rash that starts on the face and spreads downward.
101
Fill in the blank: The rabies virus travels along __________ to reach the brain.
nerves.
102
What is the primary prevention method for rabies?
Vaccination of pets and post-exposure prophylaxis.
103
Multiple Choice: Which group is at the highest risk for rubella infection? A) Infants B) Pregnant women C) Elderly D) Athletes
B) Pregnant women.
104
What is the main diagnostic test for rabies?
The direct fluorescent antibody test (DFAT) on brain tissue.
105
True or False: Once rabies symptoms appear, it is possible to recover.
False.
106
What is the role of the rubella vaccine in public health?
To prevent rubella outbreaks and congenital rubella syndrome.
107
Fill in the blank: Rabies is usually diagnosed based on clinical signs and __________.
history of exposure.
108
What is the effect of rubella on pregnant women during the first trimester?
It can lead to serious birth defects.
109
Multiple Choice: What is a common complication of rubella? A) Meningitis B) Encephalitis C) Deafness D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
110
What is the recommended age for rubella vaccination?
Children should receive the rubella vaccine at 12-15 months of age.
111
True or False: Rabies can be spread from person to person.
False, it is primarily a zoonotic disease.
112
What are the two phases of rabies symptoms?
The prodromal phase and the neurologic phase.
113
Fill in the blank: Rubella is also known as __________.
German measles.
114
What is the primary prevention method for rubella?
Vaccination.
115
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a method to control rabies outbreaks? A) Vaccinating wildlife B) Quarantine C) Public awareness D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
116
What type of virus is rabies?
Rabies is a lyssavirus.
117
True or False: Rabies can be transmitted through saliva.
True.
118
Fill in the blank: The primary animal reservoirs for rabies are __________.
bats, raccoons, skunks, and foxes.
119
What is the main symptom of rabies in humans?
Hydrophobia (fear of water) is a main symptom.
120
How is the rubella virus classified?
Rubella virus is classified as a togavirus.
121
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a symptom of rubella? A) Rash B) Fever C) Joint pain D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
122
What is the incubation period for rubella?
The incubation period for rubella is typically 14 to 21 days.
123
True or False: Rubella can cause congenital defects if contracted during pregnancy.
True.
124
What is the primary mode of transmission for rubella?
Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets.
125
Fill in the blank: The vaccine for rubella is often given in combination with __________ and __________.
measles and mumps.
126
What is the fatality rate of rabies once symptoms appear?
The fatality rate of rabies is nearly 100% once symptoms appear.
127
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of rabies? A) Confusion B) Hallucinations C) Rash D) Paralysis
C) Rash.
128
What is the treatment for rabies after exposure?
Post-exposure prophylaxis with rabies vaccine and rabies immune globulin.
129
True or False: Rubella is more serious in adults than in children.
True.
130
What is the characteristic rash associated with rubella?
A light pink rash that starts on the face and spreads downward.
131
Fill in the blank: The rabies virus travels along __________ to reach the brain.
nerves.
132
What is the primary prevention method for rabies?
Vaccination of pets and post-exposure prophylaxis.
133
Multiple Choice: Which group is at the highest risk for rubella infection? A) Infants B) Pregnant women C) Elderly D) Athletes
B) Pregnant women.
134
What is the main diagnostic test for rabies?
The direct fluorescent antibody test (DFAT) on brain tissue.
135
True or False: Once rabies symptoms appear, it is possible to recover.
False.
136
What is the role of the rubella vaccine in public health?
To prevent rubella outbreaks and congenital rubella syndrome.
137
Fill in the blank: Rabies is usually diagnosed based on clinical signs and __________.
history of exposure.
138
What is the effect of rubella on pregnant women during the first trimester?
It can lead to serious birth defects.
139
Multiple Choice: What is a common complication of rubella? A) Meningitis B) Encephalitis C) Deafness D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
140
What is the recommended age for rubella vaccination?
Children should receive the rubella vaccine at 12-15 months of age.
141
True or False: Rabies can be spread from person to person.
False, it is primarily a zoonotic disease.
142
What are the two phases of rabies symptoms?
The prodromal phase and the neurologic phase.
143
Fill in the blank: Rubella is also known as __________.
German measles.
144
What is the primary prevention method for rubella?
Vaccination.
145
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a method to control rabies outbreaks? A) Vaccinating wildlife B) Quarantine C) Public awareness D) All of the above
D) All of the above.
