VN01 Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Who can own a veterinary practice?

A

Anyone, as long as they employ a veterinary surgeon as the clinical lead.

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2
Q

What 3 types of insurance does a veterinary practice need to have?

A

Professional indemnity, Employer’s liability, and Public liability insurance.

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3
Q

What is an independent practice?

A

It is a practice owned and operated by an individual, or a small group of partners.

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4
Q

What is a corporate practice?

A

A practice owned and operated by a company,

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5
Q

What is a joint venture partnership model?

A

A franchise, whereby and individual or small group go into partnership with a larger, established company.

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6
Q

What is a first opinion practice?

A

Treatment of an animal by it’s own veterinary surgeon/ practice.

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7
Q

What is a secondary referral practice?

A

A practice that only accepts cases referred by another practice, and does not undertake initial consultations.

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8
Q

What is the Practice Standards Scheme?

A

A voluntary initiative, run by the RCVS, that aims to promote and maintain the highest standard of veterinary care.

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9
Q

Name the 4 areas practices can apply for accreditations in the Practice Standards Scheme.

A

Core Standards, General Practice, Emergency Service Clinic and Veterinary Hospital.

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10
Q

What legislation does the BVA state advertising must comply with?

A

The Animal Welfare Act 2006.

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11
Q

What are the FIVE welfare needs within the Animal Welfare Act 2006?

A

The need for; A suitable environment. A suitable diet, ability to exhibit natural behaviours, Be housed with or part from other animals and Be protected from pain, suffering, injury and disease.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the Veterinary Surgeon’s Act?

A

To define what veterinary surgery is, and who may practise veterinary surgery.

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13
Q

In the Veterinary Surgeon’s Act, what is Veterinary Surgery defines as?

A

“The art and science of veterinary surgery and medicine”
including, The diagnosis of diseases and injuries in animals (including diagnostic tests), The giving of advise based upon the diagnosis, The medical or surgical treatment of animals and performance of surgical operations on animals.

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14
Q

Under Schedule 3 of the Veterinary Surgeon’s Act, who can administer first aid?

A

Anyone, in an emergency and for the purpose of saving an animal’s life.

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15
Q

Can Vet Students carry out tests and perform surgery?

A

Yes, but it must be under direction from a vet, and supervised by the vet or sometimes where appropriate, an RVN.

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16
Q

Under what conditions can an RVN perform schedule 3 tasks?

A

Be an RVN, work under the direction of the veterinary surgeon, on an animal that is directly under that surgeon’s care and the RVN must be employed by that vet or both have the same employer.

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17
Q

Can SVNs perform schedule 3 tasks?

A

Yes, but it must be part of training and treatment or surgery must be supervised by the vet or an RVN. (For surgery the supervision must be direct, continuous and personal).

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18
Q

What must RVNs do in order to enter the registration?

A

Achieve the necessary qualification, pay the registration fee and make a statement of good character (including declaring any convictions).

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19
Q

In the Veterinary Surgeon’s Act, what does supervision mean?

A

Requires the person supervising to be present on the premises, and able to respond to a request for assistance if needed.

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20
Q

Do RVNs need supervision for tasks they competent in?

A

No, but it still MUST be delegated by a vet.

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21
Q

For schedule 3 tasks, what is meant by minor surgery?

A

Surgical procedures that do not require entry into a body cavity.

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22
Q

What is professional autonomy? And who has it?

A

The right to make professional decisions based on knowledge, and act on those decisions. Only Veterinary Surgeons have professional autonomy.

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23
Q

What is meant by personal competence?

A

The scope of an individual’s ability to perform a task based on; their training and experience, the nature of the treatment or procedure and the condition of the patient.

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24
Q

What could be the consequence of an RVN practising beyond their scope of personal competence?

A

Deficient professional care, complaint to the RCVS or the client raising a negligence case if loss or damage is caused.

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25
What do the letters stand for in the mnemonic SUBERB, in relation to the delegation of tasks by a Veterinary Surgeon?
Specific procedure, is it legal for them to do? Under care, is the the animal under that surgeon's care? Person, can you legally delegate to this person? Experience, does the RVN/SVN feel capable and have the knowledge/ skills required? Risks, has you considered the risks? Be there, are you able to assist if necessary.
26
What is a lay-person?
Unqualified people, not permitted to perform schedule 3 tasks.
27
What does The VMD do?
Part of DEFRA, a branch of the government. It is responsible for ensuring medicines used in animals are safe and effective (for the animal and the user). They are also responsible for making the legislation surrounding prescribing and supplying medicines. Also the Code Of Practice for SQPs.
28
What does the VMD stand for?
Veterinary Medicines Directorate.
29
In what ways does the VMD ensure medicine is safe effective for use?
Drug trials, drug categories and pharmacovigilance (reports of adverse effects).
30
What are the 4 legal categories of medications?
POM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS and AVM-GSL.
31
Who can prescribe POM-V meds?
Only a Veterinary Surgeon.
32
Who can prescribe POM-VPS meds?
Vets, Pharmacists and SQPs.
33
Is a prescription needed for NFA-VPS and AVM-GSL meds?
No. (NFA-VPS needs to be supplied by a vet, pharmacist or SQP though).
34
How often are the Veterinary Medicines regulations updated?
every 18-24 months.
35
What does prescribe mean?
Authorising the use of medication for an animal or group of animals.
36
What does supply mean?
Stocking and selling of medication in accordance with the legislation.
37
What does dispensing mean?
Handing the medication to the client, with instructions on how to use it safely.
38
Give examples of a registered premises?
An SQP retailer such as Pets at Home, A registered pharmacy such as online pharmacies and A registered veterinary Practice.
39
How often are Practices normally inspected by the VMD?
Every 4 years.
40
What regulations must practices be compliant with in their VMD inpections?
Veterinary Medicines Regulations 2024 and Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
41
During a VMD inspection, what 5 areas are inspected in regards to medication kept in the practice?
Suitable secure premises, correctly stored medications, correct disposal methods, records of receipt and supply of POM-V and POM-VPS medications (5 years) and advertising (making sure POM-V and POM-VPS meds are not advertised).
42
In a VMD inspection, what are the level of deficiencies?
Minor, Major and Critical.
43
After an improvement notice from the VMD, how long do practices have to respond?
Minimum 14 days.
44
What is a seizure notice from a VMD inspector?
The seizure of veterinary medicines that have been illegally imported, supplied, marketed or administered. It must state which products are are to be seized, and the grounds for seizure of the medication.
45
What are 3 reasons for keeping clinical records?
Contact information for the owner, to provide a permanent record of processes that took place (for future reference or use in court/disciplinary hearings), to give hand over information and to track changes in the patient.
46
What details should be recorded in clinical records?
Client details, history of case, clinical assessment info, plan for patient care, treatments given, liaison with other professionals and liaison with the owner.
47
What should clinical records be?
Accurate, comprehensible, legible. They should also be objective and factual.
48
In regards to clinical assessments, what does SOAPIER stand for?
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan, Implement, Evaluate and Re-assess.
49
When should clinical records be recorded and why?
As soon as an event has happened. To avoid inaccuracies, mistakes and forgetting to add important information.
50
How long must financial records be kept for in a practice?
6 years.
51
What information must an admission record for a patient contain?
Owner's details, contact details, patient details, an accurate description of procedures to be carried out, declaration of fasting periods, a fee estimate and the signature of the owner or authorised agent. You can also include current medication or allergies.
52
What information should a patient discharge record contain?
test carried out and results, procedures carried out, medication to go home, feeding instructions, rest periods, wound care, follow up instructions, what to expect and who to call with concerns.
53
What information is held on the Microchip database for an animal?
Full name, address, telephone number, name of keeper, Original name or ID number of animal, Sex, Breed or description if cross breed, colour, date of birth (estimate of not known) and MICROCHIP NUMBER.
54
Who is responsible for keeping the details of the microchip up to date?
The owner/ keeper.
55
Why must you not withhold information on an insurance form?
It is classed a fraud, which is a criminal offense.
56
What does GDPR stand for?
General Data protection Regulations.
57
What does GDPR cover?
Client's personal information, not clinical information about a pet. Regulates how personal information is used, and ensures individuals have the right to see personal information kept about them.
58
What are the eight principles of GDPR?
Fairly and lawfully processed, Processed for limited purposes, adequate relevant and not excessive, accurate and up to date, not kept for longer than necessary, processed in line with your rights, secure and not transferred to other countries without adequate protection.
59
What is an opt-in system in regards to advertising to clients?
Clients are given the option to opt -in or advertising contact, it must not be sent to them unless they have chosen to opt-in.
60
When can a vet/nurse report something about a dog without the owners permission?
To the kennel club, if a KV registered bitch has a caesarean, or a KC registered dog has surgery to alter it's conformation (e.g. boas surgery). They can also breach confidentiality if animal welfare of public interest is compromised. Nurses should have personal knowledge of this, and discuss with a vet before reporting.
61
What is a second opinion?
A veterinary surgeon decides to discuss a clinical case with a colleague, or someone outside the practice. Clients can also request one.
62
What is supersession?
This is where a veterinary surgeon takes over a clinical case without the original vet's knowledge.
63
What are the main roles of an RVN in practice?
Supportive care for patients, Assisting the Veterinary Surgeon, Client liaison/ education, administrative, general practice support and meeting PSS requirements.
64
How many hours of CPD do RVNS need to complete each year?
15 hours.
65
If the nurse has a break of 5 years or more from the register, what must they do to return to practise?
17 weeks of supervised practice, and provide evidence of competence.
66
What must a nurse do in order to practice legally?
Be qualified, on the register (paid), undertake 15 hours of CPD per year, adhere to the professional code of conduct, and be subject to disciplinary hearing if needed.
67
What must SVNs do to be working legally?
Register with the RCVS as an SVN. Enrolled on a qualification recognised by the RCVS (e.g. Vetskill level 3 diploma).
68
What is Professional Regulation?
A system of rules and regulations that members of a professional must follow, in order to protect the public, and uphold the good reputation of that profession.
69
Who do Regulatory Bodies consist of?
Elected members of the profession, people nominated by outside organisations and lay members (unbiased).
70
Who is the regulatory body for the veterinary profession?
The RCVS.
71
What is the VN council?
They prepare for and undertake the voluntary regulation of Veterinary nurses.. RVNs decided they wanted to be regulated voluntarily, even though it is not a legal requirement as it is for Vet Surgeons. The VN council has responsibility for matters relating to VN training, Post Qualification awards and registration of qualified nurses.
72
What does the RCVS do?
Holds and maintains the register, Sets standards in education and practice, maintains those standards (CPD and disciplinary processes etc) and provides advice to professional and consumers.
73
What is the RCVS Veterinary Nurse Registration Rules?
A set of regulations that state; the education and training needed to achieve a nursing qualification, and requirements for entry, retention and restoration onto the Register of Veterinary Nurses.
74
How many hours of practical training must someone complete in an approved training practice, in order to become an RVN?
1800 hours.
75
Why might an RVN be investigated by a regulatory body?
Poor professional performance, a criminal conviction or caution, physical or mental health problem that effects ability to do the job, professional misconduct and fraudulent registration.
76
What are examples of CPD?
Lectures, Courses, Lunch and Learns, Congresses, Webinars, Workshops and Clinical Meetings.
77
What is Stage One of the disciplinary process?
Preliminary Investigation committee. Composed usually of an RVN, A Surgeon and a lay person. (or two RVNS and a lay person).
78
What is Stage 2 of the disciplinary process?
Preliminary Investigation committee Stage 2, private meetings to decide whether to close the case, close it and issue advice to RVN, or refer the case to the Charter Committee.
79
Why might a case be referred to the RVNDC for a hearing?
Serious departure from the code of conduct, sexual offences, evidence of a deep-seated personality or attitude problem, or dishonesty from the RVN, particularly if it id prolonged or concealed.
80
What is Stage 3 of the RVN disciplinary process?
A formal public hearing, similar to a court hearing. Charges are heard against the RVN alleging serious professional misconduct, or unfitness to practice because of criminal conviction. The committee consist of a Vet Surgeon, RVNS, Lay persons.
81
What could be the outcome of a Stage 3 disciplinary hearing for RVNs?
A warning to future conduct, suspension for up to 2 years, Removal from the register.
82
How long after removal from the register following disciplinary action, can a person apply for restoration?
Application for restoration to the register can be 10 months after removal.
83
What does BVNA stand for?
British Veterinary Nursing Association.
84
What does BSAVA stand for?
British Small Animal Veterinary Association.
85
What is the Veterinary Client Mediation Service (VCMS)?
An alternative to the disciplinary process, called an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Scheme. It is administered by Nockolds, an independent firm of solicitors, not the RCVS. They deal with less serious complaints.
86
What are the 5 principles of practice in the Code of professional Conduct for RVNs?
Professional competence, Honesty and integrity, Independence and Impartiality, Client Confidentiality and Trust and Professional Accountability.