Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCOAS - VN > VNSA4 > Flashcards

VNSA4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is welfare ?

A

The physical and mental state of an animal in relation to the conditions in which it lives and dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how can you measure welfare by physiological factors?

A
  • heart rate and rhythm
  • pulse rate and rhythm
  • respiratory rate and rhythm
  • blood pressure rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is stress?

A
  • A survival adaption
  • Increases the amount of oxygen and glucose to the vital organs and muscles
  • Fight and flight response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What signs may you see if an animal is suffering from stress?

A

Internal factors:
-tachycardia
-tachypnoea
-hyperthermia
Hypertension

Physiological factors:
-ears back
-teeth showing
-body posture tense and weight forward or back
-growling/hissing
-dilated pupils and showing the white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is preference testing? And what problems may it cause ?

A
  • a number of options are offered to an animal and they select their preferred option.

Problems:
-you may get different preferences with different measures
-effects of experience, may prefer what is familiar
-handler bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What problems come with behavioural observation?

A
  • straightforward for overt behaviours like aggression

-more difficult to validate for more subtle measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Animal Welfare Act 2006
What are the 5 freedoms ?

A
  1. Freedom from hunger and thirst
  2. Freedom from discomfort
  3. Freedom from pain injury or disease
  4. Freedom to express normal behaviour
  5. Freedom from fear and distress.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DEFRA
Department for environment, food and rural affairs

What is involved within this legislation?

A

-transporting animals
-microchipping
-report notifiable diseases
-farm welfare
-produce welfare codes of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

APHA
Animal and plant health agency

What is involved within this legislation?

A

Safeguard animal and plant health for the benefit of people, the environment and the economy.

Identifying and controlling endemic and exotic diseases and pests in animals, plants and bees.

Surveillance of new and emerging pests and diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is involved within the pet travel scheme?

A

Allowing owners to take their dogs, cats and ferrets to counties within the EU.

Stages needed to follow the scheme:
-has been microchipped
-has a pet passport or pet health certificate
-has been vaccinated against rabies
-specific counties require a tapeworm tablet

The Animal health certificate must be done within 10 days of travel
Rabies vac must be done within 21 days of travel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does PETS maintain animal welfare

A

-prevents spread of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Veterinary Surgeons Act 1966

A

Regulates members of the veterinary profession.

Contributes to animal welfare by ensuring only a qualified member of staff can practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the RSPCA protect welfare

Royal Society for the protection of cruelty to animals

A
  • pushes for changes in the law to improve the welfare of animals

-through investigations and prosecutions they rescue animals who suffered deliberate harm.

-rescue, rehabilitate, rehome or release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the RSPB protect animal welfare?

A

-Protect habitats, save species and help to end the nature and climate emergency.

-carry out conservation work

-5 main work areas are:
1. Science
2.species
3.places
4.people
5.policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Introducing new animal stock.

A
  1. Method
  2. Quarantine
    3.minimising stress
    4.individual
    5.Group dynamics
    6.timing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name equipment used for handling

A

-basket
-collar
-lead
-crush cage
-bag
-nets
-dog catcher
-snake hook
-grasper
-gauntlets
-muzzles
-harness
-noose
-tape muzzle
-towels
-goads
-gloves
-goggles
-apron
-hood, wild birds
-holding pen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When looking at an animal how can you read body language ?

A

Body - tense, relaxed, arched back

Tail - wagging, upright, between legs, straight out

Ears - relaxed, pricked, flat

Eyes - pupils dilated, avoiding eye contact, squinting, wide eyed

Vocalisation - barking, growling, purring, hissing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Body language of a dog

A

Friendly; relaxed body posture, wagging tail, weight distributed.

Pain; tense, tail down, whimpering, grumpy, lameness

Anxious; standing, head and body posture kept low, tail tucked, ears back

Aggressive; stiffened body posture, weight forward, ears up, teeth exposed

Depressed; hunched, no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Body language of a cat

A

Friendly; relaxed body, ears in natural position, tail held out loosely, body stretched

Pain; let her gain, hiding, pupils dilated

Anxious; hidden away, tense, tail tucked, ears sideways, pupils dilated

Aggressive; arched posture, hair raised, tense, paw ready to swipe, hissing, pupils dilated, mouth open

Depressed; hunched and no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Body language of a rabbit

A

Friendly; lying down, extended out, relaxed body, jumping around

Pain; teeth grinding, doesn’t want to be touched, not eating

Anxious; hiding, crouched, tense, ears wide apart, eyes

Aggressive; tense, raised tail, mouth open, visible teeth, pupils dilated

Depressed; hunched and no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Body language of a rodent

A

Friendly; relaxed body

Pain; may hide away, may be aggressive

Anxious; hide away, may vocalise

Aggressive; vocalising, forward behaviour, defensive behaviour

Depressed; hunched and no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Body language in birds

A

Friendly; relaxed, wings not tense, engaged with environment

Pain; hides it well, protect themselves

Anxious; may be quiet or may vocalise, overstimulated by surroundings

Aggressive; dependant on species - vocalising, change in plumage, head bobbing

Depressed; hunched and no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Body language in exotics

A

Friendly; relaxed

Pain; not obvious

Anxious; not obvious (similar to aggression)

Aggression; colour changes, head bobbing or shaking, tail whip, flat body, S bend in snakes, hissing in chelonians

Depressed; hunched and no interest in surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of stress in a dog

A

-yawning
-aggression
-shaking/trembling
-panting
-sweaty paws
-dilated pupils
-excessive barking
-drooling
-hiding
-licking/scratching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Signs of stress in a cat

A

-aggression
-hiding
-dilated pupils
-sweaty paws
-open mouth breathing.
-anorexia
-over eating
-over grooming
-under grooming
-house soiling
-urine marking
-vocalisation
-appearing withdrawn
-running away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Restraining dogs

A

-collar or harness and lead
-halti
-slip lead
-muzzle
-Mikki or tape
-wrapped towel
-rolled towel (brachycephalics)
-dog catcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Restraining cats

A

-muzzle
-towel
-gauntlets
-cat grasper
-cat bag
-don’t scruff unless necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Restraining rabbits

A

Most are docile

A struggling rabbit may lash out with its hind legs and fracture or dislocate its spine

Severe stress can induce cardiac arrest

Transport by holding them close to your chest

Do not trance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Restraining rodents

A
  • scruffing may be appropriate

-cup in hand

-may use towels if larger

(Rats - encircle the pectoral girdle behind the forelimbs, support their weight with the other hand)

(Mice - grasp the tail near to the base and place on a non slip surface. With the other hand the mouse can be grasped at the scruff between the thumb and the forefingers allowing the mouse to be turned. Never grab the tip of the tail)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Restraining guinea pigs

A

Minimal noises and dim lighting to catch them

Grasp behind the front limbs from the dorsal aspect, support their weight with the other hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Restraining chinchillas and degus

A

Easily stressed
restrict noise and dim the lights to catch them
Grasp behind the front limbs form the dorsal aspect, support their weight with the other hand.
Do not scruff chinchillas (results in fur loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Restraining ferrets

A

Grasp from the dorsal aspect, just behind the front legs, using the thumb and forefinger.

For livelier individuals, place the thumb under the chin, pushing the jaw upwards and the rest of the fingers grasping the other side of the neck, support the rear limbs with the other hand.

For aggressive ferrets a firm hold of the scruff may be necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Restraining birds

A

Use a quiet darkened room
Remove all toys and perches
Pick up gently and hold wings into the body
Don’t restrict respiration

Use towels to match the size of the bird
Birds of prey can use a hood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Restraining Reptiles

A

Snakes - pick up gently from the widest part and support them. Use the hook if needed. If over 2.5m two people must hold.

Lizards - picked up around the pectoral girdle.

Terrapins - carry salmonella so basic hygiene required. Bite hard.

Tortoises - friendly, don’t trap finger between leg and shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define aggression

A

Aggression is defined as threats or harmful actions directed toward another individual and can include threat displays.
Lunging, growling, snarling and biting.

In animals aggression is a form of communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ladder of aggression for dogs

A
  1. Yawning, blinking, nose licking
  2. Turning head away
  3. Turning body away, sitting, pawing
  4. Walking away
  5. Creeping ears back
  6. standing crouched, tail tucked under
  7. Lying down, leg up
  8. Stiffening up, staring
  9. Growling
  10. Snapping
  11. biting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When moving a patient in practice or giving a client advice on travel it is important to consider:

A

-size of the animal
-nature of injury
-number of staff available
-behaviour of the patient
-the environment
-methods of restraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Travelling by air

A

Most airlines dont allow animals to travel with their owners in the cabin, instead they travel in a heated and pressurised area of the hold.

The International Air Transport Association Standards require their container to be large enough to stand up in and turn around with ease and have strict regulations.

Clients should be advised to contact DEFRA for info regarding entry requirements to their destination.

Travelling can be an issue for reptiles due to their inability to regulate body temp. Expert Reptile shipping experts should be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Feeding inpatients

A

Consider:
-species
-breed
-life stage
-health status

Fresh water should be freely available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Health, hygiene and safety considerations

A

-PPE and hand washing
-access to patients (limited to authorised personnel)
-security
-emergency procedures
-evacuation procedures
-strict hygiene essential
-using appropriate cleaning agents
-pests not able access area
-waste disposal in accordance to local authorities
-waste carrier licensed with environmental agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Heating in the practice

A

-proving warmth and comfort
-removing damp and condensation
-reduces the risk of respiratory infection

Types - central heating, electric fan heater, air on, underfloor heating, portable radiators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lighting in the practice/within kennels

A

Should be as natural as poss
Mimic their natural environment as closely as poss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ventilation in the practice

A

Reduces damp, noxious gases and droughts

Reduces incidence of respiratory disease

Minimum changes of air per hour is 4-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Structure of the kennels

A

-solid

-cleaned and disinfected

-secure and escape proof

-appropriate to species and condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Size of kennels

A

Adequate size to allow animals to:
-feed
-sleep sit and stand
-lie with limbs extended
-stretch and move around
-use a litter tray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The RCVS states that inpatient facilities should be :

A

-suitable size
-securable
-sturdy
-escape proof
-without potential injurious faults
-easily cleanable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the benefits of grooming ?

A

-helps them if they cant do it themselves
-bonding and can help get the animal used to being touched
-checks animals over (may find lumps, painful areas or parasites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Types of coats

A

Double coat - long topcoat and thick undercoat (eg, GSD)

Smooth coat - short, thin coat (eg, Dalmatian/boxer)

Wire coat - harsh topcoat and thick undercoat (eg, border terrier)

Wool coat (eg, poodle)

Silky coat - fine textured topcoat (eg, afghan hound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Types of brushes

A

Bristle brush - remove loose hair and dander, stimulate the skin (use on short coated and silky coats)

Pin brush - separates the top and undercoat, removes matts and tangles ( use on double coated breeds and long haired cats)

Comb - loosening matted hair, parasites (long haired animals)

Zoom groom - massage skin, stimulating capillaries (use on dogs and cats)

Slicker brush - go through coat and avoids skin (use on any animal)

Rake/furminator - remove undercoat and loose hair without damaging top coat (breeds and species that shed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Vaccinations

A

An attenuated version of the antigen is administered, inducing an immune response, meaning that it is then recognised if exposed again and mounts a rapid immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a passive vaccination?

A

Containing antibodies to a specific toxin

-antitoxins
-antiserum
-maternally derived antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is an active vaccination?

A

Stimulates the immune system to specific pathogens, inducing an immunological ‘memory’

-live vaccine

-inactive due or killed

-adjuvants

-live vaccines are usually more affective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Canine vaccination

A

Protection against - distemper, hepatitis, parvovirus, leptospirosis and para influenza.

1st vacc - recommend to start at 8wks
Puppies can be given from 6wks if required

2nd vacc - same vac given 3-4 wks after and be at least 9wks of age.

Kennel cough is recommended to be given too.

Booster vaccination every year.
(Full vac - VersicanDHppi/L4 repeated every 3 years)
(For years in between a part vaccination VersicanPi/L4 to be given)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Feline vaccination

A

Protect against - feline enteritis, rhinotracheitis and calicivirus. A separate vaccination is given for feline leukaemia is given at the same time.
Feline leukaemia is given on a 3 yearly basis in most cases - some owners wish not to have it.

1st vacc - given from 9wks of age (versifel CVR and FeLV used)

2nd vacc - Versifel CVR and FeLV used again 3-4 weeks after the first.
Onset of immunity is 3 weeks from the 2nd vac.

Yearly booster - use Versifel CVR and FeLV is given every 3 years provided they’ve had their primary jab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rabbit vaccine

A

Protected against - myxomatosis and rabbit haemorrhagic disease

From 5 weeks old

2 course vacc

Booster yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Parasite control

A

Must be:
-regular
-species appropriate
-life stage appropriate
-health status appropriate
-include endoparasite and ectoparasite treatment
-route of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Rabbit dental hygiene

A

Their teeth continually grow.
Their natural high fibre diet will grind these down, and the correct calcium:phosphorous ratio of the diet will ensure that they are of appropriate strength.

When not fed on this diet issues can occur and they overgrow, developing spikes that push into the tongue or cheeks causing pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Normal appearance of eyes

A

-Bilaterally symmetrical (size and position)
-Discharge free
-pupils constrict in presence of bright light
-third eyelid is usually not visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Checking ears

A

-examine for scratches, wounds and swellings
-examine vertical canal for inflammation, wax, purulent discharge, foreign bodies and parasites
-view tympanic membrane to check intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Checks for oral cavity

A

-Check: tongue, teeth and palate
-can the jaw be opened without pain?
-look for misalignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where can you assess mucous membranes ?

A

Mouth, eyes, genitalia, anal region
Normal is salmon pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Capillary refill time (CRT)

A

CRT in 2 secs

Prolonged CRT - poor perfusion, dehydration or shock
Fast CRT - sepsis or fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Appearance of external nares

A

Normal - moist, no discharge, patent air flow through both nostrils

Cats and rabbits are obligate nasal breathers, mouth breathing indicates severe respiratory compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

External genitalia appearance and discharge colours

A

Check for any swelling or abnormalities

Blood-stained discharge - normal reproductive cycle

Purulent discharge - pyometra

Green discharge in bitch - postpartum infection

Brown discharge - imminent parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - Muscle wastage

A

Think: Is it symmetrical ?
Usually normal but could be abnormal
Anything asymmetrical is abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Overall appearance of condition

A

Coat quality (alopecia could be a sign of endocrine disease)

Examine skin for dryness, scaliness, greasiness and evidence of parasites

Evaluation of skin elasticity can indicate hydration status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can abnormal head posture mean?

A

-vestibular syndrome
-middle ear disease
-encephalitozoon cuniculi - protozoan (condition in rabbits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - Mobility in animals

A

Can they move freely
Any signs of pain
Range of movement (flexion, extension and rotation)
Look at their gait
Proprioception tests to evaluate neurological function
Joints
Gently palpate for signs of discomfort, swelling and crepitus
Muscles
Claws and pads (frayed/torn nails may indicate RTA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lymph node position

A

Palpate for evidence of enlargement

Lymphadenopathies - diseases of the lymph nodes

Enlarged nodes may indicate infection or neoplasia which could be systemic or localised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - Thorax

A

Respiratory rate and effort (is it normal or how does it compare)

Vertebrate and rib cage (body condition score)

Auscultation (heartbeat normal/abnormal/rhythm)
Lungs normal (abnormal crackles or rales indicating pathology such as pneumonia or bronchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - Abdomen

A

Visual for distension

Possibilities - ascitic fluid, haemorrhage, gas in stomach, pregnant uterus, pyometra or bladder)

Palpitation - gentle, internal structures can be located, abnormalities detected, can be difficult in obese or tense patients .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - tail

A

Is there voluntary movement ?
Autotomy (shedding of the tail in some lizards)
If the tail is damaged, check for urinary function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Normal parameters in dogs?

A

Temp = 38.3 - 39.2 degrees Celsius

Heart rate = 70 -140 bpm

Respiratory rate = 10 - 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Normal parameters in cats

A

Temp = 38.2 - 38.6 degrees Celsius

Heart rate = 100 - 200 bpm

Respiratory rate = 30 - 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Normal parameters in rabbits

A

Temp = 38.5 - 40 degrees Celsius

Heart rate = 130 - 325 bpm

Respiratory rate = 30 - 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the formula for finding out normal water intake?

A

50-60mls/kg/day

Eg —> a 5kg cat has 50mls a day per kg
50 X 5 = 250mls over 24hrs
250mls divided 24 = 10.41 mls per hour (for fluids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is vomiting ?

A
  • forceful evacuation of stomach contents via mouth
    -nausea, hypersalivation, retching, abdominal contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is regurgitation ?

A
  • passive movement of food or liquid into the mouth, without warning or signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What species cannot vomit?

A

Hamsters, Rabbits and Guinea pigs

Hamsters can expel contents of check pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is normal urine production ?

A

1-2ml / kg/ hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - urine

A

Checked for:
-smell
-colour
-turbidity
-volume

(Rabbit urine - plant pigments cause colour to vary from deep yellow to red)
(Guinea pig and chinchilla urine is yellow and cloudy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Normal and abnormal indicators - Defecation

A

‘Normal’ amount and characteristic vary massively according to species

Check:
-colour
-smell
-shape
-consistency

Rabbits produce cecotropes (Cecil pellets) which are eaten.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pain recognition dogs

A

0 - comfortable, happy,content, non-tender

1 - content to slightly unsettled, distracted easily. Reacts to palpitation, looking around, whimpering.

2 - looks uncomfortable when resting, whimpering, not eager, flinches, cries, guards.

3 - unsettled, crying, groaning, biting, may be be subtle may be dramatic

4 - constantly groaning or screaming, crying, biting, potentially unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pain recognition in cats

A

0 - content, quiet, comfortable, not bothered

1 - subtle signs, withdrawal, slightly unsettled

2 - seeks solitude, quiet, responds aggressively

3 - constant yowling, growling, reacting aggressively, avoids contact

4 - Prostrate, potentially unresponsive, may not respond to palpitation, may be rigid to avoid movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Pain recognition in rabbits

A
  • anorexia
    -reduced thirst
  • changes in gait
    -hunched
    -frozen appearance
    -teeth grinding
    -aggression
    -licking or rubbing site of pain
    -reduced interaction with environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How can you identify an animal?

A
  • photographs
    -ownership
    -markings/breed
    -microchip
    -injuries and markings from fights
    -collar and tag
    -tattoos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Animal characteristics that may help with identification?

A
  • bark
    -ears
    -muzzle size
    -size of the dog
    -coat
    -markings
    -colour
    -behaviour and temperament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When is ear tip removal used ?

A

To indicate the neutered status in stray cats and dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the Control of Dogs Order 1992

A
  • any dog in a public place must wear a collar with the name, address and postcode of the owner engraved on it or engraved onto a tag.
    A fine of up to £5000 for failing to comply.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is a microchip?

A

A transducer containing a unique number which is accessed by a handheld reader, placed subcutaneously (S/C).
It can migrate after placement.
It is a small size no larger than a grain of rice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What year did the law for microchipping change?

A

April 2016
Up to a £500 fine if the dog is not chipped.
Must be done by 8 weeks.
If they are too small an exemption certificate is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When did the law for microchipping cats change?

A

13th march 2023
All cats must be chipped by June 10th 2024
Must be done before the age of 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Advantages of microchipping

A
  • easy identification
  • definite
    -permanent
    -tamper proof
    -low cost
    -little pain
    -can be read from a distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Disadvantages of microchipping

A

-invasive
-invisible
-can move/migrate
-may require sedation
-occasional abscess formation
-detection requires a reader
-not all readers read all chips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Tattooing animals

A

Ink marking numbers/letters
Common positions - inside pinna or inside flank

Can be seen in imported animals, animals used for racing or laboratory animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Advantages of tattooing animals

A
  • clear
  • permanent
    -little specialist equipment needed
    -cheap
    -very difficult to tamper with or erase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Disadvantages of tattooing animals

A

-painful
-messy
-not visible from a distance
-liable to be irregular
-many difficult to read accurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Bands and rings - animal identification

A

-metal or plastic
-can be colour coded
-can have a number (eg racing pigeons, wild birds or valuable birds of prey)

The animal should be fully grown, the band needs checking that it is not too tight causing injury or swelling. Bands can also get caught leading to injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Animal identification- ear tags

A

A legal requirement for farm animals
Enables bio security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Animal identification - DNA

A

-DNA analysis can be used to identify individual animals
-expensive and rarely done for pets (dogs and cats)
-can be used to confirm parentage
-DNA analysis also used to determine sex of birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

EU travel - PETS

A

You can no longer use a pet passport issued in Great Britain (England, Wales and Scotland) for travel to an EU country or Northern Ireland.

You can still use a pet passport issued in an EU country or Northern Ireland

When travelling to an EU country or Northern Ireland your pet needs;
-a microchip
-a valid rabies vaccine
-an animal health certificate (unless you have a pet passport issued in an EU country or Northern Ireland)
-tapeworm treatment for dogs if you are travelling directly to Finland, Ireland, Northern Ireland, Norway or Malta

These requirements also apply to assistance dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Repeat travel to EU or Northern Ireland.

A

Your pet will need a new animal health certificate each time

Your pet will not need a repeat rabies vaccinations as long as they are up to date.

Dogs will need a tapeworm tablet if travelling directly to Finland, Ireland, Malta, Northern Ireland or Norway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Rabies vaccinations for travel

A

Rabies vaccine - dog cat or ferret. Must be at least 12 weeks old.

If you’re taking your pet to the EU or Northern Ireland you must wait 21 days after the primary vaccine before you travel.

Microchip be done before or at the same time as their rabies vaccination.

Vaccination must be inactivated or recombinant thats approved in the country of use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Tapeworm treatments and boosters

A

Tapeworm treatment must be given no less than 24 hrs and no more than 5 days before you arrive.
Treatment must be approved for use in the county it’s being given in
Contain praziquantel or an equivalent

Regular rabies booster vaccinations are required.

Both must be recorded on the animal health certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Travelling to a non EU country

A

Need an Export health certificate (EHC) and need to complete an export application form (EXA) if you’re in England, Scotland or Wales.

An EHC checks that your pet meets the requirements of the country you’re travelling too.
Must nominate an official vet who will be sent the EHC, they’ll check your pet has met the correct health and identification requirements before you travel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the requirements for entering the uk?

A

-a microchip

-rabies vaccination (after having a microchip)

-travellers from EU and listed 3rd countries need to wait 21 days after primary rabies vaccination before travelling.

-tapeworm tablet, no less than 24hrs and no more than 5 days.

-blood test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the youngest age a pet can come into the uk?

A

15 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Welfare of Animals (Transport) 2006

A

-applies to people who transport live vertebrate animals inc farm livestock.

3 things you must do when transporting animals:
-plan the journey and keep it as short as poss
-check the animals during the journey (food, water, rest)
-sufficient floor space and height

Who enforces welfare during transport ?
-APHA and the local council

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What documents must you have to transport animals in the UK by road?

A
  • a certificate off vehicle approval (for journeys over 8hrs)

-a certificate of competence or to complete training for livestock, equines and poultry.

-a journey log (imports, exports, transits of livestock and unregistered equines on journeys over 8hrs)

-an animal transport certificate (for all journeys not covered by a journey log)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are nutrients?

A

Nutrients are a metabolically useful component of food that helps to support life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the 6 essential nutrients ?

A

1.protein
2.fat
3.carbohydrate
4.minerals
5.water
6.vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the 3 energy producing nutrients ?

A

Fat, proteins, carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are nutrients used for?

A
  1. Structural component, growth, repair and reproduction
  2. Metabolism
  3. Transport
  4. Temperature regulation
  5. Energy supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is an essential nutrient ?

A

An absolute requirement.
Cannot be synthesised by the body and must be provided within the diet
If they are not present or levels are low the diet is inadequate
Each essential nutrient has a specific function within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the functions of water ?

A
  1. Electrolyte balance
  2. Temperature regulation
  3. Removal of waste
  4. Helps digestion of food
  5. Its a transport medium for nutrients
  6. Required for some chemical reactions in the body
  7. A major component of blood and lymph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the water maintenance requirement for a dog or cat?

A

50-60ml/kg/24hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the formula for fluid maintenance?

A

Min - 50 X BW = over a day
Over a day divided by 24 = hourly rate

Max - 60 X BW = over a day
Over a day divided by 24 = hourly rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Normal urinary loss ?

A

20ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Normal faecal loss?

A

10-20ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Insensible loss per day?

A

20ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the water requirement for rabbits and small mammals ?

A

75-100ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the water requirement for birds?

A

2ml/kg/hour

48ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the water requirement for reptiles?

A

10-30ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are macronutrients?

A

Nutrients we need in larger quantities
Provide us with energy
Measured in kilocalories (Kcal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are proteins?

A

Proteins are large complex molecules composed of long chains of amino acids bound together by peptide linkages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Amino acids joined together are called ?

A

Peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are 2 peptides called ?

A

Dipeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are 3 peptides called ?

A

Tripeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are more than 3 peptides called ?

A

Polypeptide

130
Q

How many amino acids are there ?

A

Most can be synthesised by the animals body.
Others need to be provided within the diet as the body cant synthesise them - known as essential amino acids.

131
Q

How many essential amino acids do dogs have?

A

10

132
Q

How many essential amino acids do cats have?

A

11

133
Q

Define complete proteins

A

Contain ample amounts of essential amino acids and are found in food such as meat/fish/eggs

134
Q

Define incomplete proteins

A

Do not provide all essential amino acids and are found in many foods including veg/grains/legumes

135
Q

What is biological value (BV) defined as?

A

The quality of protein

136
Q

What does the quality of protein depend on?

A
  • the amount and number of essential amino acids
    -how digestible the protein is
    -how palatable or acceptable is the protein to the animal
    -how easily can the body utilise the protein
137
Q

What are the functions of dietary protein ?

A

-tissue growth and repair

-manufacture of hormones and enzymes

-source of energy

-protection against infections

-transport of oxygen

-regulation of metabolism

-structural role in cell walls

-increased requirement: growth, lactation, pregnancy, tissue repair post-surgery etc.

138
Q

What happens if more protein is consumed than required?

A

Cannot be stored so the liver converts the amino part to urea and excretes it via the kidneys.
The acid part is converted to glycogen or fat and stored as adipose tissue

139
Q

Consequences of excessive dietary protein are?

A

Detrimental to health of older animals

May speed growth

May be a causal factor in the development of orthopaedic problems in young and large canine breeds

140
Q

Consequences of inadequate dietary protein are?

A

Poor growth

Weight loss

Dull coat

Muscle atrophy

Increased susceptibility to disease

Anaemia

Infertility

Oedema

Emaciation

141
Q

What is the most common form of dietary fat?

A

Triglycerides
Consist of 1 molecule of glycerol and 3 molecules of fatty acids

142
Q

What do fatty acids vary on?

A

Length
Presence and number of double bonds
Location of the first double bond

143
Q

What can fatty acids be?

A

Saturated - no double bonds in the hydrogen chain

Monosaturated - one double bond

Polyunsaturated- more than one double bond

They determine the physical and nutritional characteristics of the lipid

144
Q

What are the function of fats ?

A

-provision and storage of energy
-aids absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E and K)
-insulation
-metabolic and structural functions
-synthesis of hormones
-taste
-source of essential fatty acids (EFA’s - linoleic, linolenic, arachidonic)

145
Q

What is arachidonic acid?

A

An omega 6 found in animal fats, poultry skin and beef fat
(Obligate carnivores- cats must have this in their diet)

146
Q

What is linoleic acid?

A

An omega 6 sourced from vegetable oils

147
Q

What is linolenic acid ?

A

An omega 3 found in fish oil

Omega 3 EFA have anti-inflammatory actions.

148
Q

What is carbohydrates made up of?

A

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

149
Q

What is the primary function of carbohydrates ?

A

An energy source (3.5kcal/gram)
May also be converted to glycogen or fat and stored

150
Q

What are carbohydrates used for?

A

Synthesis of other essential body compounds such as RNA and DNA

Source of fibre

Source of energy

151
Q

Monosaccharides are made up of

A

Glucose , fructose (simple sugars)

Glucose is the primary form of carbohydrate for energy - circulates in the bloodstream.

152
Q

Disaccharides are made up of

A

Maltose, sucrose, lactose

Digestion of disaccharides is controlled by specific enzymes.

153
Q

Polysaccharides are made up of

A

Starch, glycogen and fibre (complex carbohydrates)

Found widely

154
Q

What are the functions of dietary fibre ?

A

-increases bulk and water in the intestinal content

-low energy content aids in the correction and prevention of obesity

-regulation of intestinal gut transit time and bowel movements

-maintenance of the structural integrity of the gut mucosa

-therapeutic uses in the treatment of fibre responsive diseases

-alteration of nutrient absorption and metabolism

-to help maintain the health of the colon

-Sources of soluble fibre can help regulate blood glucose - relevant in diabetic dogs

155
Q

What negative side effects can excessive dietary fibre cause?

A
  • flactulence and boroygmi
    -increased bowel movements
    -increased faecal outputs
    -constipation due to the bulking effects (especially if low water intake)
156
Q

What are vitamins?

A

Essential for good health but don’t provide energy

Split into 2 families - some are soluble in fat and some in water
If excess fat-soluble vitamins are consumed they can build up in the body and become toxic, water soluble vitamins are passed out in urine.

157
Q

What is the function of vitamin A?

A

Vision and skin

158
Q

What is the function of Vitamin D?

A

Calcium and phosphorus metabolism

159
Q

What is the function of Vitamin E?

A

Antioxidant

160
Q

What is the function of Vitamin K?

A

Blood clotting

161
Q

What are minerals ?

A

Naturally occurring inorganic elements in a food.
Often referred to as ash on pet food labels
More than 18 minerals are essential

162
Q

What are macro/major minerals?

A

Required in diet in larger amounts

-calcium and phosphorus
-sodium and potassium chloride
-magnesium

163
Q

What are micro/trace minerals ?

A

Required in much smaller amounts
(Iron, zinc, copper, maganese, iodine, selenium)

164
Q

What are electrolytes ?

A

Minerals in salt form found in the body tissues and fluids

165
Q

What is balanced nutrition important for?

A

-energy production
-temperature regulation
-structure (skeleton, muscles and organs)
-storage
-waterproofing
-insulation
-growth and repair
-reproduction
-anabolism
-catabolism

166
Q

How would you assess nutritional requirements ?

A

-assess current nutritional status
-clinical history
-physical examination
-BCS
-lab results
-species variation

167
Q

What factors may affect nutritional requirements ?

A

-metabolic rate
-feeding pattern
-altered diet according to condition, disease, injury
-altered digestion
-bodily function
-hospitalisation = change of exercise pattern and stress

168
Q

What conditions will affect the metabolic rate?

A

-thyroid
-diabetic
-post neuter

169
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

-chronic endocrine disorder
-results in an imbalance in metabolism of carbohydrate, fat and protein
-if an animal has diabetes there diet should be at the same time each day, be the same quantity, and contain uniform ingredients
-if there is other co-existing conditions they may take priority over managing diabetes
-cats can go into remission if well controlled

170
Q

What is the nutritional profile of a patient with diabetes

A

Dogs:
-low starch
-devoid of simple sugars
-high quality protein
-high level of soluble and insoluble fibre

Cats are not able to manage high carbohydrate diets as they don’t have amylase to break carbohydrate down.

171
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

-an over production of hormones by the thyroid gland located at the front of neck.
-causes a rapid heartbeat, sudden weight loss, tremor, difficulty sleeping and behavioural changes
-body is kept constantly at an unnaturally high level of energy which places an enormous strain on the other systems.

172
Q

Diet for a patient with hyperthyroidism

A

Hills y/d
-decreases thyroid hormone (T4) production in 3 weeks
-supports kidney, heart and urinary health
-visible improvement in skin and coat
-helps maintain lean muscle mass

S+OXSHEILD
-formulated to promote a urinary environment that reduces the risk of developing structure and calcium oxide crystals
-limited iodine
-controlled phosphorus and low sodium and enriched with omega-3 fatty acids
-omega-6 fatty acids to promote a healthy skin and coat
-high levels of L-carnitine to support healthy body condition
-must be fed this as a sole diet to work - no treats or hunting allowed

173
Q

Obesity

A

-in young there is an increase in fat cell numbers: hyperplasia, the animal will be predisposed to obesity

-in adults there is an increase in fat cell size: hypertrophy

-obese dogs live 2 years kess then idea weight dogs

174
Q

Orthopaedic disease

A

Nutrition is a key role in early life and a poor diet prior to growth plate closure especially in large and giant breeds may dispose to (canine hip displaysia, osteochondrosis)

Excess energy provision can cause rapid skeleton growth which can lead to orthopaedic disease via increased biomechanical stress
Excess dietary calcium disrupts the endochondral ossification. Calcium to phosphorus ration 1:2:1

Recommend
-appropriate diet for life stage
-puppy food for pregnant mum
-no calcium supplement for mum or pups

175
Q

Heart diseases

A

Taurine and L-carnitine are implicated with the development of cardiomyopathy in cats and dogs. Both are required to metabolise fatty acids.

Taurine deficiency-included dilated cardiomyopathy in both dogs and cats
L-cartilage is suspected to be indicative of cardiomyopathy in boxers

176
Q

Congestive heart failure

A

Dietary management:
-restricted sodium content
-antioxidants
-increased levels of taurine and L-carnitine
-omega 3 fatty acids
-high digestibility
-care with treats as often high in sodium

177
Q

Renal disease

A

-chronic renal failure (CRF)
-progressive disease
-common in senior cats
-damage is irreversible
-clinical signs : show when up to 75% of kidney function is lost
-loss of function is associated with the accumulation of toxic protein catabolites and the failure to excrete phosphorus

178
Q

Dietary management for renal disease

A

-restricted protein to reduce nitrogenous waste
-highly digestible and high biological value protein
-renal diets - specially formulated to prevent protein malnutrition
-restrict phosphorus (phosphorus binders)
-Control sodium and chloride
-potassium supplements
-enhanced B-complex vitamins
-omega 3 fatty acids
-palatabiltiy

179
Q

Hepatic disease

A

Liver functions may be affected
The liver can regenerate and nutritional support can support the liver to delay or prevent irreversible damage

Diet must have:
Moderate levels of high quality protein
High L-carnitine and L-arginine
Appropriate levels of zinc and low copper
Reduces liver workload and helps to regenerate
Moderate to high fat levels increase energy density and reduces protein catabolism
Added vitamins help avoid nutrient deficiencies commonly related to liver issues

Copper toxicity can occur in westies, terriers and Doberman. Results in copper accumulation in the liver
Feed a diet low in copper and high in zinc as zinc reduces intestinal uptake of copper

180
Q

What is pancreatitis ?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

181
Q

Pancreatic disease

A

May need nutritional intervention - feeding tube or parental nutrition
Low to medium fat diet
Obesity is a risk factor so once recovered a weight loss diet may be needed

182
Q

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

A

Unable to digest fats, carbohydrates and proteins
Lack of pancreatic enzymes, common in young animals 1-2 years old and GSD
Causes steatorrhea

183
Q

Dietary management of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

A

Low dietary fat
Easily digestible diet
Enhanced B complex vitamins
Supplement with pancreatic enzymes
Avoid high fibre

184
Q

What is vomiting ?

A

Forceful evacuation of stomach contents

185
Q

When a patient is vomiting what should you provide them?

A

-key nutrients = potassium, sodium and chloride
-IVFT fluids
-feed reduced fat food with highly digestible proteins
If chronic - find out the cause and treat appropriately

186
Q

If a patient has diarrhoea how should you treat them?

A

-bland diet, digestible and low fat
-never starve over 24hr
-rehydrate and correct electrolyte imbalance
-feed single/novel protein source to prevent acquired dietary allergies
-highly digestible protein and carbohydrate diet

If chronic:
-high quality protein
-low fat
-enhanced B-complex vitamins

187
Q

What is idiopathic colitis and how do you treat it?

A

It is a type of chronic diarrhoea
Symptoms = tenesmus and small volumes of mucous covered faeces

Treatment =
high digestible macro-nutrients to reduce digestive challenge
Low antigen content (reduces chance of immunological reaction)
Fibre responsive to slow the transit

188
Q

What is gastric dilation volvulus and the feeding management ?

A

Life threatening disorder often seen in deep chested dogs
Profession of bloat into a volvulus - gas filled stomach twists upon itself making the entrance and exit of the stomach blocked.
Requires urgent surgery

Feeding management:
-feed little and often
-do not feed just before or after exercise
-do not allow to drink big volumes of water
-use a highly digestible meat based diet to encourage gastric emptying and reduce stomach distension

189
Q

Dietary insensitivity

A

Clinically abnormal response to the ingestion of a particular food item.
A true food allergy or hypersensitivity is an immunological response caused by an antibody, immune complex or cell mediated response.

Food intolerance may result from an inability to properly digest the food (non-immune).
Adverse reactions manifest themselves as either skin or gastrointestinal disorders or both

Dietary management:
-novel single source protein source
-hydrolysed diet
-restricted carbohydrate
-highly digestible macro - nutrients

190
Q

What are the top dietary allergens in dogs?

A

Chicken, beef, wheat, eggs

191
Q

What are the top dietary allergens in cats?

A

Poultry, fish, beef, lamb,dairy

192
Q

What is idiopathic cystitis and how is it treated ?

A

Cystitis of an unknown origin
Can present as a ‘blocked cat’ - emergency
Stress link which needs to be managed urgently
More common in males

Clinical signs may resolve in 5-7 days but may recur
Not bacterial in origin so no antibiotics required
Need to increase water intake - feed wet diet
Encourage weight loss and increase activity
Analgesia

193
Q

What is crystalluria and how is it treated ?

A

-presence of significant amounts of crystals within the urine
-a few crystals can be normal or an artefact from storage
-can cause blocked cat
-causes = cystitis, haematuria and pain

Diet management will depend on which crystals are present
Increased water intake and wet diet

194
Q

Struvite and calcium oxide

A

More common in cats but can occur in dogs
Diets acidify urine which helps to dissolve crystals/stones
Diluting urine decreases the urinary concentration of struvite and calcium oxalate crystals
Greater urinary volumes helps to flush the bladder out
Diets contain higher sodium to encourage urination but can’t be fed to young/growing/pregant animals or those with CRF or heart disease
Diets are low in magnesium

195
Q

Urate and cystine

A

Mainly affects dogs
Needs to be surgically removed if large
Diet alkalises the urine helping the stones to dissolve
Moderate quantity of high quality proteins combined with restricted sodium reduces the development of cystine stones
Low in purine proteins when combined with production of alkaline urine reduces the risk of urate stone formation

196
Q

What are purine proteins

A

Eggs
Wheat Flour

197
Q

Define simple starvation

A

Absence of nutrition in healthy animals - causing it to utilise glycogen stores to meet energy requirements

198
Q

Define stress starvation

A

Metabolic response to trauma, inflammation or disease.
Leads to catabolism of lean muscle mass and preservation of fat stores
Especially pronounced in cats
Sorting a suitable feeding regime asap is vital to recovery and prevention of complications

199
Q

Indication for nutritional support

A

Recent weight loss greater than 10% body weight
Anorexic for longer than 3 days
Severe underlying disease
Large protein losses
Muscle wasting, poor coat, poor wound healing
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hepatic lipidosis in cats
Body condition below ideal (3)

200
Q

How can you support an animal nutritionally ?

A

Medication/ pain relief
Warm food
Clean away discharges - may encourage them to eat as feeling clean
Dampen mucous membranes
Force feeding (syringe)
Feeding tubes (enteral feeding)

Dietary requirements:
-high fat
-increased protein quality and quantity
-enhanced vitamins and minerals
-high digestibility and proteins

201
Q

What is genetics ?

A

Science of inheritance

202
Q

What are genes?

A

The basic unit of inheritance
Information that determines characteristics are located and carried within genes

203
Q

What are chromosomes ?

A

Thread like structures
Found in the nucleus
Made up of protein and DNA

204
Q

What is the structure of of genes

A

In long chains known as chromosomes

205
Q

How many chromosomes does a dog have?

A

78 chromosomes
36 pairs

206
Q

How many chromosomes does a cat have?

A

38 chromosomes
19 pairs

207
Q

2 chromosomes are sex chromosomes known as X and Y what are the rest called?

A

Autosomes

208
Q

Chromosomes

A

Made up of protein and DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) which consists of 2 parallel unbranched strands twisting around each other in a double helix

Strands are formed by 4 amino acids:
Adenine - thymine
Guanine - cytosine
Known as base pairs

209
Q

Define diploid

A

Cells with the full number of chromosomes

210
Q

Define haploid

A

Contain only one copy of each chromosome

211
Q

What is a chromatid

A

A newly copied chromosome that is still joined to the original chromosome

212
Q

Homologous pairs

A

Homologous chromosomes are made up of chromosome pairs of approximately the same length, centromere position, and staining pattern, for genes with the same corresponding loci.

213
Q

Who is responsible for determining the sex of offspring

A

The male , they are heterogametic
(XY chromosomes)

214
Q

What chromosomes does the female carry?

A

XX
They are homogametic

215
Q

Define gene locus

A

Instructions for certain characteristics or traits are found at the same location on both chromosomes

216
Q

What are sex-linked genes?

A

Genes located on the sex chromosome

217
Q

What is a recessive gene ?

A

Alleles that are only expressed if there are 2 copies of it in a cell
Represented with a lowercase letter

218
Q

What is a dominant gene ?

A

Genes that are expressed when only one copy is present and suppresses the other allele
Represented using an uppercase letter

219
Q

What is co-dominant

A

If both alleles are expressed

220
Q

Define homozygous

A

If an animal has two identical alleles of a specific gene
Eg - AA or aa

221
Q

Define heterozygous

A

If the two alleles of that gene differ from one another
Eg - Aa

222
Q

Define genotype

A

Genetic makeup of an individual -this can only be accurately appreciated by examination of the DNA

223
Q

Define phenotype

A

-external appearance of an animal
-this is influenced not only by genes but also by the environmental factors such as diet, disease and exercise
Phenotype = genotype + environment

224
Q

What are lethal genes?

A

Incompatible with life, if an animal expresses a lethal gene it will die from the effects sooner or later.
Usually recessive genes so the affected individual must be homozygous

225
Q

Define classic lethal

A

Affected individuals die in the uterus or shortly after birth

226
Q

Define delayed lethal

A

Affected individuals will die from a progressive condition later in life

227
Q

Define semi-lethal

A

These produce mild abnormalities that may not necessarily kill the animal

228
Q

Mutations

A

Random chance mutation = genetic change
Chemical change or damage = radiation
These changes pass onto the next generation
If the mutation is harmful and kills the individual the gene will die out and not be passed on
May produce an advantage and that would be passed onto the next generation though reproduction

229
Q

Mitosis

A

Cell division in which each dividing cell produces identical daughter cells, both contain the same amount of genetic material as the parent cell.
Contains the diploid number of chromosomes
Somatic cell: any cell except those involved in reproduction

230
Q

Meiosis

A

Cell division resulting in 4 daughter cells
Each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell
Each cell has the haploid number of chromosomes

231
Q

Mendels 1st law of inheritance

A

Each person has 2 genes that determine every characteristic.
Mother has 2 genes for eye colour and father has 2 genes for eye colour
But you only get 1 from each
The law of segregation says that the one you get from each parent is random

232
Q

Mendels 2nd law of inheritance
Independent assortment

A

The law of independent assortment
Refers to the fact that any plant or animal contains many kinds of genes
1 gene determines flower colour, 1 gene determines stem length and 1 determines the shape of the pod
Mendel discovered that the way alleles from different genes separate and then recombine is unconnected to other genes.
That is reliant on a plant containing genes for colour (RR) and for the shape of pod (TT) then Mendels 2nd law says that 2 genes will segregate independently

233
Q

Mendels 3rd law
Law of dominance

A

Some alleles of the same gene are dominant and others recessive.
An organism only needs 1 copy of the dominant allele to display the effect of that allele.

234
Q

Who is Mendel ?

A

19th century Austrian monk who studied variation in plants

235
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located ?

A

Lays ventral to the hypothalamus in the forebrain
‘Master gland’

236
Q

What does the pituitary gland produce ?

A

Hormones
Anterior / posterior (bi-lobed)

237
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

Produced by the anterior pituitary

Targets the leydig cells in males and stimulates the release of testosterone

In females it targets the ovaries causing ovulation and development of the corpus luteum.

238
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

Produced by the anterior pituitary

Targets the Sertoli cells in males causing spermatogenesis

In females it targets the ovaries, stimulating growth of the follicles which contain the ova

239
Q

Prolactin

A

Produced by the anterior pituitary

Targets the mammary glands to stimulate development during pregnancy and milk let down during parturition

240
Q

Oxytocin

A

Produced by the posterior pituitary

Targets the uterus during parturition causing contraction of the smooth muscle.
It also acts on the muscles lining the mammary glands, resulting in milk let down.

241
Q

What is the oestrus cycle and what does it involve ?

A
  • rhythmic cycle of events with only a limited time of sexual receptivity
    -also known as ‘oestrus’

Involves:
-timing
-female behavioural changes
-reproductive tract must be ready and primed at the correct time

242
Q

What are the 3 different times of oestrus cycle ?

A

Mono-oestrus
Polyoestrous
Seasonally polyoestrus

243
Q

Define mono-oestrus

A

One oestrus cycle per breeding cycle

244
Q

Define polyoestrus

A

Multiple oestrus cycles throughout the year

245
Q

Define seasonally polyoestrus

A

Multiple oestrus cycles during a particular time of year

246
Q

What are the stages of oestrus

A
  1. Pro-oestrus
  2. Oestrus
  3. Metoestrus
    4.anoestrus
  • each cycle lasts a typical number of days in particular species
247
Q

Oestrus cycle of the bitch

A

-puberty starts at 6-23 months
-most bitches have had their first oestrus by 12-14 months of age
-have 1-2 cycles a year
-each cycle ends with a spontaneous ovulation
-the oestrus cycle is non seasonal
-intervals vary from 5-13 months (average is 7 months)
-polytocous (produces multiple offspring in each litter)

248
Q

Pro-oestrus in bitches

A

Length = 7-10 days

Signs:
-vulval swelling
-pheromone release
-increase in the thickness of the vaginal epithelium
-serosanguinous (bloody) vulval discharge
-more frequent urination with excitable/flirty behaviour

Hormones:
-increasing plasma concentrations of oestrogen
-increasing oestrogen levels have negative feedback on FSH and LH release from anterior pituitary

249
Q

Oestrus in the bitch

A

Length = 7-10 days

Signs:
-stand to be mated
-deviation of tail and presenting vulva to male
-vulva remains enlarged
-pale straw-coloured discharge

Hormones:
-surge in FSH and LH triggers ovulation
-each egg ovulates from a follicle, leaving a corpus luteum which produces progesterone.

250
Q

Metoestrous (dioestrus) in bitches

A

Length = 2-3 months

Signs:
-vaginal discharge gradually dries up
-swollen vulva shrinks
-bitches behaviour returns to normal

Hormones:
-corpus luteum continues to produce progesterone
-towards the end of metoestrus:
-Prolactin released from pituitary gland - whether the bitch is pregnant or not and is the reason why false pregnancy is common in the bitch.

251
Q

Anoestrus in the bitch

A

Length = 5 months

Signs:
-period of quiescence
-in non-pregnant bitches progesterone declines gradually and transition to anoestrus is smooth
-no or very low hormonal activity
-towards the end of this period some of the ovarian follicles begin to develop and secrete oestrogen and the cycle begins again

This is the best time to neuter

252
Q

Oestrous cycle of the queen

A

First cycle is between 6-9 months on average (can come into season as early as 4 months)
Photoperiod dependant - long day breeders
Seasonally poly-oestrous (multiple oestrus cycles between Feb and Sept)
No hormone activity during the winter
Induced ovulators: induced by coitus

253
Q

Pro-oestrus in queen

A

Length = 2-3 days

Signs:
Follicular development (release of FSH and LH)
Causes production of oestrogen
Thickening of vaginal epithelium
Attraction of the male - although at this stage the queen will not accept mating

254
Q

Oestrus in the queen

A

Length = 2-10 days

Signs:
Increasing concentrations of oestrogen
Vocalisation - loud persistent yowling
Rubbing against objects
Threading hind feet
Lateral deviation of tail
Lordosis of spine
Ovulation induced by mating

255
Q

Interoestus in the queen

A

Length = 3-14 days

Signs:
If queen is not mated or when mating does not result in ovulation:
Signs of oestrous subside
Queen becomes non receptive
After this time (3-14 days) the queen returns to pro-oestrus

256
Q

Anoestrus in the queen

A

Autumn and winter
No ovarian activity

257
Q

Pregnancy in the queen

A

Ovulation only occurs when the queen is mated
Corpus luteum releases progesterone
Progesterone maintains pregnancy
Sterile mating - cat ovulates. Corpus luteum produces progesterone causing pseudopregnancy

258
Q

How do we know if animals are pregnant ?

A

Clinical signs

Abdominal palpitation
3-4 weeks = small swelling
6-7 weeks = individual parts of foetuses
Hormonal levels - relaxin levels are diagnostic of pregnancy

Ultrasound:
Commonly used
Pregnancy diagnosis from day 16 after ovulation
Optimum time is 28 days post mating
Fetal heart beats can be seen
Numbers can be seen but can be inaccurate- don’t tell owners

Radiography:
After day 45 when mineralisation of fetal skeleton is detected
Unlikely damage to fetus but care with GA or sedation
Numbers can be given when counting skulls

259
Q

What is pseudopregancy ?

A

Phantom pregnancy

Common in the bitch

Clinical signs:
Weight gain
Nesting behaviour
Abdominal enlargement
Mammary enlargement and lactation
Exercise intolerant
Adoption of imaginary puppies such as toys/slippers
Anorexia
Temperment change = grumpy
Overprotective behaviors

Treatment = waiting it out, remove all nests/toys/slippers and hormonal treatment

260
Q

Pseudopregnancy in the queen

A

Rare in the cat
1-2 months after oestrous
Corpus luteum will produce progesterone as it would in pregnancy
Can occur as a result of stimulation of vagina (collection of a vaginal spear) or perineum (self -induced) or spontaneously
About 36-40 days after progesterone concentrations decline and the queen returns to cyclical activity
There are rarely any clinical signs

261
Q

Misalliance

A

Bitch:
Alizin - injectable solution used twice 24 hours apart to induce resorption/abortion
Oestrogen compounds (oestrodiol benzoate) within 4 days of mating (brings on oestrus)

Queen:
Administer progestogens if the queen is still in oestrus
Alternatively use aglepristone if she has ovulated
Often queens are neutered

262
Q

When should mating occur between dogs?

A

Usually at the end of the 2nd week of the oestrus cycle when the red discharge has almost stopped

263
Q

Why is it normal for the female to be taken to the male for mating (dogs)?

A

For the male to feel more comfortable/confident

264
Q

What are the clinical signs that a bitch is ready to mate?

A
  • standing oestrus, noted as the first day bitch will accept mating

-vulval softening

265
Q

What hormones indicate that the bitch is ready to mate?

A

-LH
-progesterone

Not oestrogen as the plateau is not predictive of the timing of ovulation

266
Q

Anoestrus cytology

A

Only a few cells thick
Cells are small and spherical
‘Parabasal cells’
Small number of neutrophils

267
Q

Proestrus cytology

A

Epithelial lining may be up to 6 cells thick
Cells are slightly larger than the parabasal cells
‘Small intermediate cells’
Also see neutrophils, parabasal cells and erythrocytes

268
Q

Oestrus cytology

A

Epithelial layers increase to 12 layers thick
Surface cells are now larger
‘Large intermediate cells’
Some are keratinised
Some are anucleated
Erythrocytes will be present in larger numbers but no WBC seen

269
Q

Metoestrus cytology

A

Epithelial tissue sloughed
Cell numbers reduce
Only small intermediate cells present
Vacuoles have a ‘fomay’ appearance: AKA foam cells
Very few erythrocytes
Larger numbers of neutrophils

270
Q

Normal mating behaviour of the dog

A

-playful behaviour when first introduced
-bitch will settle with her tail deviated to one side to allow mating

  1. Mounting - dog may ejaculate a small amount of clear fluid either before or whilst trying to gain intermission (first fraction is to clear the urethra)
    2.thrusting and intermission
    3.erection - swelling of the bulb
    4.ejaculation - release of 2nd fraction which is sperm rich fluid
    5.dog turns 180° and dismounts whilst his penis remains inside the bitch (stand tail to tail) known as the ‘tie’ and is associated with the release of the 3rd fraction to flush sperm forwards through cervix to uterus
    6.Break tie and dismount once the swelling of the bulbous gland subsides the tie will be broken.
271
Q

Problems with the bitch when mating

A

-attempt to mate too early in oestrus
-inexperienced bitches may panic during intermission
-rigid hymen (may be broken with a gloved finger)
-swelling of the vaginal mucosa which prevents intromission

-endocrinological (delayed purity, silent oestrus, failure to ovulate)

-ovarian (cysts, tumors)

-uterine (cystic endometrial hyperplasia , can progress into a pyometra)

272
Q

Problems with the dog when mating

A

Inexperienced
Phimosis
Absense of libido
Back or hind limb problems

-endocrinological (pituitary gland, small testes)

-testicular (cryptorchid, monorchid, orchits, tumors)

-accessory glands (prostate cysts, prostatis, tumours)

-penile (phimosis, lymphoid hyperplasia)

273
Q

Normal mating in the cat

A

-queen should be taken to the stud
-male will spray living area, queen moves in next door so they can get to know each other
-once in together he will grab hold of her by the scruff with his teeth and mount her
-pelvic thrusting, followed by penetration and ejaculation
-queen will scream as he is withdrawing - aka the ‘coital yell’ (tomcats penis is covered in barbs)
-she will the try to free herself and attack him
-they then lay down, groom/clean themselves
-after calming down mating is then repeated for the next 24hrs

274
Q

What is AI?

A

Artificial insemination
A method of introducing semen, previously collected from a male and depositing it into a females vagina or uterus.

275
Q

What are the 3 different ways in which semen can be preserved prior to insemination?

A

Fresh
Chilled
Frozen

276
Q

What are the 3 fractions of male ejaculate

A

1st - clear fluid
2nd - sperm rich
3rd - clear fluid

Only 2nd is used in AI

277
Q

Puberty ages

A

Bitch = 7-12 months

Dog = 6-12 months

Queen = 6-9 months (may start at 4 months)

Tomcat = 8-12 months (could be 5 months)

278
Q

Gestation periods

A

Bitch = 9 weeks/63 days
Queen = 9 weeks/63 days
Rabbit = 29-35 days (average 31 days)

279
Q

Medically controlling the reproductive cycle in the bitch

A

-ovariohysterectomy
-medical inhibition of oestrus cycle
-induction of oestrus

280
Q

Medically controlling the reproductive cycle in the queen

A

-ovariohysterectomy
-medical inhibition of oestrus cycle
-induction of oestrus

281
Q

Rabbits sexual maturity

A

Female (does) at 4-5 months
Males (bucks) at 5-8 months

Females are ‘seasonally polyoestrus’
Females are induced ovulators
-phantom pregnancy - 42 days post ovulation

282
Q

Guinea pig , reproductive

A

Sexual maturity = between 1.5 and 3 months of age
Oestrus cycle interval 15-17 days (duration 6-11 hours)
Pregnancy 59-72 days, 63 on average
Spontaneous ovulation
Piglets are precocial
Sow should have her first litter before 8 months of age to prevent fusion of the pubic symphysis

283
Q

Foetal development steps

A
  1. Ovary releases an ovum
  2. Sperm travels to the ovum which is in the fallopian tube
  3. The ovum is fertilised and divides into 2 cells - this takes 96 hrs
  4. 20 hrs later it divides into 4 cells
  5. 144 hrs later it divides into 8 cells
  6. 192 hrs later it divides into a call of cells called the morula
  7. This is a total of 8-9 days by then the morula has moved towards the uterus
284
Q

What layers does the morula formation break into?

A

Ectoderm - forms the skin and nervous system
Mesoderm - forms several organs and the musculoskeletal system
Endoderm - will form the lining of the GI tract and other visceral organs

285
Q

Zonary placenta

A

-surrounding band
-provides nourishment
-burrows into endometrium and receives blood from the uterine artery
-marginal haematoma = haemorrhage into uterine endothelium during implantation
-this haematoma breaks down during parturition
-green discharge in bitch
-brown discharge in queen

286
Q

Feeding a pregnant bitch

A
  • a good quality, well balanced commercial diet is recommended
  • by the 5th week, feeding amounts should increase
  • by the late stages of pregnancy, food intake will increase by 20-25%
  • meals should be split into smaller portions
  • fat and protein should be increased; an activity or puppy diet would be suitable
    -supplements should be avoided; unless advised by a VS
287
Q

What is the calculation for RER?

A

(BW X 30) +70

288
Q

Energy requirements for pregnancy and lactation (bitch)

A

Pregnancy = first 2/3 = 1.8 X RER
Pregnancy = last 1/3 = 3.0 X RER
Lactation = (1.9 X RER) + 25% per pups

289
Q

Worming and vaccination bitch when mating

A

Worming = advise to worm before mating and again after parturition. Varies on medication so speak to VS

Vaccination = before mating to ensure adequate levels for antibodies are transferred to foetuses during pregnancy and lactation

290
Q

Feeding a pregnant queen

A

A good quality commercial diet
Food intake to be gradually increased from 3rd week of pregnancy
Protein to be increased in later stages
Supplementation isn’t required
By late stages of pregnancy food intake should increase by 50%

291
Q

RER requirements for a pregnant queen

A

Early = 1.6 X RER
At parturition = 2.0 X RER
Lactation = 2.0-6.0 X RER

292
Q

Exercise for pregnant queen

A

Extra stimulation may be needed however, queens usually provide themselves with sufficient exercise

293
Q

Worming and vaccination of queen during mating

A

Worming = before and during pregnancy

Vaccination = before mating, allows antibodies to be passed onto offspring

294
Q

Hormonal controls

A

Prolactin = stimulates formation of milk from mammary glands

Oestrogen = prepares and contributes to the growth and development of mammary tissue and prepares the uterus for parturition

Oxytocin = initiates strong contractions and causes milk to be released from mammary glands when neonates suckle

Relaxin = placenta produced hormone which causes cervix to relax

295
Q

How to aid an owner with preparing a bitch for partition

A

Accommodation:
-prefer to give birth at night
-1 week before due move her to whelping area, allows her to adjust to new smells and routine.
-cardboard box/pre-made whelping box

Early signs of parturition:
-restless
-burrowing in bedding and nesting
-drop in rectal temp from 39 to 37
-refuse to eat
-panting
-o notices external contractions
-greenish/blackish discharge present - time must be noted; 1st pups should arrive within 2 hrs of this

Do’s and Dont’s
-give privacy
-don’t get too involved unless needed
-keep a note of key signs and times
-if concerned call a vet
-keep calm, carry out regular checks from a distance

296
Q

Recognising dystocia

A

Struggling to give birth
-if a bitch is over 70 days and a queen over 65 days with no signs of parturition
-dam unsettled, forceful but infrequent straining
-straining starts and stops without young born
-black or green discharge but no signs of parturition
-ineffectual straining for an hour
-several born but a gap of more than 2 hrs with more expected

297
Q

Caesarean section

A

Provide adequate oxygen
Prevent hypotension
Reduce doses of anaesthetic drugs
Clip before induction - no premed

Risks:
Uterine rupture and haemorrhage
Wound infection and breakdown
Dam does not accept litter
Anaesthetic risk to dam and pups

298
Q

Post-partum

A

-offer normal food across 5-6 meals
-remain on 5-6 meals for the first few weeks
-first 2 weeks dam will spend time with her litter
-once weaning takes place dam can have longer periods away
-at weaning reduce dams food
-monitor pups for suckling

299
Q

Define neonate

A

Period from birth through to 3 weeks of age or when a puppy or kitten is walking and capable of spontaneous urination and defecation

300
Q

Neonatal kittens and puppies

A

-unable to stand at birth but can crawl
-stand from 10 days
-walk at 3 weeks
-born with eyes closed,usually open around 10-14 days
-cornea appears cloudy until 4 weeks
-kittens can be born with strabismus (can persist until around 8 weeks of age )
-dam simulates perineal region for the first 2-3 weeks to allow defecation and urination

301
Q

When animals are born

A

-establish airway
- cut umbilicus
- keep warm until active
-encourage feeding and feed colostrum asap

302
Q

Fading puppy/kitten syndrome

A

Die when under 1-2 weeks of age
Multifactoral causes

303
Q

Septicaemia

A

-Colostrum (provides passive immunity) only absorbed via the gut in the first 48hrs
-high mortality

304
Q

Viral infection in neonates

A

Not common if dam vaccinated
-canine herpes virus
-FIV/FELV
-feline coronavirus
-feline panleukopenia virus

305
Q

Congenital abnormalities in neonates

A

Cleft palate
Hernia
Hydrocephalus

306
Q

Weaning puppies/kittens

A

From >2.5 weeks
Complete >5 weeks
Monitor for continued weight gain
Slowly introduce food (some mix with water to make a paste to start of with)

307
Q

Rabbits and hand rearing

A

-altricial (not developed)
-minimal disturbance - only for food and cleaning
-Kits suckle for 3-5 mins at the time and only 1-2 times in 24hrs
-dependant on does milk for 3weeks
-start solids between 2-3 weeks old
-weigh at 2-3 weeks old
-weaning at 6 weeks old
-kits need > Vit D and calcium vs adults

Hand rearing:
-death from enterotoxaemia is common
-transfaunation of gut flora from healthy parasite free adult
-use kitten milk replacers or 1-part full fat cows milk: 3parts condensed milk
-offer adult/weaning formulated dry foods from 2 weeks and attempt weaning from 3 weeks

308
Q

Guinea pigs neonates

A

Precocial young
Eat some solids within 24hrs
If hand rearing = 1 part condensed milk : 2 parts cooled boiled water

309
Q

Foetus development stages

A
  1. Ovary releases an ovum
  2. Sperm travels to the ovum which is in the fallopian tube
  3. The ovum is fertilised and divides into 2 cells - this takes 96 hours
  4. 20 hours later it divides into 4 cells
    5.144 hours later it divides into 8 cells
  5. 192 hours later it divides into a call of cells called the morula
  6. This is a total of 8-9 days by then the morula has moved towards the uterus
310
Q

Define ectoderm

A

Outer layer
Will form the skin and nervous system

311
Q

Define mesoderm

A

Middle layer
Will form several organs and the musculoskeletal system

312
Q

Define endoderm

A

Inner layer
Will form the lining of the GI tract and other visceral organs

313
Q

Zonary placenta

A

-surrounding band
-provides nourishment
-burrows into endometrium and receives blood from the uterine artery
-marginal haematoma = haemorrhage into uterine endothelium during implantation
-this haematoma breaks down during parturition
(Green discharge in the bitch)
(Brown discharge in the queen)

314
Q

What does prolactin do

A

Stimulates formation of milk from the mammary glands

315
Q

What does oestrogen do

A

Prepares and contributes to the growth and development of mammary tissue and prepares the uterus for parturition

316
Q

What does oxytocin do

A

Initiates strong contractions and causes milk to be released from mammary glands when neonates suckle

317
Q

What does relaxin do

A

Placenta produced hormone which causes cervix to relax

318
Q

Parturition
Stage 1

A

Variable in duration
Often depends on the experience of the bitch
On average lasts 1-2hrs

319
Q

Parturition
Stage 2

A

Cervix dilates
Contractions are more obvious
Noticeable straining
Time onset between straining and first foetus = 10-30mins
Uterine contractions increase in intensity
Onset abdominal contractions and propulsion of first foetus to be pushed through cervix into vagina
Puppy will appear, usually still surrounded by a thin but though membrane (amnion)
Sac is broken by dam as she licks pup to stimulate respiration - may need help in some cases

320
Q

Parturition
Stage 3

A

Foetal membranes and placenta pass
Bitch may eat placenta
Dark green discharge may be seen following parturition
May happen for up to a week - considered normal

321
Q

Parturition
Stage 4 (puerperium)

A

Reproductive tract returns to its normal state
Bitch should be checked to ensure she’s recovered
Offer her a small amount of food and water
Take her to the toilet
Clean whelping area
Interference should be minimal
Weigh puppies and check for abnormalities

CCOAS - VN (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions