Vocabulary

Question 1

What is the primary function of a Control Account in project management? One
A) It is the account used to store the project’s funds and financial resources.
B) It is an account that records all the changes and updates made to the project scope.
C) It is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.
D) It is an account used to track and control communication throughout the project.

Answer 1

C) It is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

Question 2

Which of the following best describes the technique of Rolling Wave Planning in project management? One
A) A planning technique where every detail of the project is planned before the project begins.
B) A planning technique that involves improvising as the project progresses without any predefined structure.
C) An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.
D) A planning technique that relies solely on historical data to plan the entire project.

Answer 2

C) An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.

Question 3

Which tool is primarily used to establish connections between product requirements and the deliverables that fulfill them, ensuring that all requirements are accounted for throughout the project? One
A) Requirements Traceability Matrix
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Risk Register
D) Project Charter

Answer 3

A) Requirements Traceability Matrix

Question 4

What is the purpose of the WBS Dictionary in project management? One
A) It outlines the project’s communication plan and stakeholder engagement strategies.
B) It provides detailed information about deliverables, activities, and scheduling for each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
C) It serves as a glossary, defining key terms and acronyms used throughout the project.
D) It documents the project’s risk management plan, including potential risks and mitigation strategies.

Answer 4

B) It provides detailed information about deliverables, activities, and scheduling for each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

Question 5

Who is described as an individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio? One
A) Project Manager
B) Team Member
C) Stakeholder
D) Sponsor

Answer 5

C) Stakeholder

Question 6

What is the purpose of a project charter in project management? One
A) To create a detailed plan of all project tasks and activities
B) To formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
C) To list all the stakeholders involved in a project
D) To outline the project’s budget and financial resources

Answer 6

B) To formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Question 7

A RACI Chart is a type of Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) that uses the statuses Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. True or False? One
A) True
B) False

Answer 7

True

Question 8

Select all statements that accurately describe the Focus Groups technique in the context of gathering information and expectations for a proposed product, service, or result. All
A) Focus Groups involve discussions with prequalified stakeholders to understand their expectations.
B) Focus Groups are an elicitation technique that brings together subject matter experts.
C) Focus Groups are used to gain insights into attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.
D) All of the above

Answer 8

D) All of the above

Question 9

What is the term for a set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives? One
A) Steering Committee
B) Project Team
C) Stakeholders
D) Project Sponsor

Answer 9

B) Project Team

Question 10

The Resource Management Plan is a project document that exclusively focuses on identifying project risks and outlining strategies to mitigate them. True or False? One
A) True
B) False

Answer 10

B) False

Question 11

Select all statements that correctly describe Ground Rules as defined in a team charter. All
A) Ground rules provide a detailed project schedule and budget
B) Ground rules set clear expectations regarding the code of conduct for team members
C) Ground rules outline the specific technical processes to be used in the project.
D) Ground rules help in establishing a common understanding of acceptable behavior within the team.

Predictive or agile?

Answer 11

B) Ground rules set clear expectations regarding the code of conduct for team members
D) Ground rules help in establishing a common understanding of acceptable behavior within the team.

PREDICTIVE!

Question 12

Questionnaires and Surveys are utilized in a written format to rapidly collect information from a large number of respondents. True or False? One
A) True
B) False

Answer 12

A) True

Question 13

Which of the following best describes the term “Consensus” in the context of decision-making? One
A) A decision made by the project manager without input from the team members.
B) A decision made by the majority of the team, regardless of the opinions of the minority.
C) A collaborative process to reach a decision that everyone can support.
D) A decision made by a single authoritative figure in the organization.

Answer 13

C) A collaborative process to reach a decision that everyone can support.

Question 14

Select all statements that accurately describe Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs). All
A) EEFs are conditions completely under the control of the project team
B) EEFs can be internal or external conditions that influence the project.
C) EEFs only impact the project at the organizational level.
D) EEFs can constrain or direct the project at multiple levels, including portfolio, program, or project level.

Answer 14

B) EEFs can be internal or external conditions that influence the project.
D) EEFs can constrain or direct the project at multiple levels, including portfolio, program, or project level.

Question 15

Which of the following tools is utilized to compare the current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders in a project? One
A) RACI Matrix
B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
C) Stakeholder Register
D) Power/Interest Grid

Answer 15

B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

Question 16

The Scope Management Plan is a component of a project or program management plan that outlines how the project scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated. True or False? One
A) True
B) False

Answer 16

A) True

Question 17

Select all statements that accurately describe Project Scope. All
A) Project Scope refers exclusively to the financial budget of the project.
B) Project Scope includes the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specific features and functions.
C) Project Scope may encompass the product scope.
D) Project Scope is solely determined by the project’s stakeholders without input from the project team.

Answer 17

B) Project Scope includes the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specific features and functions.
C) Project Scope may encompass the product scope.

Question 18

Which technique is employed to acquire an understanding of a specific job role, task, or function, with the aim of identifying project requirements through direct study and analysis? One
A) Surveys
B) Focus Groups
C) Observations
D) Document Analysis

Answer 18

C) Observations

Question 19

Benchmarking involves comparing actual and planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate improvement ideas, and establish a performance measurement basis. One
A) True
B) False

Answer 19

A) True

Question 20

Which of the following documents provides a detailed description of the project scope, including the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints associated with the project?
A) Project Charter
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Project Management Plan
D) Project Scope Statement

Answer 20

D) Project Scope Statement

Question 21

Which of the following are considered Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)? All
A) Knowledge bases specific to the performing organization
B) Policies and procedures used by the performing organization
C) Plans and processes implemented by the performing organization
D) All of the above

Answer 21

D) All of the above

Question 22

Select all statements that accurately describe the technique of Document Analysis in the context of gathering project requirements. All
A) Document Analysis involves creating new documentation to gather project requirements.
B) Document Analysis is a technique used to understand project requirements from existing documentation.
C) Document Analysis is only applicable in the initial stages of a project.
D) Document Analysis can provide insights into current processes and expectations.

Answer 22

B) Document Analysis is a technique used to understand project requirements from existing documentation.
D) Document Analysis can provide insights into current processes and expectations.

Question 23

What term best describes the component of a project or program management plan that outlines the procedures for how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project lifecycle? One
A) Project Scope Statement
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Change Management Plan
D) Requirements Management Plan

Answer 23

D) Requirements Management Plan

Question 24

What best describes a Planning Package in the context of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? One
A) It is the highest level of the WBS hierarchy, containing the total scope of the project.
B) It is a WBS component that includes detailed schedule activities and specific work packages.
C) It is the WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.
D) It is a document that outlines the entire planning process of the project.

Answer 24

C) It is the WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.

Question 25

Select all statements that correctly describe Project Requirements. All A) Project Requirements are solely focused on the financial aspects of a project. B) Project Requirements include milestone dates that the project needs to meet C) Project Requirements are the actions, processes, or other conditions the project needs to meet D) Project Requirements are informal suggestions that do not need to be strictly adhered to.

Answer 25

B) Project Requirements include milestone dates that the project needs to meet C) Project Requirements are the actions, processes, or other conditions the project needs to meet

Question 26

Which of the following documents or tools can be described as a list of individuals or organizations who are actively involved in the project, whose interests may be negatively or positively affected by the performance or completion of the project, and whose needs or expectations need to be considered? One A) Work Breakdown Structure B) Stakeholder Register C) Gantt Chart D) Risk Register

Answer 26

B) Stakeholder Register

Question 27

Which project management tool provides a hierarchical decomposition of the total project work, helping to achieve project objectives and create the necessary deliverables? One A) Gantt Chart B) Risk Register C) Project Schedule D) Work Breakdown Structure

Answer 27

D) Work Breakdown Structure

Question 28

Which of the following best describes the process of obtaining early feedback on project requirements by providing a preliminary working model of the expected product? One A) Prototyping B) Risk Analysis C) Cost Estimation D) Resource Allocation

Answer 28

A) Prototyping

Question 29

Which term refers to the numbering system used to uniquely identify each component within the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) of a project? One A) Cost Baseline B) Control Account C) Code of Accounts D) Cost Aggregation

Answer 29

C) Code of Accounts

Question 30

In a Predictive Life Cycle, project scope, time, and cost are determined and defined as the project progresses and more information becomes available. One A) True B) False

Answer 30

B) False

Question 31

Select all statements that accurately describe Context Diagrams. All A) Context Diagrams provide a visual representation of project timelines and schedules B) Context Diagrams illustrate how people and other systems interact with a business system. C) Context Diagrams are used to depict the product scope in a visual format D) Context Diagrams detail the internal workings and structure of a business system

Answer 31

B) Context Diagrams illustrate how people and other systems interact with a business system. C) Context Diagrams are used to depict the product scope in a visual format

Question 32

Progressive Elaboration refers to the iterative process of reducing the level of detail in a project management plan as the project progresses. True or False? One A) True B) False

Answer 32

B) False

Question 33

What term describes organized working sessions led by qualified facilitators, designed to bring stakeholders together to collaboratively determine project requirements and reach agreement on project outcomes? One A) Brainstorming Sessions B) Focus Groups C) Facilitated Workshops D) Stakeholder Meetings

Answer 33

C) Facilitated Workshops

Question 34

Select all statements that accurately describe Storyboarding. All A) Storyboarding is a technique that uses textual descriptions to outline a project's steps. B) Storyboarding is a prototyping method that utilizes visuals or images C) Storyboarding helps in illustrating a process or representing a project outcome D) Storyboarding is primarily used for financial analysis and budgeting

Answer 34

B) Storyboarding is a prototyping method that utilizes visuals or images C) Storyboarding helps in illustrating a process or representing a project outcome

Question 35

What is the term for a formal or informal approach used to gather information directly from stakeholders through conversation? One A) Surveys B) Brainstorming C) Observations D) Interviews

Answer 35

D) Interviews

Question 36

Which of the following statements accurately describe Resource Calendars? All A) Resource Calendars identify the working days and shifts for specific resources B) Resource Calendars provide a detailed list of all project tasks and activities C) Resource Calendars are used primarily to track the project’s financial expenses D) Resource Calendars specify when specific resources are made available to the project

Answer 36

A) Resource Calendars identify the working days and shifts for specific resources D) Resource Calendars specify when specific resources are made available to the project

Question 37

The Team Charter is a document primarily used for detailing the project schedule, budget, and resource allocation. Is it Predictive or Agile? A) True B) False

Answer 37

Predictive! B) False

Question 38

Which term best describes a systematic procedure, technique, or process employed to facilitate the transfer of information among project stakeholders? One A) Communication Channels B) Communication Methods C) Informal Management Systems D) Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix

Answer 38

B) Communication Methods

Question 39

The Statement of Work (SOW) is typically a brief and high-level overview, providing a quick snapshot of the expected outcomes without going into detail about the products, services, or results to be delivered by the project. A) True B) False

Answer 39

B) False

Question 40

What is the primary purpose of the Schedule Management Plan in project management? One A) To outline the project’s objectives, stakeholders, and their roles and responsibilities B) To establish the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule. C) To provide a detailed list of all resources required for the project, including their costs and availability. D) To identify and analyze the project risks, as well as strategies for mitigating them.

Answer 40

B) To establish the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

Question 41

A Critical Path Activity is defined as any activity that is not located on the critical path in a project schedule. A) True B) False

Answer 41

B) False

Question 42

What is the Scope Baseline in project management? One A) Approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. B) A preliminary version of the project's scope statement and WBS that is subject to change as the project progresses C) The total sum of all tasks, activities, and deliverables required to complete the project D) The process of gathering and documenting the specific goals, deliverables, tasks, costs, and deadlines of a project

Answer 42

A) Approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

Question 43

Which of the following best describes a strategic document and plan that guides why a product will be delivered and how the product will meet objectives and the product vision? One A) Business Case B) Project Charter C) Product Roadmap D) Work Breakdown Structure

Answer 43

C) Product Roadmap

Question 44

Select all the activities that are included in Project Risk Management as described in the provided definition. All A) Developing strategies to deal with potential project risks B) Conducting procurement activities for project resources C) Identifying and listing potential risks that might affect the project D) Implementing responses to address identified project risks E) Creating a communication plan for the project stakeholders F) Monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of risk responses

Answer 44

A) Developing strategies to deal with potential project risks C) Identifying and listing potential risks that might affect the project D) Implementing responses to address identified project risks F) Monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of risk responses

Question 45

The Procurement Management Plan only includes information on how goods and services will be acquired from within the performing organization, not from outside sources. One A) True B) False

Answer 45

B) False

Question 46

The Quality Management Plan is a component of the project management plan that outlines the implementation of applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines to achieve the project's quality objectives. One A) True B) False

Answer 46

A) True

Question 47

In project management, what is meant by the term "Risk Tolerance"? One A) The process of identifying, analyzing, and responding to risks B) The amount of risk, measured in terms of probability and impact, that an organization or individual is willing to accept C) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward D) The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted

Answer 47

B) The amount of risk, measured in terms of probability and impact, that an organization or individual is willing to accept

Question 48

What term best describes the net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor, which can be tangible, intangible, or both? One A) Return on Investment B) Business Value C) Stakeholder Satisfaction D) Competitive Advantage

Answer 48

B) Business Value

Question 49

In project management and product development, what term best describes a set of related requirements that enables a user to fulfill a business objective or need? One A) Task B) User Story C) Work Package D) Feature

Answer 49

D) Feature

Question 50

Which of the following best describes User Stories in project management? One A) Short descriptions of required functionality; told from the user's point of view B) Detailed technical specifications that outline how a feature should be implemented in a project C) A list of all the tasks and activities that need to be completed in a project D) A formal document outlining the project’s objectives, stakeholders, and their roles and responsibilities

Answer 50

A) Short descriptions of required functionality; told from the user's point of view

Question 51

In project management, what is a Work Package? One A) The initial stage of the Work Breakdown Structure where the scope of the project is broadly defined B) A high-level categorization of project tasks in the Work Breakdown Structure C) The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed D) The total sum of all tasks and activities required to complete the project

Answer 51

C) The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed

Question 52

Select all the statements that accurately describe the Risk Management Plan based on the given definition. All A) It is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan B) It outlines the structure and procedures for conducting risk management activities C) It is a standalone document that is not connected to the project management plan D) All of the above

Answer 52

A) It is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan B) It outlines the structure and procedures for conducting risk management activities

Question 53

Select all the statements that correctly describe a Risk based on the provided definition. All A) A risk is always a negative event or condition in a project B) A risk is an uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives C) A risk has a predetermined effect on the project’s objectives D) A risk can have either a positive or negative effect on project objectives E) A risk is a certain event that will definitely occur during the project

Answer 53

B) A risk is an uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives D) A risk can have either a positive or negative effect on project objectives

Question 54

Quality is defined as the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements. One A) True B) False

Answer 54

A) True

Question 55

What is the main purpose of Qualitative Risk Analysis in project management? One A) To numerically analyze the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives B) To create a risk management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed C) To track identified risks, monitor residual risks, and evaluate the effectiveness of risk responses throughout the project D) To prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics

Answer 55

D) To prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics

Question 56

A Quality Audit involves a casual and informal review of project activities to ensure that they are in alignment with personal preferences and informal practices. One A) True B) False

Answer 56

B) False

Question 57

What does the term "Risk Appetite" refer to in project management? One A) The process of identifying and analyzing potential risks B) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward C) The specific types of risk that an organization or individual wants to avoid D) The plan for how to deal with the potential risks identified

Answer 57

B) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward

Question 58

In agile project management, how is a very large collection of user stories, which can be spread across many sprints, best described? One A) Feature B) Task C) Backlog D) Epic

Answer 58

D) Epic

Question 59

Which of the following are components or aspects of Project Governance as defined in the provided definition? Select all that apply. All A) A framework guiding project management activities B) Processes that lead to the creation of a unique product, service, or result C) Guidelines for meeting organizational, strategic, and operational goals D) A method for fast-tracking project schedules E) Functions that oversee project execution and control

Answer 59

A) A framework guiding project management activities B) Processes that lead to the creation of a unique product, service, or result C) Guidelines for meeting organizational, strategic, and operational goals E) Functions that oversee project execution and control

Question 60

In Disciplined Agile, what term is used to describe the smallest amount of value that can be added to a product or service and still bring benefits to the business? One A) Minimum Business Increments (MBI) B) Minimum Viable Product (MVP) C) Business Value Optimization D) Incremental Development

Answer 60

A) Minimum Business Increments (MBI)

Question 61

In project management, what term best describes a significant point or event that represents a major achievement or a pivotal stage in a project, program, or portfolio? One A) Milestone B) Task C) Deliverable D) Checkpoint

Answer 61

A) Milestone

Question 62

What term describes the tools used to represent the process of communication, including descriptions, analogies, and schematics, specifically tailored for a project? One A) Communication Channels B) Stakeholder Engagement Tools C) Communication Models D) Information Distribution Systems

Answer 62

C) Communication Models

Question 63

What is the name of the component within the project, program, or portfolio management plan that outlines the methods and timings for how project information will be shared and who will be responsible for its distribution? One A) Communications Management Plan B) Information Distribution Plan C) Project Communication Strategy D) Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Answer 63

A) Communications Management Plan

Question 64

The Critical Path Method is used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model. One A) True B) False

Answer 64

A) True

Question 65

Funding Limit Reconciliation involves the process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funds against any limits on the commitment of funds for the project, in order to identify any variances between the funding limits and the planned expenditures. One A) True B) False

Answer 65

A) True

Question 66

Select all the statements that accurately describe the Risk Threshold based on the given definition. One A) It refers to the level of risk that is acceptable to a project manager or key stakeholder. B) It includes both the amount of risk and the potential impact of that risk occurring C) It represents the minimum level of risk that will trigger a response in the project D) All of the above

Answer 66

A) It refers to the level of risk that is acceptable to a project manager or key stakeholder. B) It includes both the amount of risk and the potential impact of that risk occurring

Question 67

Which of the following best describes a Gantt Chart in the context of project management? One A) A chart that shows the project budget over time B) A bar chart showing schedule information, with activities listed vertically, dates horizontally, and activity durations as horizontal bars. C) A flowchart showing the sequence of project activities and their dependencies. D) A pie chart representing the allocation of resources for different project activities.

Answer 67

B) A bar chart showing schedule information, with activities listed vertically, dates horizontally, and activity durations as horizontal bars.

Question 68

What tool is commonly used in project management to map the probability of risk occurrence and its potential impact on project objectives? One A) Probability and Impact Matrix B) Risk Data Sheet C) Risk Heat Map D) Risk Breakdown Structure

Answer 68

A) Probability and Impact Matrix

Question 69

Based on the given definition, select all the statements that correctly describe a Trigger Condition in project management. All A) A trigger condition always prevents a risk from occurring B) A trigger condition is an indicator that a risk event is imminent C) A trigger condition could be an event or a situation D) A trigger condition has no relation to risk events in a project E) Identifying trigger conditions helps in proactive risk management

Answer 69

B) A trigger condition is an indicator that a risk event is imminent C) A trigger condition could be an event or a situation E) Identifying trigger conditions helps in proactive risk management

Question 70

In project management, what is the term used to describe a distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during a project? One A) Work Package B) Milestone C) Project Activity D) Task Assignment

Answer 70

C) Project Activity

Question 71

What is the term used to describe an action taken to address a project risk? One A) Risk Identification B) Risk Mitigation C) Risk Register D) Risk Response

Answer 71

D) Risk Response

Question 72

Which process involves numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives? One A) Qualitative Risk Analysis B) Risk Response Planning C) Risk Monitoring and Controlling D) Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 72

D) Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 73

The Control Procurement Process involves managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as necessary, and closing out contracts. One A) True B) False

Answer 73

A) True

Question 74

The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves. One A) True B) False

Answer 74

A) True

Question 75

What term is used to describe the smallest collection of features that can be included in a product for customers to consider it functional, often referred to as "bare bones" or "no frills" functionality in Lean methodology? One A) Full Feature Product B) Prototype C) Beta Version D) Minimum Viable Product (MVP)

Answer 75

D) Minimum Viable Product (MVP)

Question 76

Select all the statements that correctly describe Knowledge Management based on the provided definition. All A) Knowledge Management involves storing historical project information B) Knowledge Management is primarily focused on documenting lessons learned from past projects C) Knowledge Management includes a database of all project team members D) Knowledge Management helps in preserving valuable project insights for future reference E) Knowledge Management is a real-time communication tool for current project teams

Answer 76

A) Knowledge Management involves storing historical project information B) Knowledge Management is primarily focused on documenting lessons learned from past projects D) Knowledge Management helps in preserving valuable project insights for future reference

Question 77

What term describes responses that are planned to be implemented in the event that a specific trigger occurs during a project? One A) Preventive Actions B) Contingency Response Strategies C) Corrective Actions D) Risk Mitigation Strategies

Answer 77

B) Contingency Response Strategies

Question 78

In project management, what term is used to describe a logical relationship that exists between two project activities? One A) Activity Sequence B) Activity Dependency C) Task Relationship D) Work Flow

Answer 78

B) Activity Dependency

Question 79

Internal and External EEFs

Answer 79

Conditions outside the control of the team. EXTERNAL

Question 80

Organizational Process Assets (OPS)

Answer 80

Refers to all the input or assets on processes used by an organization in operating a business. Examples: Business plans, processes, policies, and protocols. INTERNAL

Question 81

Iterative Approach

Answer 81

Enable quicker and less costly identification or value-based outputs than predictive approach

Question 82

Minimum Viable Product (MVP) Agile or Predictive? What is it?

Answer 82

Agile! The smallest collection of features that can be included in a product for customers to consider it functional. In Lean methodologies, it can be referred to as “bare bones” or “no frills”

Question 83

Stakeholder engagement plan What is it?

Answer 83

Used to understand stakeholder communication requirements and the level of stakeholder engagement in order to assess and adapt to the level of stakeholder participation in requirements activities.

Question 84

Communications Management Plan What is it?

Answer 84

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

Question 85

Cross-functional, T-Shaped, Generalized team members What is it?

Answer 85

Refers to a person whose skill set comprises one area of specialization and broad ability in other skills required by the team.

Question 86

What is a SWOT analysis?

Answer 86

Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, Threat

Question 87

PROJECT SCOPE

Answer 87

The features, functions, and works that characterize the delivery of a product, service, and/or result.

Question 88

PRODUCT SCOPE

Answer 88

The functions and features that characterize a product or a service.

Question 90

PRODUCT ROADMAP

Answer 90

A high-level visual summary of the product or products of the project that includes goals, milestones, and potential deliverables

Question 91

CONTEXT DIAGRAM

Answer 91

Visual depiction of product scope, showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.) and how people and other systems interact with it.

Question 92

Three-Point Estimating can be described as? One A) Uses the duration of a previous project with similar scope or activities to predict the cost of future activities. B) Relies on the statistical relationship that exists between historical information and variables to arrive at an estimate for parameters such as duration and cost. C) Uses project information and includes risk and uncertainty factors D) Estimates the cost of individual activities then "rolls up" to higher levels.

Answer 92

C) Uses project information and includes risk and uncertainty factors

Question 93

Analogous Estimating can be described as? One A) Uses the duration of a previous project with similar scope or activities to predict the cost of future activities. B) Relies on the statistical relationship that exists between historical information and variables to arrive at an estimate for parameters such as duration and cost. C) Uses project information and includes risk and uncertainty factors D) Estimates the cost of individual activities then "rolls up" to higher levels.

Answer 93

A) Uses the duration of a previous project with similar scope or activities to predict the cost of future activities.

Question 94

Bottom-Up Estimating can be described as? One A) Uses the duration of a previous project with similar scope or activities to predict the cost of future activities. B) Relies on the statistical relationship that exists between historical information and variables to arrive at an estimate for parameters such as duration and cost. C) Uses project information and includes risk and uncertainty factors D) Estimates the cost of individual activities then "rolls up" to higher levels.

Answer 94

D) Estimates the cost of individual activities then "rolls up" to higher levels.

Question 95

Parametric Estimating can be described as? One A) Uses the duration of a previous project with similar scope or activities to predict the cost of future activities. B) Relies on the statistical relationship that exists between historical information and variables to arrive at an estimate for parameters such as duration and cost. C) Uses project information and includes risk and uncertainty factors D) Estimates the cost of individual activities then "rolls up" to higher levels.

Answer 95

B) Relies on the statistical relationship that exists between historical information and variables to arrive at an estimate for parameters such as duration and cost.

Question 96

Gantt Chart

Answer 96

Visualize and track the project over a horizontal time-line

Question 97

Contract: Cost-reimbursable

Answer 97

For projects with expected, significant scope changes

Question 98

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

Answer 98

Fee amounts do not change unless the project scope changes

Question 99

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

Answer 99

Reimburses seller for all allowable costs for performing contract work; predetermined incentive fee based for achieving contract-specified performance objectives. 

Question 100

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Answer 100

Determines fee based on buyer’s assessment of seller performance and not subject to appeals

Question 101

Firm fixed price (FFP)

Answer 101

Price of goods set at beginning; won’t change unless scope changes

Question 102

Fixed price with economic price adjustments (FPEPA

Answer 102

Gives buyer and seller flexibility Allows for deviation from performance — i.e., financial incentives tied to achieving agreed-upon metrics (cost, schedule, awesomeness) Sets price ceiling; any further costs charged to seller

Question 103

Pre-approved vendors or international payments

Answer 103

Allows for special provisions for predefined final adjustments to the contract price — e.g., inflation, cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities

Question 104

Time and materials contracts

Answer 104

Combine aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts Used when a precise scope or statement of work is unavailable Used often for augmenting staff, acquiring experts or gaining external support

Question 105

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

Answer 105

Cost spent during project to avoid failure

Question 106

Qualitative is the measurement of... A. People's feelings B. Data

Answer 106

A. People's Feelings

Question 107

Quantitative is the measurement of... A. People's feelings B. Data

Answer 107

B. Data

Question 108

Spike

Answer 108

A short term interval within a project, usually of fixed length, during which a team conducts research or prototypes an aspect of a solution to prove its viability

Question 109

Iterative Changes

Answer 109

Process that makes progress through continuous refinement

Question 110

Incremental change

Answer 110

Process that makes progress through small increments

Question 111

Requirements Traceability Matrix

Answer 111

Traces the requirement from the Requirements to the Scope

Question 112

What is CPI?

Answer 112

Cost Performance Index. - <1 Over Budget - =1 On Budget - >1 Under Budget CPI=Estimated Value/Actual Value

Question 113

What is SPI?

Answer 113

Schedule Performance Index <1 is behind schedule. =1 On schedule >1 is leading the schedule. This happens when the earned value is greater than the planned value. SPI=Estimated Value/Planned Value

Question 114

Fast Tracking

Answer 114

Working tasks in parallel to get ahead Doesn't cost extra

Question 115

Schedule Crashing

Answer 115

Throwing extra money and resources at a project to speed it up

Question 116

Management Reserves

Answer 116

Budget withheld for management control purposes and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project.

Question 117

Contingency Reserves

Answer 117

Budget withheld to cover project risks.

Question 118

Iteration Burndown Chart

Answer 118

Tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog.

Question 119

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 119

Shows which documents will be baselined.

Question 120

Push Communication

Answer 120

Sent to stakeholders such as memos, emails, status reports, and so on. This communication is 1-way.

Question 121

Pull Communication

Answer 121

Information sought by the stakeholder, such as the stakeholder going to the intranet and searching for policies or templates.

Question 122

Tuckman's Ladder

Answer 122

Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning

Question 123

Decomposition

Answer 123

Breaking things down into smaller and more manageable parts. It is a tool and technique for both the Create WBS and the Define Activities processes.

Question 124

Where are the cadence and Way of working documented?

Answer 124

Project Management Plan

Question 125

Benefits Management Plan

Answer 125

Manages -how the benefits are delivered -a process to measure the benefits -then used to check if planned benefits were achieved.

Question 126

Procure Management Plan

Answer 126

Outputs are to create the procurement statement of work and the source selection criteria.

Question 127

5 Cs of Communication

Answer 127

Correct Concise Clear Coherent Controlling

Question 128

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 128

Process of prioritizing individual risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact of an occurrence.

Question 129

Which risk analysis is not necessary if budget limitations are present? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Identify Risks D. Plan Risk Management

Answer 129

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 130

What document identifies which items need to go through the change management process? A. Change Management Plan B. Scope Management Plan C. Configuration Management Plan D. Requirements Traceability Matrix

Answer 130

C. Configuration Management Plan

Question 131

What does the Project Charter contain?

Answer 131

Project Purpose, High-level requirements, deliverables, milestone schedule list, project risks, stakeholders

Question 132

What is Make-or-Buy?

Answer 132

Used to decide between two or more options in delivering a project, with one of those options being your organization and the other being a vendor.

Question 133

Conflict model: Smooth and Accommodate

Answer 133

Lose/Win

Question 134

Conflict Model: Collaborate and Problem Solve

Answer 134

Win/Win

Question 135

Conflict Model: Compromise and Reconcile

Answer 135

Lose/Lose

Question 136

Conflict Model: Force and Direct

Answer 136

Win/Lose

Question 137

Rolling Wave Planning approach

Answer 137

High-level View of future work and a detailed view of near-term work.

Question 138

You're in the initiating stages of a project working for a car manufacturer. Their vehicles have been losing market share due to the high price of fuel, and the organization wants to build more fuel efficient cars. You have been asked to put together a business case outlining the various options with a specific order to perform benchmarking. What will you do next? A. Find which competitor products have been benchmarked for future production. B. Compare the specifications of popular branded fuel efficient cars available in the market with your product. C. Benchmark your current scope, cost, and schedule to use as values for project performance. D. Create a project charter to use as a benchmark for your future project management plan.

Answer 138

B. Compare the specifications of popular branded fuel efficient cars available in the market with your product.

Question 139

Appraisal Costs

Answer 139

The cost of auditing or checking the work

Question 140

Preventative Costs

Answer 140

Costs to prevent future quality issues

Question 141

Internal failure costs

Answer 141

Defects caught before release

Question 142

Sunk Costs

Answer 142

Money already spent on something.

Question 143

You have just joined an organization and are about to be allocated to an existing project, delivering a new human resources system. You have heard that the project is behind its delivery milestones, and it is over budget by $40,000 so far. There are multiple stakeholders with differing needs. What will you do first? A. Create a project management plan, outlining the processes for each phase of the project. B. Perform a stakeholder engagement assessment, to see who is sabotaging the project. C. Start by understanding how the organization works, including its politics and power. D. Meet with the project sponsor to understand why the project is off track

Answer 143

C. Start by understanding how the organization works, including its politics and power.

Question 144

Parametric Estimating

Answer 144

examples are $ per hour or $ per meter

Question 145

About 1/3 of your project team have worked on a similar project in the past. They have gathered requirements and created a high level scope. It is time to estimate the size and effort involved, however the customer believes things are taking too long and would like to see some progress as soon as possible. What will you do? A. Ask the customer to wait so you can plan the project properly. B. Estimate scope using parametric estimating C. Break high level scope and starts using a work breakdown structure. D. Estimate the scope using analogous estimating

Answer 145

D. Estimate the scope using analogous estimating

Question 146

Control Chart indicates "out of control" if:

Answer 146

7 or more points above the center line, 5 or more points in 1 direction, and any point outside the control limits.

Question 147

What is a User Story

Answer 147

An informal, general explanation of a software feature written from the perspective of the end user or customer.

Question 148

What are Work Packages?

Answer 148

A work package is a group of related tasks within a project. Work packages are the smallest unit of work that a project can be broken down into when creating your Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Question 149

What is a Feature?

Answer 149

Set of repated requirements that enables a user to fullfill a business onjective or need.

Question 150

Characteristics of Predictive

Answer 150

Requirements-Fixed Activities-Performed once for the entire Project Delivery-Single Delivery Goal-Manage Cost

Question 151

Characteristics of Iterative

Answer 151

Requirements-Dynamic Activities-Repeated until Correct Delivery-Single Delivery Goal-Correctness of solutions

Question 152

Characteristics of Incremental

Answer 152

Requirements-Dynamic Activities-Performed once per increment Delivery-Frequent smaller deliveries Goal-Speed

Question 153

Characteristics of Agile

Answer 153

Requirements-Dynamic Activities-Repeat until correct Delivery-Frequent small deliveries Goal-Customer value via frequent deliveries and feedback

Question 154

Resource Management Plan

Answer 154

Identifies with role, responsibilities, authority and competence.

Question 155

Histogram

Answer 155

Used to find biggest impact

Question 156

Flowchart

Answer 156

A diagram that depicts a process, system or computer algorithm.

Question 157

Matrix Diagram

Answer 157

A tool for displaying and analyzing the relationships between two or more data sets

Question 158

Affinity Map

Answer 158

A visual tool that helps you organize information from a brainstorming session. You'll sort ideas into different groups or categories based on their relationships to one another.