VOL 1 & 2 2023

Question 1

Explain Pilot Dispatcher joint responsibility

Answer 1

The Captain and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight and shall determine the suitability of the weather, field, traffic and airway facilities on that particular flight. Both the Captain and the Dispatcher have the authority to delay the flight. If during the course of operations the PIC or Dispatcher determine the flight cannot be completed safely, the PIC may not allow the flight to continue to the planned destination.

Question 2

When is an alternate airport required? (123 MMOISTTR) updated 1/14/23. Yes. I did. Annoying AF

Answer 2

-123 = 1hour prior to 1 hour after ETA less than 2000ft ceilings and 3 miles visibility

-Marginal Weather- if the ceiling is within 100ft OR visibility is
within 1/2SM of the minimums for the Destination IAP. If ALTERNATE airport weather is marginal (based on Derived Alternate Minimums) you must file a second alternate that meets derived alternate minimum requirements.))

-Method 2 Alternate- If the aircraft weight cannot meet the terrain clearance Method 1 you can file Method 2 = 2000ft above terrain within 5 miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. Requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment of the driftdown flight plan.

-Off-line Charter or Supplimental- if not listed as a regular airport in our manual.

• International and the flight time will exceed 6.0 hours.

-Severe Icing- If sever icing conditions are forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA

-Takeoff Alternate- If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required that meets the following requirements: (Must Be Method 1 FYI)
– Be within 1hour normal cruise speed – SingleEngine
– StillAir
– Be within 330NM of departure airport

-RNAV Only Approach- If the destination airport does not have any operational ground based approaches an alternate must be filed with a suitable non-RNAV approach (In case your GPS craps out)

Question 3

Explain flaps optimized between 3 and 4

Answer 3

Flaps optimized helps with go around performance when you pick up icing enroute. “Flap Full” becomes “Flaps 3”.

Flaps Optimized insures adequate approach climb performance in this case.

Question 4

Explain the different between Method 1 and Method 2

Answer 4

a. Method 1 - Requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures, if an engine failure occurs
anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircrafts net altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM
either side of the routes centerline by 1000ft until reaching the destination.
b. Method 2- If the aircraft weight is such that it cannot meet the terrain clearance requirements of
Method 1 you can file Method 2 which requires the aircraft to maintain 2000ft above terrain within 5 Miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment.

Question 5

When is a Takeoff Alternate required?

Answer 5

If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required that meets requirements:
– Within 1hour normal cruise-speed – SingleEngine
– StillAir
– Within 330 NM of departure airport

Question 6

When is autopilot required for an approach?

Answer 6

When visibility is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4, the approach must be flown with the autopilot(s) engaged if operable.
AND……………….

additional 15% runway must also be available if
visibility is under 3/4 SM.

Question 7

Required equipment for RVSM? (FFAT 2PAD)

Answer 7

FWC- Flight Warning Computer (Altitude Alerter)
FCU- Flight Control Unit
Autopilot
Transponder
2-PFD’s - Primary Flight Displays
2-ADR’s - Air Data Reference computer (#1 is required)
2-DMC’s - Display Monitoring Computer

VOL II 5.25

Question 8

Four Requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

Answer 8

a. Cross track error deviation should be limited to .5NM
b. SID/STAR must be retrieved by procedure name from NAV database
c. Pilot must use Flight Director and/or Autopilot in LNAV mode
d. Pilot must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500ft above airport eleva

Question 9

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less than 3/4 SM or 4000 RVR? What Must Be Applied?(Hint: not autoland)

Answer 9

-Autopilot coupled approach
-add 15% to the Landing Field Length specified for that runway

Question 10

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is 1/2 SM OR 2400 RVR or less?

Answer 10

The approach must be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the pilot flying
– CATII or CAT III runway available
– The aircraft is auto-land capable
– Both crew members are trained for autoland

Question 11

What paperwork must be onboard prior to blocking out?

Answer 11

Flight Plan (is right before TLR)
Latest available weather (METAR/TAF)
NOTAM Reports
Performance Information (AWP or TLR)
Weight and Balance manifest

You do not technically need the top copy

Question 12

How does a pilot initiate the call to the Flight Attendants to inform them to prepare the cabin for a
possible Evacuation?

Answer 12

a. The pilot will initiate the call to the cabin using the Emergency call button on the inter-phone
b. He will then inform the Flight Attendant that they are in a TEST situation and brief the flight attendant on the information.
– T-Type of emergency (CargoFire)
– E- Evacuation Anticipated? ( we plan to evacuate the cabin)
– S - Signals from the Cockpit to the Cabin ( “Brace, Brace, Brace” “Remain Seated,
Remain Seated, Remain Seated” “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”)
– T-Time remaining until Landing(we will be landing in 10 minutes)

Question 13

What is the lowest RVR Frontier can depart with?

Answer 13

The lowest authorized RVR value Frontier can depart at is 500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and CL lights

Question 14

When is a crew briefing required?

Answer 14

a. Crew briefings should be conducted prior to the first flight of the day.
b. If a crew member change occurs the Captain should complete an additional crew briefing with the new
crew member prior to that flight.
c. If a crew briefing cannot be accomplished prior to the first flight of the day or prior to the flight in the
event of a crew member change the captain should insure that at least the first officer and preferably the “A” flight attendant have received the crew briefing. The briefed flight attendant will then be responsible for briefing the other flight attendants in this situation and those flight attendants that were not briefed by the captain should try to stop by the flight deck prior to departure to identify themselves as crew members to the captain.

Question 15

When is a DDA required?

Answer 15

Derived Decision Altitude is required when conducting an approach with an MDA or MDH.

DDA is derived by adding 50ft to the published MDA or MDH.

Question 16

PF on the ground?

Answer 16

Captain is always PF on the ground for the purpose of ECAM actions.

Question 17

Circle to Land approach minimums and important points.

Answer 17

circle to land maneuver you must have at least 3 SM and 1000ft ceilings.

Circle to land uses MDA not DDA because you level off.

Primary flight plan will have the instrument approach procedure the circling approach, the secondary flight plan will have the desired runway without an approach.

Circle in configuration 3. Once on base/final, flaps full.

Question 18

Is a logbook entry required if you do a computer reset?

Answer 18

YES.
a. Successful reset must be entered into the aircraft logbook as “CR” (Computer Reset) items.
b. If a Computer / System cannot be successfully reset it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a
discrepancy.

Question 19

When are wing walkers or marshaller necessary?

Answer 19

a. Parking an aircraft requires a marshaller to guide the aircraft. One or more wing-walkers may be used at the discretion of the marshaller..

Question 20

During the cockpit prep, setting the QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and 2?

Answer 20

A) = +/- 20ft difference

Extra Credit:
B) Standby system Steam Gauge = +/- 300ft from PFD
C) ISIS system = +/- 100ft from PFD

Question 21

After landing when do we perform the drift check and what are the limits?

Answer 21

a. A drift check is required to be completed after each flight to Alaska or an international destination, or anytime the aircraft is flown in Class II airspace.
b. If the drift check falls into the shaded band on the chart in Vol. 2 3.20 pg. 4 no logbook entry is required. However, a drift check is required to be completed on the next flight leg even if the leg would not normally require one to be done.

Quick align IRUs

Question 22

What is Marginal weather?

Answer 22

a. The weather is considered marginal if the ceiling is within 100 ft or the visibility is within 1/2 SM of the
minimums for the destination airport and the weather at the alternate airport is within 100 ft and 1/2 SM of the derived alternate minimums. If both the destination and first alternate are determined to be Marginal than a second alternate is required that meets derived alternate minimum requirements.

Question 23

What does RNAV 1 Mean?

Answer 23

RNAV 1 on SIDS and STARS must maintain a total system error of not more than 1.0 NM, 95% of the
total flight time. (RNP 1.0)

deviation should be limited to 0.5 NM.

Question 24

When May Frontier fly to a published MDA?

Answer 24

a. Never, whenever an MDA or MDH is published for an approach we must always use Derived Decision
Altitude and a constant Flight Path/Angle descent to the DDA.

(Ehhhh circling approach)

Question 25

For abnormal procedures during takeoff, which checklist is read first: After takeoff checklist or the abnormal checklist?

Answer 25

a. After takeoff checklist is completed first and the Abnormal checklist is completed second

Question 26

When may a single engine autoland be done, and in what configuration?

Answer 26

a. Frontier limitations prohibit the use of single engine autoland approaches, however if the flight crew determines it to be the safest course of action for the approach they may use their emergency authority to complete the single engine autoland approach. If the single engine auto-land is used it will be done in the “CONFIG FULL” configuration.

Question 27

When do you select “FLAPS FULL” on a single engine approach?

Answer 27

“FLAPS FULL” should not be selected on a single engine approach until the aircraft is established on the final descent to an assured landing. If a level off is expected during the final approach the approach and landing should be preformed “FLAP 3”

Question 28

When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

Answer 28

"Continuing” is called by the PF if the the approach lights are in sight

Question 29

What needs to be turned off at minimums, when runway is in sight, landing from a non-precision approach?

Answer 29

- A/P Off – FDs Off

Question 30

What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?

Answer 30

If the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on, immediately release the Parking Brake handle and restore braking with the pedals.

Question 31

Is it ok to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

Answer 31

A Frontier pilot or mechanic shall be at the duty station any time the parking brake is released, or at the discretion of maintenance when work is being preformed.

Question 32

What Equipment is a Frontier pilot required to carry? (Revised February 2023)

Answer 32

(VOL I 20.10 pg. 2) - AirmanCertificate – FCCPermit – Medical Certificate – Flashlight – EFB with Vol 1 and 2, FlySmart+, EQRH and Jepp Charts – Passport – Government issued photo ID — Company Badge (10.40 pg.1)

Question 33

How long before departure are we required to report for duty?

Answer 33

- 1 hour prior in domicile – 45 minutes prior to departure out of domicile – not less than 1 hour prior to departure for international

Question 34

When is your new medical certificate required to be submitted to the Chief Pilots Office?

Answer 34

No later than the 20th of the month in which its due

Question 35

What do you do if you lose one of your certificates?

Answer 35

a. Call the SOC for a copy of the certificates and exemption 5487 b. This limits you to domestic flights only c. Must request a new/temporary certificate from the FAA within 72 hours

Question 36

If the aircraft is not certified for overwater operations, how close must you stay to land?

Answer 36

162 NM from shoreline and not to exceed 30 minutes of flying time

Question 37

United States holding speeds?

Answer 37

– 0-6000ft = 200KIAS – 6001-14000ft = 230KIAS – Above14000ft = 265KIAS

Question 38

If the weather at the departure airport drops from one SM to 1,000 RVR, as you taxi out, what should the flight crew complete? STAR

Answer 38

So below 1,200 RVR = SMGCS And below CAT I minimums = Takeoff Alternate. – SMGCS charts out for taxi – Take off Alternate is required – ARTR required from dispatch – Red Stop Bar Lights at the runway

Question 39

When is an ARTR required? (HAMM Fuel)

Answer 39

– H our Old (release is more than one hour old) – A lternate becomes required for takeoff or Destination - M EL added to aircraft after release was sent – M iles added to the flight plan greater than 100 miles - Fuel more than 2000LBS to be added

Question 40

When do you need a new TLR report?

Answer 40

If the QNH drops more than .10 QNH from the TLR a new report is required

Question 41

When Is FLEX takeoff Prohibited? MCOWS

Answer 41

– MEL prevents it – Contaminated Runway – OAT is greater than Flex Temp – Windshear – Special Departure Procedures (ie.KSNA noise abatement) – Performance will not allow a Flex takeoff

Question 42

What are the three different engine failure procedures?

Answer 42

a. Standard (Simple) - Runway Heading b. Simple-Special (Special) - Heading to a DME than direct to a fix c. Complex-Special (Complex) - An escape route that can be found in the AIP or Jepp chart 10-7

Question 43

What is the minimum engine oil quantity required for flight?

Answer 43

14 quarts for A321 NEO (above -30+) If less than 14 quarts, lookup minimum oil quantity in VOL II.

Question 44

What ways can you obtain a valid weight and balance?

Answer 44

ACARS Paper form Central Load Planning phone call

Question 45

What is the required response to a “SINK RATE” aural warning?

Answer 45

"GO AROUND” because vertical speed has become greater than 1000 FMP and the approach is no longer stabilized

Question 46

What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning during CAT II/III approach?

Answer 46

An immediate missed approach is required. VOL II 6.30 P.13 – Excessive ILS beam deviation (1/4 Dot localizer,1 Dot glide slope) – The loss or disconnect of both auto pilots – ILS transmitter failure – The Difference between both RA indications is greater than 15ft

Question 47

If a circuit braker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?

Answer 47

-On the Ground 1. Do NOT re-engage fuel pump C/Bs. 2. The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/B provided the action is coordinated with MOC and cause has been identified -In flight 1. Do NOT re-engage any C/B that has tripped by itself unless the captain judges it absolutely necessary for the safe continuation of flight. VOL II 5.05 P. 1

Question 48

An RNAV/GPS approach has LPV, LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums Which minimums can Frontier use? Stipulations?

Answer 48

a. CANNOT use LPV minimums b. CAN use LNAV/VNAV minimums c. CAN use VNAV minimums d. CANNOT use LNAV or VNAV minimums if a minimum climb gradient is published for the missed approach

Question 49

What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?

Answer 49

a. Climbing 1. PF Calls “PULL STANDARD” and “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING” 2. PM Calls “STANDARD PULLED, ALTITUDE CHECKED" b. Descending 1. PF Calls “PUSH QNH” “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING” 2. PM Calls “ QNH PUSHED, ALTITUDE CHECKED

Question 50

Preliminary Cockpit Prep: a. What is the minimum battery voltage and what does it ensure?

Answer 50

Minimum battery voltage is 25.5 volts which ensures a charge above 50% on the batteries

Question 51

What indications do you get when performing an engine fire test with AC power?

Answer 51

-Respective Fire push button light – Master Warning Lights – FIRE warning on ECAM – CRC (Continuous Repetitive Chime) – SQUIB and DISCH lights on – FIRE light on the ENG Panel – ***Push MASTER WARN to verify MASTER WARN lights and CRC cancel!!!

Question 52

What indication do you get when performing the APU fire test with AC power?

Answer 52

APU FIRE push button – CRC (continuous repetitive chime) – APU FIRE warning on ECAM – SQUIB and DISCH light – Master Warning Lights

Question 53

What indications do you have on the APU fire test when you do not have AC power?

Answer 53

– Half of APU FIRE push button Illuminates – SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate

Question 54

If the brake accumulator pressure is out of the green band, how can it be charged?

Answer 54

You can pressurize the the YELLOW HYDRAULIC system by selecting the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump switch to on. DO NOT switch the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump to the on position at the gate without first consulting with the ground crew to make sure everyone is clear of the aircraft.

Question 55

At the gate with the engines off, you turn on the YELLOW ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC pump. Will this action pressurize the GREEN HYDRAULIC system? Why?

Answer 55

Yes YELLOW ELECTRIC pump will pressurize both the GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system VIA the PTU (Power Transfer Unit) if there is greater than a 500 PSI difference between the YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems. FROM VOL III: (A bidirectional power transfer unit enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. The power transfer unit comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the green and the yellow systems is greater than 500 PSI. The PTU therefore allows the green system to be pressurized on the ground when the engines are stopped.)

Question 56

During single engine taxi, the #2 engine MUST be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to takeoff and why?

Answer 56

Start the #2 engine at least 3 minutes prior to takeoff to allow for engine stabilization and to alliviate the risk of THERMAL SHOCK to the engine.

Question 57

What temperature and conditions MUST the ENGINE ANTI ICE (not wing), and wing be turned on and in what phase of flight? VOL II 5.45 page 10

Answer 57

a. ENGINE ANTI ICE must be turned on when there is visible moisture and the OAT/TAT is at or below 10 Degrees C down to -40 Degrees C. b. Must be on during ground operations with visible moisture or slush, standing water, ice, or snow present on taxiways and runways c. Must be turned on at all times when the aircraft is in a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40 C - wing only needs to be on if there is an indication of airframe icing such as the windscreen indicators...

Question 58

What is the definition of Ground Icing conditions?

Answer 58

– Visible moisture – Temperature below 10 degrees C – Visibility Less than 1SM

Question 59

What do the FAC’s do? (Flight Augmentation Computers)

Answer 59

– Control The Flight Envelope – Generate speed tape symbologies (Green DOT, S Speed, F Speed) – Wind-shear Alerts – Low Energy warnings – Yaw Damping, Turn Coordination, Rudder Travel limiter

Question 60

In flight, when will the speed brakes be automatically retracted? --

Answer 60

SEAFAT – SEC1 and SEC3 faults - E levator L or R Fault - A LPHA FLOOR Activation – Flaps are configured FULL – A lpha protection Active – Thrust levers above MCT position

Question 61

What does centering the BETA TARGET with the Bank Index do?

Answer 61

In the event of an engine failure during takeoff or on a Go Around, the sideslip index changes to BLUE. When this index is centered with the roll index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for optimum performance. ( ENG N1 =/+ 80% with more than a 35% split in N1 Values)l

Question 62

If you loose the BLUE hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT still available?

Answer 62

Noop. It is NOT available to supply the hydraulic or emergency electrical power without hydraulic fluid in the BLUE system

Question 63

What color is the “NW STRG DISC” on the ECAM?

Answer 63

a. Green with both engine off b. Amber with one or both engines running

Question 64

What is the MAXIMUM recommended thrust to be used to get the Aircraft to move on the ramp?

Answer 64

Not to EXCEED 40% N1, once aircraft starts to move very little thrust is required

Question 65

If the pilot manually tunes a frequency thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the Auto-Tuning of the FMGC?

Answer 65

NO

Question 66

Green Dot, S speed, F speed ?

Answer 66

– Green Dot = L/Dmax (best glide performance, maneuvering speed, LRC) Changes during load factor, hence maneuvering speed....... – S Speed = Minimum Slat retraction Speed – F Speed = Minimum Flap retraction speed

Question 67

When do we use Flight Path Vector/ The Bird for approaches?

Answer 67

For MANAGED / SELECTED Non-Precision Approaches. The flight path director (TRK-FPA) allows the pilot to set FPA for vertical approaches. Enables the FPV (“BIRD”) for visual landing.

Question 68

COCKPIT PREPARATION: First flight of the Day, Electric System is supplied with AC power, is the BAT Voltage check required? Batt switches off or Auto?

Answer 68

NO VOL II 3.05 page 2 Batt PBs must be in off to check the battery voltage! If in Auto they will automatically connect to charge if low. Off isolates them completely.

Question 69

During cockpit preparation, after external power has been connected, we do something with the Batteries.... What, Why, and what are we looking for?

Answer 69

This proves the batteries are charged... Turn the batteries off then on.... Starts charging cycle on the batteries. LOOK AT ECAM ELEC page, should show that BAT Amps (Being Charged) drop below 60A within 10 seconds and continue to decrease. (This means the battery is charged and cannot take anymore amps). If not, this means the damn battery is sucking up power because its dead. flight crew MUST wait until the charging cycle complete.

Question 70

During Engine Start with the THRUST LEVERS out of the IDLE position, will the engines start?

Answer 70

Yes the engines will start.. CAUTION must be used because thrust will increase rapidly to the corresponding thrust lever position.

Question 71

After engine start the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

Answer 71

Run the engine for 5 minutes at idle speed. If the leak disappears in those 5 minutes no further action is required by the flight crew. If the leak is still present after those 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight. EXCEPT A321 NEO. 600’s =abort start. Call MX

Question 72

During Engine Start, Electric power supply is interrupted, what is our action?

Answer 72

Abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, preform a 30 second dry crank.

Question 73

Which leading edge devices are ICE protected?

Answer 73

The outboard 3 SLATS on each wing are heated ( 3, 4, 5 )

Question 74

Is the Tail ICE protected?

Answer 74

No

Question 75

How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0? ( Estimated Position Error )

Answer 75

NAV ACCUR HIGH denoted EPE does not exceed appropriate criteria for the procedure. GPS PRIMARY displayed = NAV accuracy check not required

Question 76

If you are preparing for a CAT III B approach and the standby altimeter failed, would if affect your CAT status or your capability in any way?

Answer 76

Yes, you would be limited to a CAT I approach

Question 77

DUAL ENGINE FAILURE!!! ECAM or QRH?

Answer 77

QRH-(its smarter than you) ENG tab Red “ All ENG FAIL” Then, time permitting, clear ECAM warnings and check the ECAM status page.

Question 78

Explain NORMAL LAW protections

Answer 78

(BYPALS) B ank 67* Y aw damping and turn coordination P itch UP-30°-20° DOWN-15° A OA Vls,A-prot,A-MAX,A-Floor L oad (clean = -1 to + 2.5) (Flaps = 0 to + 2.0) S peed Mmo + 0.1, Vmo + 6 kts (High Speed Protection)

Question 79

NORMAL LAW PROTECTIONS (BYPALS)

Answer 79

- BANK= Maximum of 67 Degrees – YAW=Turn Coordination And Yaw Damping Provided – PITCH= 20-30 Degrees nose up pitch. 15 degrees nose down – ANGLE OF ATTACK =Vls, ALPHA PROT, ALPHA FLOOR, or ALPHA MAX – LOAD= -1G to +2.5G Clean -0G +2.0 G with Flaps – SPEED = High Speed Protection = Vmo+6KTS/Mmo+.01 MACH and Full down Side Stick deflection limits much higher...

Question 80

Is ALPHA FLOOR available in Alternate or Direct Law?

Answer 80

NO. Alpha Floor protections is inoperative in both Alternate and Direct Law

Question 81

How do you get out of TOGA LOCK that is triggered by ALPHA FLOOR?

Answer 81

To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LOCK thrust: Disconnect the auto thrust

Question 82

Explain Ground Speed MINI?

Answer 82

Essentially Ground Speed Mini calculates for actual wind gusts experienced on the approach to maintain a constant groundspeed.. Minimum constant ground speed.

Question 83

When does the battery connect to the electrical system?

Answer 83

When the batteries need to be charged the BAT Contactors automatically close allowing them to charge. When charging is complete they disconnect themselves –When the battery is the soul source of electrical power they automatically connect – Batteries automatically connect during APU starts

Question 84

What is the purpose of the DFDR Button?

Answer 84

Marks the FDR tape for an event that you feel needs to be seen by MX

Question 85

What is the significants of a GREEN circuit breaker?

Answer 85

System that is monitored by the ECAM

Question 86

What is the significants of a BLACk circuit breaker?

Answer 86

System is not monitored by ECAM

Question 87

What is the significants of a RED circuit breaker?

Answer 87

DO NOT RESET!

Question 88

What happens when you turn the Engine Mode control to IGNITION?

Answer 88

– Turns on FADEC – ARMS Engine Master Switches – ARMS Manual Start Switches – Brings up Engine Page on ECAMSD – Closes Pack Valves

Question 89

What conditions must be met to ARM the AUTO THRUST?

Answer 89

– Need At least one Flight Director – Thrust Lever Needs To be in CL Detent – A/THR is ARMED at FLEX/MCT or higher

Question 90

What sections of the engines do the Fire Loops monitor?

Answer 90

– Pylon – Core – Nacelle i. 2 LOOPS A & B BOTH HAVE TO AGREE ON INDICATION TO GIVE YOU A FIRE WARNING

Question 91

What happens when the pilot pushes the Engine fire Pushbutton

Answer 91

– ARMS Squib/CRC Silenced – Closes HYD FIRE shutoff valve – Closes LP Fuel Valve and Closes IDG Return Valve (De-energizes FADEC) – De-Activates Generator – Closes Engine Bleed Valve and Pack Valve

Question 92

What happens when the pilot pushes the APU fire Pushbutton? (2-0-2-1-2)

Answer 92

– ARMS Squib / CRC Silenced – NO HYD – Closes LP Fuel Valve and Shuts down APU Fuel Pump – De-Activates APU Generator – Closes APU Bleed Valve and X Bleed Valve

Question 93

What BIG systems are on the GREEN HYD Pump?

Answer 93

– Nose-wheel Steering – Landing Gear Extension/Retraction – Reverser #1 – Normal/Auto-brakes

Question 94

What BIG systems are on the YELLOW HYD Pump?

Answer 94

– Nose-wheel Steering (Some Airplanes) – Parking and Alternate Brakes – Thrust Reverser #2 – Cargo Doors

Question 95

When does the PTU run?

Answer 95

It runs with a difference of 500 PSI between the YELLOW and GREEN HYD Systems

Question 96

When Is the PTU inhibited? (Revised 1/27/2023)

Answer 96

PB is selected off. 40 seconds after The cargo door is opened, or closed. One engine master switch on & Tow Pin installed. One engine master switch on & parking brake set.

Question 97

When do WING TIP BRAKES Turn on?

Answer 97

– Flap Slat Asymmetry – Flap Overspeed (Flaps Moving TOO Fast) – Un-commanded Flap or Slat Movement

Question 98

White lines across the Captains PFD, ND and E/WD, what does it mean?

Answer 98

Failure of DMC #1 Captains screens are BROKE! (PFD, ND and E/WD) restored by selecting the EIS DMC switch on the center pedestal to CAPT 3

Question 99

What procedures for high humidity and heavy rain environments?

Answer 99

Avoid getting moisture in Avionics Bay: 1) EXTRACT FAN should be placed in OVRD. 2) PACKS ON / APU BLEED ON takeoff (planned using PACKS OFF performance) Notes: EXTRAC FAN to OVRD position closes the avionics ventilation system, preventing rainwater/moisture from entering the avionics compartment. c. Leaving the Packs on APU bleed adds air from the air conditioning system to avionics compartment to be cooled dried in the closed configuration on the ground when needed.

Question 100

What happens when you turn the APU MASTER switch on?

Answer 100

– Power the ECB (Electronic Control Box) – Pressurizing theAPU fuel pump if required – Opens APU Flap/Inlet – Brings Up APU ECAM Page

Question 101

What Automatically Inhibits the PTU? 4

Answer 101

– Engine Master Switches mismatched (one is selected off the other is on) with parking brake set – Engine Master Switches mismatched with tow pin installed – During cargo door operations + 40 seconds - PB is selected off

Question 102

What items are checked when the pilot presses the T.O Config test?

Answer 102

– Rudder Trim in T/O range – Pitch Trim in T/O range – Flaps in T/O range – Speed Brakes retracted – Slats in T/O range – L or R side stick faults – Door – HotBrakes

Question 103

When does the “T.O INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?

Answer 103

It appears when the first engine reaches T.O Power and remains active until the aircraft reaches 1500ft or 2 minutes after lift off which ever comes first. This inhibits the aircraft from distracting the pilot with anything other than critical failures during high workload phases of flight

Question 104

When does the “LDG INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?

Answer 104

It appears at 800ft on landing and remains active until the aircraft slows to below 80kts on the runway after landing.

Question 105

How many protections per each Law are there? Normal, alternate, abnormal, direct.

Answer 105

Normal = 6 Alternate = 4 Abnormal = 2 Direct = 0

Question 106

Explain Flight control laws with BYPALS

Answer 106

Bank Yaw Pitch Angle Load Factor Speed

Question 107

Explain 3585

Answer 107

An exemption used to dispatch a flight to a destination that has conditional remarks that are lower than CAT I landing minimums. No International Must have two alternates

Question 108

Why will RAT auto deploy?

Answer 108

Both AC Busses Fail

Question 109

The RAT powers the ______________ Hydraulic system. Can the RAT run another hydraulic system?

Answer 109

BLUE SYSTEM. Only If your blue Hydraulic system is broken, the RAT IS USELESS!!!

Question 110

How long does it take the RAT to deploy?

Answer 110

8 Seconds. Momentary Fault on RAT and Emer Gen push button.

Question 111

When on EMERGENCY electrical power from RAT, how many screens do you have? What about Battery power?

Answer 111

RAT Fully Functioning (> 140 kts): 4 Screens CA PFD, ND, E/WD, MCDU 125 Knots (100 - 140 kts) RAT STALLS: YOU HAVE - CA PFD & E/WD 100 KTS - DC BATT bus connects 50 KTS - all screens shut off and AC ESS BUS sheds (VHF#1 Available)

Question 112

Explain Basic RAT landing Synopsis

Answer 112

RAT Fully Functioning (> 140 kts): 4 Screens CA PFD, ND, E/WD, MCDU 125 Knots (100 - 140 kts) RAT STALLS: YOU HAVE - CA PFD & E/WD 100 KTS - DC BATT bus connects 50 KTS - all screens shut off and AC ESS BUS sheds (VHF#1 Available)

Question 113

How do you check the Battery Voltage?

Answer 113

Batteries must be off. This opens line contractor so batteries don't charge, so you see their charge.

Question 114

Battery PB Fault

Answer 114

charging current is outside of limits. battery line contactor opens

Question 115

GEN Fault Light?

Answer 115

- Line Contactor Tripped OR - GCU Tripped

Question 116

Simple APU Starter Sequence.

Answer 116

Three starts then 60 minute wait.

Question 117

Max APU start with Battery

Answer 117

25,000

Question 118

FMA - Blue, green and White are?

Answer 118

Blue is Armed Green (Vertical Lateral) and White are Active

Question 119

If you're starting an engine, and you have an electrical Interruption:

Answer 119

Abort Start, Master off Eng selector..........Crank MAN start.......On

Question 120

If you test APU FIRE with only battery, what lights?

Answer 120

2 -Fire PB (only two lights) -Squib/DISC Light

Question 121

Fuel Tank Priority for center tanks and inner tank

Answer 121

Burns center tank first. When Center Fuel Tank hits 550lbs, the pumps continue for five minutes. (Which is about 500lbs) When either of the Inner fuel tanks reach 1650lbs The outer tanks are drained (Jet Pump) into the inner pumps. The inner wing tanks will fill up (1650lbs to 6,000 or whatever is available)

Question 122

Fault on Center Tank Mode Selector means.

Answer 122

More than 550lbs in Center Tank AND < 11,000lbs in a wing Tank.

Question 123

When can the CRC NOT be cancelled? GOS

Answer 123

Gear not down below 750' Over speed Stall

Question 124

APU Start Sequence (EFFFE)

Answer 124

ECB (electronic control box) Self Test Flap Opens Fuel Pump Fuel Isolation Valve opens ECAM APU Page opens

Question 125

APU AVAIL When?

Answer 125

95% + 2 Seconds or 99%

Question 126

ENG START FAULT =

Answer 126

1) Aborted Start (FADEC) 2) Fuel Valve Position Disagreement

Question 127

FUEL Center Tank -Mode Selector FAULT -WHEN DO CENTER TANK PUMPS RUN?

Answer 127

FAULT = 550lbs center tank with less than 11,000lbs in an outboard tank. *PUMPS RUN AFTER ENG START for 2 MINUTES *IF SLATS ARE RETRACTED *550 lbs in Center Tank then + 5 Minutes

Question 128

ENG BLEED PB FAULT (loosa) APU BLEED FAULT

Answer 128

L eak O ver Pressure O ver Temperature S tarting Engine with Valve Open A PU Bleed open with Eng Bleed Valve open Startin Eng Valve Open = If the Eng Bleed Valve is open, the air being used to start the Engine will move into the engine and out the Bleed into the system. This makes it impossible to build up air pressure to start the engine) APU BLEED OPEN With Eng Bleed open. The two sources will be pushing against each other. APU bleed fault = Leak

Question 129

FAULT LIGHT EXTRACTOR AND BLOWER (SACO)

Answer 129

Smoke Air pressure low Computer Fault Overheat (Extract DOESNT have OverHeat)

Question 130

Explain the Significant Altitudes for rising cabin pressure. When do pax O2 masks drop?

Answer 130

Normal cabin max 8000 Advisory 8800 Warning 9550 Cabin signs come on 11300 Pax Masks deploy auto 14,000 Outflow Valves close 15,000

Question 131

What is the procedure for removing ice build up during taxi from the engines?

Answer 131

Rev up engines to 70% N1 for 30 seconds. Also do this just before take off. VOL2 5.45 page 7

Question 132

When is Alpha Floor protection Active?

Answer 132

Above 100' RA. If below that it ain't gonna help you

Question 133

What speed is the landing gear inhibited from extending?

Answer 133

Above 260 kts. Hydraulic is cut off

Question 134

How many turns to manually extend the gear and what happens for each turn?

Answer 134

Three 1) Turns off the green Hydraulic system 2) Opens gear bay doors 3) Drops the gear

Question 135

What speed is the landing gear extend inhibited? What's max speeds?

Answer 135

Landing gear will not extend above 260 knots Extension = 250 Retraction = 220 Max Gear speed = 280 or Mach .67

Question 136

How many brake applications from accumulator? What system? How long will the accumulator hold the parking break?

Answer 136

7 applications Yellow 12 hours

Question 137

When will auto break work?

Answer 137

They are commanded ON from the Ground Spoilers.... The Ground spoilers will not deploy below 72 knots. SO on an RTO, If you're below 72 kts Autobreak will not function

Question 138

When are the Speed Breaks inhibited?

Answer 138

SEAFAT SEC 1 AND 3 fault Elevator L or R fault Alpha Protection active Flaps Full Alpha Floor active Thrust Levers >MCT

Question 139

What is ? (Revised 1/27/2023) Alpha Prot Alpha Floor Alpha Max

Answer 139

Alpha Prot: Low speed range. This is the “tiger tail”. Provides protections. Bank, Pitch is taken over and will keep AOA from stalling. Only works above 100 FEET RA Alpha FLOOR: is a speed that is in the alpha protection range, and is calculated by the airplane. If you reach alpha floor, TOGA THRUST is added. TOGA lock occurs. Alpha Max: Is basically a stall.

Question 140

What is ADIRS?

Answer 140

Air Data Reference is information based on barometric pressure, AOA, airspeed Inertial Reference is information based on Inertial Parameters from laser gyros.

Question 141

What's optimized V2

Answer 141

Procedure of increasing Take Off V speeds when you have a super long runway to increase payload and fuel efficiency. (Still looks at all parameters i.e. Obstacles...)

Question 142

When do we apply SAFO

Answer 142

When we get landing data out of the QRH...... SAFO: add 15% (Rnwy_____ times 1.15 = ______ plus 500) and 500’ to the Landing Runway

Question 143

What do you need for a fully functioning Normal Law Airplane?

Answer 143

Electrics and Hydraulics

Question 144

How do you go from normal law to Alternate Law?

Answer 144

Multiple failures of redundant systems OR Abnormal upset

Question 145

What protections do you loose in Alternate Law?

Answer 145

(Sidestick) -Bank -Pitch -AOA protections (like Alpha Floor),(you still have stall warning and VLS) -High Speed

Question 146

How do you get from Alternate Law to Direct Law?

Answer 146

Turn the Autopilot Off (Gear Down)

Question 147

AOA protection range is what and what happens?

Answer 147

ALPHA FLOOR AOA protection range is the “Tiger Tail” The airplane will start automatically imposing ways to keep the airplane safe. Such as reducing bank and pitch..

Question 148

Explain the fuel burn process

Answer 148

Center tanks burn first until 550 lbs. and five minutes. unless slats extended... Outer tanks flow into inner wing tanks when inner tanks reach 1650lbs

Question 149

How do you get out of toga lock

Answer 149

Match Auto thrust and mash the disconnect button

Question 150

Low Speed Protections. Alpha Prot

Answer 150

BASAP Bank <45° AP Off Speed Brakes retract AOA instead of G load Pitch up trim inhibited

Question 151

High speed protections

Answer 151

BASN Bank <45° AP disconnects Seeks wings level Nose up

Question 152

Reactive Windshear is active when?

Answer 152

3 seconds after Take Off to 1300’ AGL Landing 1300’ to 50’

Question 153

Predictive Windshear is active when

Answer 153

Taxi-100 kts 50’ - 2300’AGL for Takeoff and Landing

Question 154

When are Speed Brakes inhibited

Answer 154

SEAFAT— SEC 1 AND 3 fault Elevator L or R fault Alpha Protection active Flaps Full Alpha Floor active Thrust Levers >MC

Question 155

When in Alpha Lock, you try to put the flaps up.....

Answer 155

The flaps will retract to zero,but the slats will stay at one.

Question 156

Will deploying the RAT from the Hydraulic panel run the Blue Hydraulic Electrical generator?

Answer 156

NO

Question 157

What does DECEL on landing mean?

Answer 157

Slowing at least 80% of target

Question 158

GEN 1 LINE Pushbutton Smoke (amber) and Off?

Answer 158

SMOKE: smoke detected in avionics bay OFF: Disconnects Generator 1 from AC BUS 1. A fuel pump in each wing Tank is powered by Generator one. AC BUS 1 powered by Gen 2...

Question 159

When does the RAT Deploy?

Answer 159

AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and speed >100 knots

Question 160

How is the aircraft position determined?

Answer 160

IRUs back up by the GPS! Plus ground based navaids. All compiled to give airplane position.

Question 161

Do you have anti-skid if you loose normal braking

Answer 161

Yes, provided the anti-skid switch is on. And BSCU works.. There’s an Alternate way valves. Normal braking is on green. Alternate is yellow

Question 162

IDG fuel return line draws fuel from, and returns to?

Answer 162

Fuel is drawn from the onside engine’s fuel manifold that comes from the inner wing tank. The fuel is utilized for fuel oil heat exchanger, and returned to the outer wing tank.

Question 163

What Protections are given in Alternate Law?

Answer 163

Alternate Law: 4 B Yaw Damp only P AOA Vls and Vsw (Stall Warning) Load Factor same as Normal Law Speed Protections will Vary

Question 164

What Hydraulic PSI is guaranteed with the RAT?

Answer 164

2500 PSI

Question 165

Low Speed Protections (Alpha Prot)

Answer 165

B ank 45° limited A P disconnects S peed brake retract A oa instead of load factor P itch up trim inhibited

Question 166

High Speed Protections (BAWN)

Answer 166

B ank limited 40° A P disconnect W ings level N ose up movement

Question 167

When does the pitch trim go to zero?

Answer 167

During landing the airplane goes into ground mode. Ground mode signals the pitch trim to auto trim to zero. Remember: Ground Mode > Flight Mode > Flare Mode > Ground Mode > Flight..

Question 168

Which Spoilers are “Ground Spoilers”

Answer 168

All...... 1-5

Question 169

Protections given in Direct Law?

Answer 169

AOA = Vls and Vsw Speed = Aural Warning Overspeed

Question 170

Explain Offline Charter Alternate

Answer 170

We need an alternate if we fly to an offline charter airport that is not in our AIP blue pages. AKA regularly fly to

Question 171

Where is the overweight landing tab and the unreliable airspeed In the QRH

Answer 171

Overweight is a few pages in front of the blue tab.... The unreliable speed AB 34 NAV

Question 172

What is required for an RNAV Departure? VOL I

Answer 172

RNAV capable (1.0)(NM) Retrievable in Database (FMS) must fly LNAV guidance with FD and or AutoPilot LNAV guidance must be flown by 500’ AGL

Question 173

Some MELs say to check the CFDS for warnings.. What is this?

Answer 173

The CDFS is the centralized fault display system, that can be found on the ATSU menu

Question 174

Can we be dispatched without gps?

Answer 174

No. We have an agreement with ATC requiring us to have at least one GPS

Question 175

What is RNAV1? Where can we find this?

Answer 175

RNAV1 signifies the SID or STAR requires better than 1 mile accuracy. This is found in the notes on the specific SID or STAR.

Question 176

ADIRUs be off for >___ for a full alignment? Quick Align? how long does a full alignment take? When do we need to do a full alignment? (Checked February 11, 2023)

Answer 176

Greater than 5 seconds for a full alignment. quick alignment is ADIRU is selected off then on in less then 5 seconds. Full Alignment Takes 10 minutes FIGCC First flight of the day Intl & Alaska GPS N/A and flight > 3 hours Crew change Class II

Question 177

Engine Failure at cruise! What do you do?

Answer 177

MCT thrust Auto thrust off Fly Green Dot Check MCDU for optimum altitude Set that altitude Advise ATC, SOC Land at nearest suitable airport with good weather.

Question 178

Auto lands are prohibited when?

Answer 178

Braking action less than medium

Question 179

Is the TLR required?

Answer 179

No… IF you have AWP. But yes, if there is a special runway entry code or special NOTAMs for runways

Question 180

What paperwork do you need prior to block out?

Answer 180

From the release you need the flight plan, the TLR or AWP, Weather, notams, and the rampers will give you the weight and balance manifest.

Question 181

You start engine #1 at the gate with air cart. Ramp crew loads another bag and closes the cargo door. They say you’re clear on number two engine. Why would you not want to start the engine immediately?

Answer 181

Because operation of the cargo door inhibits the PTU from the time the cargo door moves, until 40 seconds after cargo door operation. The PTU always does a self test during 2nd engine start. So, if the PTU is still inhibited from cargo door operation, and you attempt to start the second engine within 40 seconds, the PTU test will fail. You’ll get an ECAM.

Question 182

Explain our job for the security sweep? (1/27/2023)

Answer 182

In the past we were to verify the security sweep was done before first flight of the day and international flights. BUT The pilots no longer have any responsibility over the security sweep. If the paper is in the cockpit, you can sign it. But it’s not your responsibility.

Question 183

If you forget to arm the spoilers before takeoff, and you have an RTO, Will the ground spoilers still deploy?

Answer 183

#1: do you take off configuration button will yell at you. So it’s hard to take off without the spoilers armed. #2: even with the spoilers not armed, the ground spoilers will deploy if at least one engine is in reverse thrust.

Question 184

ELAC quantity and duties

Answer 184

ELAC: 2 Pitch (Elevator control) Abnormal Attitude Roll Autopilot Orders Aileron Control and Droop

Question 185

SEC quantity and functions

Answer 185

SEC: 3 Pitch (Elevator Control) Abnormal Attitude Roll Spoilers Speed brake

Question 186

When must you hear “100 above”?

Answer 186

On every approach with minimums. You must hear or say “100 above” and PF response must be “checked”

Question 187

What provides the function and when? Reactive Windshear Predictive Windshear

Answer 187

Reactive Windshear is computed by the FAC and AOA. it is active from lift off until 1300 feet AGL, and then 1,300’ agl to 50’ agl Predictive Windshear is driven by our predictive windshield radar. It is active on takeoff up to 2300 feet AGL and on landing, 2,300’ until 50 feet AGL