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Vol 1 and MEL Flashcards

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1
Q

Approx. APU fuel burn supplying air conditioning and electric

A

275 pph

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2
Q

Are non-revenue passengers permitted on repo flights?

A

Yes.
* Captain-approved
* Names to SOC/DISP

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3
Q

“Cabin Advisory”
vs.
“Emergency Prep”

A

Will the passengers need to brace or evacuate?

Yes - Emer Prep.
No - Cabin Advisory

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4
Q

Can F9 mechanics sit on the flight deck jumseat for travel?

A

Yes, but must be “on duty.”

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5
Q

Can the APU be started/used while refueling?

A

Yes, but avoid electrical power transfers.

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6
Q

Can the flight crew accept an RNAV SID/STAR or RNAV approach if both GPS’s are unavailable (e.g. MEL’d)

A

Yes. You can use GPS or DME/DME/IRU for RNAV 1 procedures.

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7
Q

Can the flight crew takeoff if the holdover time expires for Heavy Snow conditions?

A

No. because no holdover time exists for Heavy snow. Therefore, the flight crew must perform the pre-takeoff contamination check within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for TO.

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8
Q

Can we do visual approaches in international airspace?

A

No. Request VMC approach.

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9
Q

CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List. Allows for continued ops with missing secondary airframe and engine parts.

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10
Q

Describe a Cold Temp restricted Airport

A

Airports in which cold temp corrections have to be made to an approach when the temperature is outside the published values.

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11
Q

Emergency Prep items
(T.E.S.T.)

A
  • Type of Emergency
  • Evacuation Needed?
  • Signals? (Brace x3, Remain Seated x3, Evacuate x3)
  • Time remaining?
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12
Q

Explain how to Derive ALT minimums
[*add exception]

A
  • Airports with at least 1 operational NAV facility providing:
    1. Straight-in non-precision approach procedure, or
    2. Cat 1 Precision approach, or
    3. Circling maneuver from an IAP.

ADD 400ft & 1SM

  • Airports with at least 2 operational NAV facilities, each providing a straight-in approach procedure to different suitable runways.

ADD 200ft to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches
& 1/2SM to the higher approaches.

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13
Q

High Mins Captain
(Definition and Limitations)

A
  • < 100 PIC in type at F9
  • Add 100 ft and 1/2 sm to pub mins
  • CAT 3 approach prohibited
  • Exemption 21515 is the actual limit
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14
Q

How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispatched via method two?

A

Terrain analysis common aircraft weights checklist

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15
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?

A

Use EMERG Call button

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16
Q

How far can the SLOP deviation off centerline and which side of course should the offset be?

A

1 or 2NM to the right of center line relative to the direction of flight.

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17
Q

How long does a flight crew have to submit an incident report?

A

36 hours

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18
Q

How many hours of rest for a consecutive work week of 168 hours? (7 days)

A

30 hours

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19
Q

How many hours of rest is required b/w flight duty or reserve availability periods? How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity is required?

A

10 hours b/w flight duty or reserve availability.

10 hours of rest must include 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity.

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20
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

A

Two

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21
Q

How much flight time does RESERVE fuel allow for?

A

45 minutes.

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22
Q

How much fuel is required prior to departure?

A

Fly to airport of dispatch, thereafter; to fly to most distant alternate, thereafter; to fly 45 minutes at flight plan cruise altitude.

Must consider:
1. 1 instrument approach and possible missed approach at DEST.
2. Wind and other weather conditions
3. Known delays
4. Increased fuel consumptions for high speeds.

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23
Q

How must an approach be conducted when the visibility is 1/2 mi / 2400 RVR or less?

A

Auto-land must be conducted if available. You can use 1800 CAT I mins if no auto-land available

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24
Q

If an international flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?

A

A permit to proceed.

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25
If no fuel slip, or fuel reliability is not accurate, can we still depart?
Yes, as long as FOB is not less than 500lbs from the release fuel.
26
If the holdover time expires may the flight crew takeoff?
Yes, as long as the A/C passes the pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check) within 5 minutes of advancing the trust levers for TO.
27
If there are no published TO mins, what mins should be used?
Nothing lower than the OPS Spec C078.
28
IRS only A/C can maintain RNP of 10 or better for how long?
6.2 hours
29
Is deicing with the flaps/slats extended permitted? Is anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended permitted?
**Deice - Yes** **Anti-ice - No**
30
Is F9 allowed to depart VFR and pick up IFR clearance?
Yes, under certain weather conditions and IFR clearance is obtained no further than 50 miles from airport.
31
Is operation of the A/C under its own power permitted on any surface if braking action is NIL?
NO
32
Less than 100 hrs First Officer limits?
Captain must make all takeoffs and landings if: 1. below 4000 RVR or 3/4 sm 3. Contaminated runway 4. Braking action less than GOOD 5. Crosswind over 15 kts 6. Wind shear 7. Special Airport 8. Captain deems it prudent
33
Logbook entries that require the Captain Signature?
1. Computer Reset 2. Flight Crew Placard 3. Follow Up Required
34
What should you do in the event of a lost certificate?
FAA website for a temporary authority. Only good for 60 days
35
May direct clearances off the flight planned route be accepted during class 2 operations?
Yes if: - GPS Primary or NAV ACCURACY HIGH - Course and Distance appear reasonable. - Abeam points are selected for fuel scoring.
36
**MEL Category Timelines**
A - Specified time per the MEL B - 3 Consecutive calendar days C - 10 Consecutive calendar days D - 120 Consecutive calendar days
37
**Method 1** vs **Method 2**
Dispatch functions **Method 1** * Failure anywhere from V1 to dest * Terrain clearance 1,000ft and 5sm **Method 2** * Failure enroute * Divert to suitable airport * Terrain clearance of 2,000ft and 5sm
38
**Reasons for ARTR** SHAFT Me Mi Capt
* Supplemental Ops Crew Change * 1hr after release (block out) * Alternate changed or added * Fuel add > 1,000# or < BRF * Takeoff Alternate needed * MEL/CDL/NEF removed or added * > 100 mile route incr. prior to takeoff * Captain change after accepting release
39
RNAV 1 & 2
Total system error of not more than 1NM & 2NM for 95% of the total flight time.
40
RNP 10
50nm separation laterally over specified areas. With 10 nm system cross-track error of 10nm or less for 95%.
41
RNP 10 Equipment Needs
- 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 IRS - 2 ND
42
Standard Strategy vs. Obstacle Strategy
**Standard** Pull Speed M.78/300kts Set MCT **Obstacle** Pull Speed Green Dot
43
**Takeoff Alternate requirements?**
* Required when wx below CAT 1 landing mins * Max time 1h:00m * Max distance of 330 nm
44
**The Captain may deny flight deck access to any person, with the exception of?**
* FAA air carrier inspector * DOD evaluator * U.S. Secret service agent * A representative of the NTSB
45
**Ways to get a valid W&B?**
* AWP Solution (primary) * AeroData cFDP app * Call Load Planning
46
**What aircraft logbook entries are permitted by the flight crew?**
- Discrepency - FCP - System Reset - Follow-up required - Overweight landing
47
What are 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?
A. Must be retrieved from Nav Database B. Must use FD or AP in LNAV C. Cross track error limited to 0.5 NM D. Must be able to engage RNAV no later than 500ft above airport elevation.
48
What are standard TO minimums?
VIS. 1sm or 5000RVR
49
What are the 3 color types of deferral placards?
MEL/CDL/Info Only - Orange MEL/CDL - FR - Green NEF - Pink
50
**What are the 4 threat levels?**
1. Verbal 2. Physical 3. Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury 4. Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck.
51
**What are the Captain’s 2 primary responsibilities regarding armed individuals?**
* All crew members are aware * All armed individuals are aware
52
**What are the requirements to fly into "Special Airports"?**
**Previous 12 calendar months:** * CA or FO operated (T/O and LDG) that airport **[OR]** * CA qualifies by pictorial means for the airport
53
**What does ALTN fuel on flight plan consist of?**
* Climb to cruise * Most distant alternate * One approach and landing
54
What does EXTRA fuel mean?
Extended TAXI time possibilities.
55
What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?
Dispatch Release Flight Plan Latest available weather and forecast NOTAM's Performance Info Weight and Balance Manifest
56
**What is a tarmac delay?**
Elapsed time on the ground without opportunity to deplane. * Max 3 hours for Domestic flights * Max 4 hours for international flights.
57
What is considered severe icing?
Rate of accumulation of ice, where deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard.
58
What is standard hold?
Right turns with 1 min legs.
59
**What is the definition of Marginal Weather?**
Ceiling is within 100 ft or visibility is within 1/2 sm of minimums.
60
What is the lost comm procedure?
Transponder - 7600 Squawk Visual Conditions - If failed during VMC, maintain VFR Instrument Conditions - If you cannot maintain VMC. Then: - Route: Last assigned route - Altitude: Last assigned in the clearance; min for IFR operations. - Leave clearance limit: As close to ETA from flight plan.
61
What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?
500/500/500 HIRL and CL lights
62
**What is the procedure for missing logbook pages?**
* Enter discrepancy in logbook * Call MCC through Dispatch
63
**What is the purpose of the FA whistle?**
Indicate a threat level 2, 3 or 4 situation
64
What is the required aircraft equipment to dispatch a flight from the United States to an international destination? What about to be dispatched to the USA?
- APU (no longer) - GPWS - TCAS - ACARS
65
**What time zone is the aircraft logbook in?**
Denver Time
66
**What types/colors of de-ice/anti-ice fluid does F9 use?**
* Type 1 - De-ice Orange (remove) * Type 2 - Anti-Ice Green (prevent) * Type 3 - F9 DOES NOT USE * Type 4 - Anti-Ice Green (heavy)
67
When are allowance times used versus holdover times?
- Allowance times are used in conditions involving ice pellets. - Holdover times are used in conditions involving frost, ice, or snow.
68
When are radio reports always required? (Name a couple)
1. Deviation from an ATC clearance 2. When vacating a previously assigned ALT or FL for a new ALT. 3. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500ft/min. 4. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point. 5. Weather encounters 6. Any malfunction of communication, navigational equipment.
69
**When are security searches required?**
- First flight of day - International flights - Private charters and return to 121
70
**When are system resets by flight crew authorized?**
* QRH * FOM VOL2 * MX Manual via MCC
71
When do "Braking Action Advisories" go into effect?
1. When tower controllers receive runway braking action reports which include the terms poor or nil. 2. Whenever weather conditions are conductive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions.
72
When does a TLR become invalid?
0.10" QNH below
73
When does SMGCS go into effect?
When RVR is 1200ft or less.
74
**When is an A/P coupled approach required?**
* < 4000 RVR or 3/4 VIS * A/P functional
75
**When is an ALTERNATE required?**
* 1hr before/after WX below * 2,000 ft AGL * 3 sm * Ex. 20295 Reduced ceiling/vis * Ex. 20144 BECMG / TEMPO * Exemptions for domestic only --- * Marginal Weather * Flag Operations * International > 6 hrs * Supplemental * Method 2 * Severe Icing
76
**When is the crew briefing required?**
1. When practicable 2. First flight of the day. 3. Crew changes occurs during the duty day
77
**When may we fly to a published MDA?**
Never, a DDA must be utilized when a MDA is published (Monkey Do Add 50ft).
78
**When must the pilots DON and use the O2 masks?**
Cabin press above 10,000ft
79
**Who can occupy the flight deck jumpseat on international flights?**
Only F9 employees with ACM on ID.
80
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?
The CRO. Although the captain retains final authority, the recommendation of the CRO must be carefully considered. Reasoning must be clearly documented.
81
**Who has the authority to cancel a flight**
Only SOC (Systems Operations Control) has the authority to cancel a flight.
82
**Who must fill out the "Notice to Armed Individual" form?**
LEOs. FAMs and FFDO's are not required.
83
Who normally makes the decision to permit passengers to disembark after diverting to an alternate airport?
SOC. If SOC is not available to make the decision, the captain may choose to deplane passengers once the conditions for allowing passengers to disembark in VOL 1 45.30 have been considered.
84
**If the engines and/or landing gear need to be deiced what actions must be taken?**
* Logbook entry * Call MCC
85
**How must the flaps and slats be set for deicing/anti-icing?**
* May be deiced with Flaps/Slats extended * Flaps/slats retracted prior to Anti-icing
86
**Who is PF on the ground?**
Captain is always PF on the ground for the purpose of ECAM actions.
87
**What is the difference betweeen Standard, Special, and Complex Special EOPs?**
Standard: 1,000’ AFE, then EOP Simple Special: Turn prior to 1,000’ AFE Complex Special: Follow EOSID
88
**Which Class 2 Maintenance messages must be addressed immediately?**
AIR BLEED DFDR ACCEL

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