Vol 1 URE Flashcards by Brandon McAndrew

(001) which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

a. Indicates resource constraints.
b. Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).
c. Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.
d. Identifies duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path.

c. Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.

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(001) which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

a. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
b. Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
c. Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153.
d. Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.

a. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.

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(002) which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

a. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
b. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
c. Spectrum Operations (3D1X2).
d. Cyber Surety (3D0X3).

b. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

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(002) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

a. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
b. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
c. Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
d. Client Systems (3D1X1).

b. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

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(003) What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

a. Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
b. Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
c. Job safety training outline (JSTO).
d. Job safety training instruction (JSTI).

c. Job safety training outline (JSTO).

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(003) Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

a. 1118.
b. 457.
c. 55.
d. 3.

b. 457.

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(004) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

a. Biological.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Stress.

d. Stress.

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(004) Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

a. Ground safety program.
b. Hazard reporting program.
c. Hazard communication program.
d. Ground safety mishap prevention program.

b. Hazard reporting program.

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(004) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

a. 25.
b. 50.
c. 75.
d. 100.

a. 25.

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(004) The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is

a. 100 mA.
b. 75 mA.
c. 50 mA.
d. 25 mA.

c. 50 mA.

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(004) within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation Overexposure occurs?

a. 24.
b. 48.
c. 72.
d. 96.

c. 72.

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(005) Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

a. TO 31–20 series.
b. TO 61–20 series.
c. TO 31–10 series.
d. TO 61–10 series.

c. TO 31–10 series.

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(005) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

a. Lower.
b. Upper.
c. Right.
d. Left.

b. Upper.

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(005) Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

a. Minimize transmission loss.
b. To aid in troubleshooting.
c. Reduce potential damage.
d. Prevent eavesdropping.

a. Minimize transmission loss.

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(005) How are connectorized cables labeled?

a. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
b. The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
c. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

d. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

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(005) Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

a. Adhesive.
b. Special foil.
c. Cable sheath.
d. Heat shrink tubing.

b. Special foil.

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(006) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

a. Supervisor.
b. Job control.
c. Commander.
d. Flight commander/chief.

d. Flight commander/chief.

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(007) What are the three main functions of grounding?

a. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
b. Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
c. Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
d. Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.

a. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

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(007) The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

a. earth electrode.
b. fault protection.
c. signal reference.
d. lightning protection.

d. lightning protection.

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(008) What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

a. Bonding.
b. Shielding.
c. Annealing.
d. Grounding.

a. Bonding.

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(009) The RED designation is used for equipment processing

a. unencrypted unclassified information.
b. clear-text unclassified information.
c. encrypted classified information.
d. clear-text classified information.

d. clear-text classified information.

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(010) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.

a. Class I.

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(010) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

a. Working at a bench.
b. Walking across carpet.
c. Walking across a vinyl floor.
d. Picking up a common plastic bag.

b. Walking across carpet.

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(011) Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?

a. Secondary.
b. Radiated.
c. Plasma.
d. Source.

d. Source.

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25. (011) What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected? a. Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns. b. Plasma; antennas and bore site feedhorns. c. Secondary; cables and ground wires. d. Source; cables and ground wires.

c. Secondary; cables and ground wires.

26. (011) Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding? a. Cables should be of unshielded construction. b. Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls. c. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier. d. All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.

c. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

27. (012) Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates a. enemy jamming. b. internal interference. c. radio receiver trouble. d. unintentional interference.

a. enemy jamming.

28. (012) What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions? a. Slow tuning receiver. b. Rapid tuning receiver. c. Slow tuning transmitter. d. Rapid tuning transmitter.

d. Rapid tuning transmitter.

29. (012) What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges? a. Relays. b. Lighting. c. Power line. d. Switching equipment.

c. Power line.

30. (012) Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders? a. The operator. b. Joint Spectrum Center. c. Installation spectrum manager. d. Federal Communications Commission.

b. Joint Spectrum Center.

31. (013) who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation? a. Information security officer (IAO). b. Wing information assurance office (WIAO). c. Information security program manager (ISPM). d. Communications and information system officer (CSO).

b. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

32. (013) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations? a. Distance and angles. b. Distance and separation. c. Induction and grounding. d. Induction and impedance.

a. Distance and angles.

33. (014) What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect? a. Nickel cadmium. b. Carbon zinc. c. Lead-acid. d. Lithium.

a. Nickel cadmium.

34. (015) What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels? a. Sag. b. Spike. c. Noise. d. Blackout.

a. Sag.

35. (015) What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power? a. Sag. b. Spike. c. Noise. d. Blackout.

d. Blackout.

36. (015) What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)? a. Sag. b. Spike. c. Noise. d. Blackout.

c. Noise.

37. (015) What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians? a. Passive standby. b. Line interactive. c. Double conversion. d. Ferro resonant standby.

a. Passive standby.

38. (015) What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power? a. Passive standby. b. Line interactive. c. Double conversion. d. Ferro resonant standby.

b. Line interactive.

39. (015) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications? a. Single. b. Double. c. Three. d. Four.

c. Three.

40. (016) What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today? a. Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying. b. Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position. c. Amplitude, frequency, and phase. d. Analog, digital and shift keying.

a. Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.

41. (017) When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains a. modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband. b. carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband. c. upper sideband and modulating signal. d. carrier and modulating signal.

d. carrier and modulating signal.

42. (017) What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? a. Amplitude of the modulating signal. b. Frequency of the modulating signal. c. Amplitude of the carrier signal. d. Frequency of the carrier signal.

b. Frequency of the modulating signal.

43. (017) The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the a. percent of modulation. b. modulation index. c. bandwidth. d. deviation.

a. percent of modulation.

44. (017) Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives a. more total power. b. a reduction in carrier power. c. no reduction in carrier power. d. a reduction in carrier and sideband power.

d. a reduction in carrier and sideband power.

45. (018) The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each a. positive half cycle of the carrier. b. negative half cycle of the carrier. c. positive half cycle of the modulating signal. d. negative half cycle of the modulating signal.

c. positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

46. (018) A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index? a. 5. b. 3. c. 0.5. d. 0.3.

b. 3.

47. (018) What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping? a. Space. b. Guard band. c. Buffer zone. d. Prevention field.

b. Guard band.

48. (019) What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts? a. Easier detection. b. Smaller bit error rate. c. Better signal-to-noise ratio. d. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

d. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

49. (020) What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process? a. Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses. b. A binary code number is assigned to the sample. c. The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses. d. The analog signal is band limited.

d. The analog signal is band limited.

50. (020) Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is a. converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal. b. ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency. c. placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values. d. limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler.

c. placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.

51. (021) In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly? a. Control. b. Parity. c. Start. d. Stop.

b. Parity.

52. (021) If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission? a. One character. b. Block of data. c. A parity bit. d. A stop bit.

b. Block of data.

53. (022) The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines a. parity. b. transmission rate. c. whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous. d. whether transmission is in American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.

a. parity.

54. (022) What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors? a. Longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) and checksum. b. Checksum and cyclic redundancy check (CRC). c. Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and CRC. d. VRC and LRC.

d. VRC and LRC.

55. (022) When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place? a. Receiving end. b. In the oscillator. c. Transmitting end. d. In the primary buffers

a. Receiving end.

56. (023) In telecommunications cable, the “tip” or “primary” wire color group order is a. white, blue, green, yellow, and violet. b. blue, orange, green, brown, and slate. c. white, red, black, yellow, and violet. d. blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.

c. white, red, black, yellow, and violet.

57. (023) Two types of network cables are a. straight through and crossover. b. straight through and flip/flop. c. high and low baud. d. “n” and “g”.

a. straight through and crossover.

58. (024) An optical transmitter is comprised of a. positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiodes. b. repeaters, regenerators, and optical amplifiers. c. a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. d. a light detector and output circuits.

c. a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.

59. (024) What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable? a. 10 MHz – 100 MHz/km. b. 100 MHz – 200 MHz/km. c. 200 MHz – 1000 MHz/km. d. Up to 50 GHz/km.

a. 10 MHz – 100 MHz/km

60. (024) Which type of cable is the hardest to splice? a. Multimode graded-index fiber. b. Multimode step index fiber. c. Unshielded twisted pair. d. Single mode fiber.

d. Single mode fiber.

61. (024) A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a a. pigtail. b. jumper. c. patch cord. d. breakout cables.

c. patch cord.

62. (025) What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link? a. Trunks. b. Frames. c. Links. d. Ports.

a. Trunks

63. (025) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network? a. Bridge. b. Router. c. Gateway. d. Repeater.

b. Router.

64. (025) Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use? a. Open shortest path first (OSPF). b. Border gateway protocol (BGP). c. Routing information protocol (RIP). d. Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP).

b. Border gateway protocol (BGP).

65. (025) Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an a. Department of Defense network. b. Air Force network. c. local area network. d. public network.

d. public network.

66. (025) Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs? a. Manages data transfer across the tunnel. b. Encrypts and decrypts data. c. Establishes tunnels. d. Encapsulates data.

d. Encapsulates data.

67. (026) What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames? a. Pixel. b. Buffer. c. Keyframe. d. Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm.

d. Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm.

68. (027) Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for a. future growth. b. network security. c. remote monitoring. d. network contingencies.

a. future growth.

69. (027) Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command? a. Write. b. Read. c. Trap. d. Get.

d. Get.

70. (028) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? a. Token. b. Biometrics. c. Multifactor. d. Knowledge-based.

b. Biometrics.

71. (028) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? a. Virus. b. Spam. c. Spyware. d. Phishing.

b. Spam.

72. (028) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? a. Patches. b. Antivirus. c. Software removal. d. Vulnerability scanner.

a. Patches.

73. (028) What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment? a. Data encryption. b. Virtual private network. c. Uninterruptible power supply. d. Network management system.

c. Uninterruptible power supply

74. (028) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the a. console port. b. auxiliary port. c. interface ports. d. virtual terminal ports.

b. auxiliary port.

75. (029) When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations? a. Range. b. Frequency. c. Display hold. d. Minimum/maximum.

c. Display hold.

Vol 1 URE Flashcards

(75 cards)