Vol 2 expanded normals Flashcards

1
Q

When doing the preliminary cockpit preparation what items are considered in the emergency equipment?

A
Life Vests stowed 4
Crash axe 1
PBE 1
Portable fire extinguisher 1
Smoke goggles and oxygen mask 4
Flashlights 2
Protective gloves 1
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2
Q

What does an Asterisk * mean on flows and checklists?

A

Asterisk (*) items must be checked/accomplished before EVERY flight. If a crew switches aircraft in the middle of their day, every item must be completed again, as it is now the crew’s “first flight in the new aircraft.”

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3
Q

What FMA changes will be announced below FL 180? How about At and above FL 180?

A

Unless specified otherwise (e.g., CAT II/III task sharing), all FMA changes (i.e., those FMAs surrounded by a white box) will be announced by the PF below FL 180.
At or above FL 180, the Vertical and Lateral Mode changes (i.e., second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced by the PF. The only exceptions are during high workload and critical phases of flight when verbal commands and aircraft control are simply more important than announcing an FMA callout (e.g., Go Around, ATC calls).

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4
Q

When must radio tuning be performed by the pilot monitoring (PM)?

A

The tuning of radios may be accomplished by either pilot. However, radio tuning must be performed by the PM whenever the autopilot is not engaged or whenever below FL 180.

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5
Q

What is RVSM and when does it begin and end?

A

Reduced vertical separation minima or minimum (RVSM) is the reduction, from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet, of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between flight level 290 (29,000 ft) and flight level 410 (41,000 ft).

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6
Q

Is the autopilot required to be engaged during RVSM?

A

An autopilot is required to be operative and engaged during operations in RVSM airspace, except when turbulence or other circumstances require disengagement.
While the autopilot is off, the PF must command the PM to make any automation changes necessary.

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7
Q

May the pilot flying (PF) engage the AP himself?

A

The PF may command the autopilot engagement from the PM or he/she may engage the autopilot themselves.

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8
Q

If the flight directors are engaged while hand flying, must the flight director orders be obeyed?

A

Yes. When the PF hand-flies the aircraft using the flight director, the flight director orders must be obeyed.

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9
Q

Should BOTH flight directors be either ON or OFF? In other words, should one pilot have his FD’s ON, and the other pilot have is FD command bars OFF?

A

Both flight directors should be either ON or OFF. If the PF does not wish to fly the flight director orders, both pilots must turn off their flight directors.

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10
Q

When must the A/THR be disconnected by for a manual thrust landing?

A

If the pilot is going to perform the landing using manual thrust, the PF will advise the PM prior to disconnecting the A/THR and ensure the A/THR is disconnected prior to 1,000 ft AFE.

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11
Q

What are some of the “Rules of the FMGS”?

A

Below FL 180, the PM will perform all MCDU entries
At or above FL 180, the PM will normally perform all MCDU entries
When any route modification is made, the pilot making the change will announce “CONFIRM?” and the other crewmember, once verified, will reply “INSERT” Verify the AP/FD/ATHR modes and engagement status on the FMA
All FMA changes (i.e., white boxed items) will be announced by the PF as defined in Section 3.40 FMA
Monitor the AP/FD/ATHR resulting guidance on the basic flight instrument scales of the PFD (HDG, SPD, ALT, and attitude)
Use extra vigilance during high workload periods or during an ECAM action – The flight crew will be aware of and acknowledge transition or reversion modes (e.g., “triple click”)
If the PF is not satisfied with the guidance, he or she must:
Revert to basics
Fly the aircraft

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12
Q

Are the sidestick inputs added together?

A

Yes. The flight crew should keep in mind that sidestick inputs are algebraically added. However, the inputs combined are never more than max deflection from a single sidestick.

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13
Q

When must the PF guard the flight controls for departure and approach? From when to when?

A

In order to maintain a high level of safety and aircraft control, the PF will: On Departure : “Guard” (i.e., with hands & feet) the controls from the AP engagement to at least the completion of the After Takeoff Checklist. This includes the sidestick, rudder pedals, and thrust levers. On Approach : “Guard” (i.e., with hands & feet) the controls from the FAF to AP disengagement. This includes the sidestick, rudder pedals, and thrust levers. NOTE: The only exception is when the PF must manipulate the FCU to comply with ATC or procedure instructions.

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14
Q

When is the preliminary cockpit preparation performed?

A

Before the application of electrical power, to avoid inadvertent operation of systems and danger to the aircraft and personnel. The procedure also includes APU start, safety checks, system status checks, and the establishment of electrical and pneumatic power.

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15
Q

How many QRHs are required on the aircraft prior to departure?

A

Each aircraft is supplied with two aircraft specific QRHs. The aircraft may operate with a single QRH onboard provided Dispatch is notified. (Dispatch may place a note on the release to alert subsequent crews of a missing QRH. In this case, no additional notification to Dispatch is necessary.) The missing QRH will be replaced by the Technical Publications Department within three days of notification.

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16
Q

During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation what should the flight crew check on the PBE?

A

Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) stowed and serviceable (1) ◦ Check that humidity indicator is “Blue” and “Green” Tamper Evident Seal is installed.

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17
Q

Who is responsible to check the expiration dates of the emergency equipment?

A

MCC. † Denotes that All inspection placard compliance dates are the responsibility of the Maintenance department (e.g. the compressed gas cylinder inspection placard “NEXT HYDRO DATE” may be exceeded as per the GMM).

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18
Q

During the preliminary cockpit preparation and prior to adding electrical power, what must we check regarding battery voltage? Is a battery voltage system check required if the electrical system is supplied with AC electrical power?

A

Check battery voltage with BAT switches OFF – 25.5 volts minimum to ensure a charge above 50%. If ELEC system is supplied with AC power, BAT VOLTAGE check is not required.

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19
Q

If the battery voltage is below 25.5 volts, how would you recharge the batteries?

A

If possible, charge batteries with EXT PWR ON until above 25.5 volts (about 20 minutes). To charge the batteries, the BAT switches must be in the AUTO POSITION. To check voltage, the BAT switches must be OFF.

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20
Q

During the preflight phase, if there is no water pressure in the lavs, what could you do to get water pressure?

A

It may be necessary to use APU bleed air to provide water pressurization.

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21
Q

Will the APU start if BAT 1 and BAT 2 are selected off?

A

APU will not start unless BAT 1 and 2 are in AUTO.

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22
Q

When any brake temperature exceeds _____, avoid applying the parking brake unless operationally necessary.

A

When any brake temperature exceeds 500°C, avoid applying the parking brake unless operationally necessary. At least one of the pilot duty stations will be manned anytime the parking brake is released unless, at the discretion of maintenance, work is being performed.

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23
Q

How can you recharge the accumulator pressure if the accumulator pressure gauge is showing out of the green band? What must you be aware of before recharging the accumulator pressure?

A

The ACCU PRESS indication must be in the green band. If required use the electric pump on yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator. Ground crew clearance is required.

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24
Q

How do you perform the Alternate Braking System Check and what purpose does it serve? What aircraft do we apply the Alternate Braking System Check to?

A

The purpose of this check is to verify the efficiency of the alternate braking system (absence of “spongy pedals”) on A/C 910.

Ref: (FOM VOL. II, Section 3.05)

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25
Q

During preflight, what should you do if you notice the flight control surface positions do not agree with the control handle positions?

A

If flight controls surfaces do not agree with control handle positions, check with maintenance crew before applying hydraulic power.

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26
Q

During preflight, what is the normal range when performing the Hydraulic Reservoir Fluid Level Check?

A

Verify the hydraulic fluid level in each system is within the acceptable range:

If the indication is not within the acceptable range, make a logbook entry and contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher.

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27
Q

On the preflight check, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?

A

FADEC is not continuously powered. As such, if the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF.

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28
Q

Should the parking brake be set ON or OFF for the exterior inspection, i.e., the walkaround?

A

The parking brake must be set to ON during the exterior walkaround, in order to enable the flight crew to check brake wear indications.

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29
Q

During the preflight inspection (i.e., walkaround) you notice one or more landing gear doors are open. What would you do?

A

Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher prior to applying hydraulic power.

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30
Q

During preflight, how do you perform the CVR test?

A

FOM VOL. II, Section 3.05)

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31
Q

When is a full ADIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?

A

A complete alignment must be accomplished in the following cases:
• Before the first flight of the day;
• When there is a crew change;
• When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route;
• When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours;
• All international and Alaska flights;
• Flight in Class 2 airspace.
On other flights, a fast alignment must be accomplished any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 NM (see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page).

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32
Q

Do the slats/flaps need to be fully retracted before turning off the ADIRU’s? If so, why?

A

Yes. To avoid damage to the rudder travel limiter RTL

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33
Q

How long after gate arrival (BLOCK IN) should we wait before selecting the ADIRS to OFF?

A

Wait at least five minutes after gate arrival (BLOCK IN) before selecting the ADIRS to OFF to ensure the FMGC & AOC has entered the PREFLIGHT PHASE.

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34
Q

Why do we place the NO SMOKING/SIGNS selector in the AUTO position?

A

Placing the NO SMOKING/SIGNS selector into the AUTO position allows the emergency exit lights to charge when the gear is retracted.

35
Q

When do we select LO vs NORM vs HI for PACK FLOW?

A

IF A/C 201-299, 301-399, AND 910-999: LO: If the number of passengers is below 115. NORM: For normal operating conditions. HI: For abnormally hot and/or humid conditions.

IF A/C 701 - 799: ON: For ECON flow if the number of passengers is below 140. OFF: For normal flow.

36
Q

If the APU is supplying the PACKs, PACK controllers automatically select what flow independent of the selector position?

A

PACK controllers automatically select HI flow independent of the selector position.

37
Q

IF LP or HP ground air is connected, should we use APU bleed?

A

Do not use APU BLEED if LP or HP ground air is connected.

38
Q

How do we perform the battery charging cycle during cockpit preparation?

A

FOM VOL. II, Section 3.05)

39
Q

During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFR pb-sw and CTR TK R XFR pb-sw are not in the off position?

A

There is a possibility of fuel spillage in this configuration on certain aircraft.

40
Q

In A/C 201-229 AND 910-999, what procedure should we apply if FUEL CTR TK PUMPS LO PR caution appears on the ground or in flight when the center tank is less than 440 lb?

A

FUEL MODE SEL pb . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . MAN
CTR TK PUMP 1 pb and CTR TK PUMP 2 pb. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .OFF

41
Q

Why do we set the PA to ON on ACP 3?

A

This allows cabin attendant announcements to be recorded on the CVR. For proper recording, set volume at or above medium range.

42
Q

What do we do if we notice a pb is illuminated on the Maintenance Panel?

A

Check all lights are out on the maintenance panel. If not out, the crew will contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher and verify that no work is being done before selecting the pushbutton switches to off.

43
Q

After initial electrical power-up, how long should we wait before pressing any pushbuttons? Why?

A

At electrical power-up, FMGSs and FCU run through various internal tests. Do not press any pushbuttons until the tests are complete; wait approximately 3 minutes.

44
Q

The characteristic speeds displayed on the MCDU (green dot, F, S, VLS) are computed based on what information?

A

ZFW/ZFWCG entered by crew on INIT B

45
Q

During your preflight checks, ground speed on your ND check should be less then _____kts?

A

5 knots

46
Q

When should brake fans be turned on?

A

When brake temperatures are greater than 300°C and the aircraft is on the ground. The flight crew should also coordinate with the ground crew to ensure the wheel area is clear.

47
Q

During preflight checks, what do you do if the ACCU PRESS indicator is not in the green band? What should you be cognizant of while you are restoring pressure and why?

A

The ACCU PRESS indicator must be in the green band. If required, use the electric pump on yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator. Get ground crew clearance before using the electric pump. Activating the yellow electric pump may activate hydraulic surfaces and injure ground personnel.

48
Q

What VHF radios are available in emergency electrical configuration?

A

Use VHF 1 for ATC (only VHF 1 is available in emergency electrical configuration), and VHF 2 for ATIS and company frequencies (crews should monitor the OPS frequency). VHF 3 is normally devoted to ACARS.

49
Q

During preflight cockpit preparation, you notice an incorrect landing field elevation for the destination airport on the ECAM PRESS page. What would you do?

A

NOTE: The landing field elevation of the destination airport may not be correctly displayed on the ECAM CAB PRESS page. It is automatically corrected after first engine start.

50
Q

Why do we match ATC transponders with AP1(2)?

A

Select ATC 1 if AP1 is used and ATC 2 if AP2 is used. This is to ensure ATC receive the operating AP air data.

51
Q

During cockpit preparation, what are the maximum altitude tolerances to check between ADR 1 and ADR 2 (on PFD 1 and 2)? How about any ADR 1/2/3 to the STBY ALTI or ISIS?

A

20 feet between any ADR1/2/3
100 feet between ISIS and any ADR1/2/3
300 feet between STBY ALTI and any ADR1/2/3

52
Q

Give me a Departure Brief.

A
•  Logbook 
•  Weather 
•  Runway/Airport  Surface  Conditions 
•  Pilot  Flying  and  Planned  Departure  Runway 
•  Taxi  Considerations 
•  Clearance 
•  Abnormal/Emergency  Procedures 
◦  RTO  Procedure 
◦  Engine  Out  Procedure 
•  Terrain  Awareness 
•  Potential  Threats 
•  Review  FMGS Entries  (DIFRIPS)
53
Q

If ACARS is not available, what are the important items we must we manually input into the FMGC? Know how to input a manual W&B if AWP or ACARS is unavailable.

A
  • ZFW/ZFWCG/THS (Can be obtained from cFDP iPad app.)
  • FLAPS/Flex Temp (Can be obtained from TLR)
  • V1-VR-V2 (Can be obtained from TLR)

The cFDP iPad app can be used to obtain the ZFW/ZFWGC if ACARS is inoperative. The TLR provides the THS/FLAP settings, V1-VR-V2 and the Flex Temp. The cFDP along with the TLR provides the crews all takeoff performance information for the PERF TAKEOFF page if ACARS is inoperative.

54
Q

Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bybass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?

A

NOTE: If NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, a logbook entry must be made and the flight crew will contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher.

55
Q

Will the engines start if the thrust levers are not in the IDLE position?

A

Engines will start regardless of thrust lever position. Important to check that they are in the idle position

56
Q

During engine start with the parking brake on, if the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what should the flight crew do and why?

A

If the aircraft starts to move due to parking brake failure release parking brake handle to restore braking by pedals.

The yellow hydraulic systems provides pressure to the parking brake. Releasing the parking brake restores hydraulic pressure back to the green system, which in turn pressurizes the brake pedals. In other words, you are transferring braking from the yellow system back to the green system.

57
Q

Single engine taxi is prohibited when?

A

Single engine taxi is prohibited on contaminated or slippery taxiways.

58
Q

Can either engine be used for single engine taxi?

A

Only Engine #1 shall be used for single engine taxi.

59
Q

Is the APU required for single engine taxi? If the APU is not used, what may be lost in the case of generator failure?

A

The APU is not required for single engine taxi. If not used, nose wheel steering is lost in case of generator failure without the APU electrical source.

60
Q

Why might the NEO’s take up to 2 minutes for an engine start? For NEO aircraft, how much time should the crew plan for second engine start prior to takeoff?

A

For the LEAP 1A engines (A/C 301-399), the engine start sequence can take up to 2 minutes depending if the engine core temperature is hot or cold. Crews should plan accordingly to allow for a 2 minute engine start plus no less than 3 minutes for engine idle stabilization. Therefore, the flight crew should plan a min of 5 mins when starting the second engine prior to takeoff.

61
Q

Why must the engines be running and stabilized no less than 3 minutes before takeoff?

A
  • Idle Stabilization (to avoid thermal shock and extend engine life)
  • Ensure both engines are fed from separate wing tanks
62
Q

Should we wait for the amber crosses and messages to disappear on the engine parameters (upper and lower ECAM displays) before moving an ENG MASTER switch to ON?

A

Yes. Do not turn the ENG MASTER switch ON before all amber crosses and messages have disappeared on the engine parameters (upper and lower ECAM displays).

63
Q

On NEO aircraft, why might the engine take up to 1 min to light-off?

A

So the engine can dry crank to cool the engine core if needed.
NOTE: (A/C 301-399) Depending on the engine thermal state, the FADEC can command an automatic dry cranking before the start of the engine. The dry cranking may last up to approximately one minute. During the dry cranking, the FADEC logic limits the maximum N2 to 30%. During the dry cranking, the vibration level increases but remains below the amber display limit in normal operating conditions.

64
Q

What should the flight crew do if the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast during an engine start?

A

If, during the start the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast, run the engine at idle for 5 minutes. If the leak stops during these 5 minutes, the aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action. If the leak is still present after 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight.

65
Q

Engine 2 should not be started until the Engine 1 _____ indication is displayed in N1 and/or the N2 _____ indication disappears?

A

AVAIL

gray background

66
Q

What should the flight crew do if electrical power supply is interrupted during the engine start sequence?

A

In case the electrical power supply is interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by the loss of ECAM DUs, abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, perform a 30second manual dry crank cycle.

67
Q

How do you perform a MANUAL DRY CRANK CYCLE?

A
To initiate the dry crank:
ENG mode selector ………….crank
ENG man start pb-sw……….on 
To stop the dry crank:
ENG man start pb-sw………..off
ENG mode selector…………….Norm
68
Q

When does the 3 minute idle stabilization period begin after an engine start?

A

The engine start sequence is complete, and the three minute idle stabilization period begins, once the grey background on the N2 indication disappears.

69
Q

When starting an engine with X Bleed, how much bleed pressure should the supplying engine be providing?

A

NOTE: Adjust thrust of supplying engine to obtain an engine bleed pressure of 30 PSI before start initiation, and at least 25 PSI during the start sequence.

70
Q

Why do we turn the Y Electric pump on for single engine taxi?

A

This pressurizes the yellow hydraulic system and nosewheel steering for (A/C 938-949, 201-216, 220 299, 301-399, AND 701-799) and prevents PTU operating noise in the cabin.

71
Q

During taxi, when is pilot monitoring “heads down” activities permitted?

A

PM ‘heads down’ activities are only permitted during straight taxi, i.e., no turns.

72
Q

Avoid exceeding _______% N1 during taxi?

A

Little power above idle thrust will be needed to get the aircraft moving. Avoid exceeding 40% N1, as this can result in exhaust-blast damage or Foreign Object Damage (FOD). Thrust should be normally used symmetrically.

73
Q

What should the maximum taxi speed be?

A

The maximum taxi speed should be 30 knots?

74
Q

What taxi technique should be applied while taxing to manage speed below 30 knots?

A

When 30 knots is exceeded with idle thrust, apply brakes smoothly and decelerate to 10 knots, release the brakes and allow the aircraft to accelerate again. As the ground speed is difficult to assess, monitor ground speed on ND. Avoid “riding” the brakes.

75
Q

If use or RADAR and TERR are required, who displays RADAR and who displays TERR?

A

If use of RADAR is required, PF will display RADAR on his/her ND while the PM will display TERR ON ND on his/her ND.

76
Q

Should the flight control check be accomplished prior to the start of engine 2?

A

No. This check is to be accomplished after the second engine is running.

77
Q

What can we do to notify the FA’s that they did not press the “Cabin Ready” switch?

A

NOTE: The seat belt sign two-tone chime may also be used to signal the flight attendants that the “Cabin Ready” indication has not been received. (Applies to aircraft with the Cabin Ready button on the FAP.)

78
Q

Explain what you would do if the takeoff conditions change (e.g., runway or SID change) after the Departure Brief or during the taxi phase, and if the previous performance computation is no longer appropriate.

A

Reference the “Last Minute Changes Before Takeoff” reference card on the back of the Normal Checklist.

79
Q

Is the “Last Minute Changes Before Takeoff Reference Card” required? Where is it located?

A

To assist in correct FMGS and Performance updates, a Last Minute Changes Before Takeoff Reference Card has been added to the back of the Normal Checklist. While not required, this card may be referenced to assist the First Officer in completing the updates as well as assist the Captain in verifying the updates.

80
Q

Just prior to takeoff, when would we set the ENG MODE selector to IGN?

A

Select IGN if the runway has standing water, heavy rain is falling, or heavy rain or moderate turbulence is expected after takeoff.

81
Q

Does the use of THRUST BUMP need to be recorded in the logbook?

A

Use of THRUST BUMP must be recorded in the logbook for tracking by maintenance. Reference FOM, Vol. I, Aircraft Discrepancies.

82
Q

Are brake fans permitted to be ON for takeoff?

A

BRK FANS must be off for takeoff.

83
Q

Brake temperatures must be below what temperature prior to takeoff?

A

300° C