Vol 3 Flashcards
(195 cards)
1
Q
Vol 3 Title
A
Sailplane Operations Procedures
2
Q
Vol 3 Chapter 1:
A
General Information
3
Q
Vol 3 Chapter 2
A
Mission Planning
4
Q
Vol 3 Chapter 3
A
Normal Operating Procedures
5
Q
Vol 3 Chapter 4
A
Operating Restrictions
6
Q
PIC
A
pilot in command
7
Q
Syllabus recommended changes and waivers is authorized by whom?
A
MAJCOM A3
8
Q
Actual flying time for pilots will not exceed how many hours per day?
A
8 hours
9
Q
After how long must instruction cease and two qualified pilots are required?
A
5 hours
10
Q
Flying restriction times do not apply to whom? Does the duty day still apply?
A
Cross-country training or competition sorties. Duty day restrictions still apply
11
Q
The TG-16 is what kind of aircraft?
A
Trainer
12
Q
Minimum aircrew clothing
A
Flight suit and flight boots
13
Q
Minimum aircrew clothing at 40*F
A
Approved flying jacket ABU jacket if participating in ABU winter weight gloves watch or pile cap thermal underwear
14
Q
T/F: Aircrew will removed rings and scarves before aircrew duties
A
True
15
Q
When will parachutes be worn?
A
Spins, aerobatic, cross country, and planned wave flights
16
Q
Minimum oxygen pressure is?
A
50 psi
17
Q
What does the PRICE check stand for?
A
Pressure, regulator, indicator, connections, emergency
18
Q
How must the PRICE check be performed?
A
Every 30 mins
19
Q
T/F: the PIC will be the most experienced pilot for the task, regardless of seat position
A
True
20
Q
On subsequent flights during the same day with the same crew, what flight elements must be briefed?
A
Only those items which have changed from the previous flights
21
Q
Ops Sup
A
Operations Supervisor
22
Q
SDO
A
Standby Duty Officer
23
Q
NOTAMS
A
Notice to Airmen
24
Q
FCIF
A
Flight Crew Information Files
25
SRF
Squadron Read Files
26
SII
Special Interest Items
27
IP
Instructor Pilot
28
RM
Risk Management
29
Alternate missions will be more/less complex than the primary mission?
Less complex
30
What is the alternate mission for a pattern tow?
None
31
Can relevant mission items be briefed during flight if practical?
Yes
32
What 6 documents must be on board for flight?
```
Aircraft weight and balance
Airworthiness certificate
Aircraft registration
AFTO Form 781F
Pilots Checklist
Unit developed pilot aid
```
33
Will students fly solo in aircraft requiring an operational check?
No
34
If the tail battery is removed for weight and balance, where must it be annotated?
Form 781 and it will be reinstalled immediately after flight
35
FOD
Foreign Object Damage
36
T/F: All loose items must be secured in the cockpit at all times
True
37
Assembly and disassembly can only be performed by whom?
Trained crew members
38
Who signs off the red X and the "Inspected by" block in the AFTO Form 781A?
The individual who performed the inspection
39
Who can inspect the aircraft if maintenance is unavailable?
Only rated pilots or civilian equivalent
40
Can a cadet sign the "inspected by" block of the AFTO Form 781A?
No
41
What does a red tag on the aircraft control stick indicate?
A nonairworthy condition. The form 781H must be updated to "red X" status
42
Who can remove a red tag when repairs are complete and the aircraft is released for flight?
Only authorized maintenance
43
Do interior and exterior inspections need to be accomplished for relights?
No
44
How much nose to tail separation is required when ground handling sailplanes?
10 feet minimum
45
When is less than 10 ft of ground nose to tail separation between sailplanes authorized?
When sailplanes are staged for a cross country launch grid or they are being hangared
46
When will airbrakes be open or unlocked and the upwind wing manned?
At all times except if in takeoff position
47
Can wings/fuselages be overlapped when ground handling? When hangaring?
Ground handle, no overlap
| Can overlap to hangar
48
How long must drag lines for towing be?
At least as long as one half the wingspan of the sailplane
49
How many people are needed to ground handle sailplanes?
3 or more people, 2 minimum
50
The canopy must be.....when the cockpit is not occupied, unless the canopy is being guarded.
Closed and secured
51
How many people are required to move any sailplane with a main wheel dolly installed?
3
52
How many people are required to install or remove the tail dolly or wingtip wheel?
1 (2 recommended)
53
When being towed by a vehicle, how far away from other aircraft or obstruction must the sailplane be?
No closer than 10 feet
54
When winds exceed 25 knots, ground nose-to-tail separation between sailplanes will increase too?
At least one half the wingspan
55
When winds exceed 25 knots, how many people are required to move each sailplane?
3
56
When winds exceed 25 knots, how many people are required to man the sailplane when static?
2
57
When winds exceed 30 knots, all sailplanes will be...
Tied down or be hangared
58
How many people are required to move sailplanes when winds exceed 30 knots?
4 people minimum, preferred as many as possible
59
How many people are required to hangar sailplanes?
Minimum 2
60
Can the marshal approve pedestrians to cross between two toy planes with engines running?
No, never allowed
61
What signal does Skytrain give when aircraft are cleared to proceed along Taxiway hotel.
A siren
62
What is the minimum runway condition reading for unrestricted sailplane operations on the hard surface?
12(wet)
63
RCR
runway condition reading
64
Operations will be limited when the density altitude exceeds
10,000 feet
65
Tow operations will cease when a minimum altitude of ....cannot be achieved by....
200 feet AGL cannot be achieved by 1 nautical mile
66
NM
nautical mile
67
TOLD
Take Off Landing Data
68
Final must be established no lower than
200 feet AGL
69
AGL
Above ground level
70
Turn final no further than....from the departure end of the runway
1 NM
71
Maximum wind for take off for all sailplanes
25 knots
72
Gust factor limits for all sailplanes is
10 knots
73
Exercise extreme caution when the tailwind component exceeds
5 knots
74
The maximum crosswind limit for an initial solo's takeoff and landing is
10 knots
75
The maximum headwind limit (including gusts) during takeoff for a planned opposite direction simulated rope break landing is
10 knots unless approved by the Ops Sup
76
Land the aircraft so as to maintain at least how much lateral separation from sailplanes or obstacles during landing and rollout?
one full wingspan of lateral separation
77
Solo students landing in the SPLA require at least how many feet of separation west of the west runway or other sailplanes?
100 feet of separation
78
Are AM251 students authorized in between landings?
No, unless safety dictates
79
The aircraft must be stopped how many feet behind other aircraft, object, or personnel?
at least 200 feet
80
Is a tow rope considered an obstacle the plane must stop 200ft before of?
No, but avoid rolling over assembly hardware
81
What is the only authorized method of sailpane launch?
Aerotow- by a tow rope attached to a tow plane
82
Tow ropes must be how long?
200 feet +- 10
83
Ropes that are missing a pigtail, excessively frayed, unraveled, or otherwise in poor condition will be
removed from service immediately
84
Can rope runners grab the rope while it is being towed by the tow plane?
No, but they can guide it with their foot to prevent the rope from hitting obstacles, or can be picked up using a gaffe.
85
How far must personnel/objects not involved with the launch of the sailplane in departure position be away?
Either behind the broad yellow line to the rear of the aircraft or 50 ft clear to the side of the aircraft.
86
What is a takeoff accomplished without the utilization of a wing runner?
A wing low takeoff.
87
Who can perform wing low takeoffs?
Any IP unless the Ops Sup/SDO directs "No wing low takeoffs"
88
What altitude are standard area tows?
9000 MSL
89
MSL
mean sea level
90
How much separation is needed of nose-to-tail separation between sailplanes?
10 feet
91
How many sailplanes are permitted to line up on the hard surface of runway 16R/34L?
5, but skytrain can waive it up to 8
92
Sailplanes landing in the SPLA will land no closer than 100ft from the west runway, then stack west with a minimum of how many feet of separation from any other sailplane or obstacle in the landing area.
50 feet
93
ATC
Air traffic control
94
How much clearance does a sailplane need if making a landing in between?
one full wingspan on both sides, 3 wingspans total
95
During an off field landing, maintain at least how much clearance from all structures on rollout?
100 ft
96
During an off field landing, stop a minimum of how many feet from any other taxiway, road, or obstacles in the landing zone?
50 ft
97
What happens if a sailplane does not stop between the EOR lines?
The runway will be closed to other landing traffic until the sailplane is moved between the EOR lines, clear of the runway hold short lines, or one wingspan clear of runway 16R/34L edge line.
98
EOR
End of Runway
99
What is the maximum pattern bank angle?
45*
100
What is the minimum safety altitude for a 1 NM radius gate finish?
500 ft
101
What is the minimum safety altitude for a 2NM radius gate finish?
800 ft
102
Pilots will roll out on final at a minimum of how many feet?
200 ft
103
AUTO is a VFR reporting point for what area?
North area
104
PEN is a VFR reporting point for what area?
South area
105
What will be the traffic pattern entry altitude for a normal pattern?
800 ft AGL (7300 MSL) +-100 ft
106
What is the north entry point?
The three-way intersection of Pine Drive, Stadium Boulevard, and South Gate Boulevard
107
What is the south entry point?
A small loop in a paved road north of the 10 Air Base Wing
108
ABW
Air Base Wing
109
Must skytrain be notified of an intentional low pattern?
Yes, "intentional low pattern" must be added to the one minute to AUTO/PEN call and downwind
110
Must skytrain be notified of an unintentional low pattern?
Yes, "low pattern" must be added to the downwind call if pattern is entered below 700 feet
111
What is the entry point for a south extended base recovery? What altitude should you arrive over the entry point?
South end of ice lake at 500 ft AGL (7000 MSL)
112
What is the entry point for a north extended base recovery? What altitude should you arrive over the entry point?
The intersection of Community Center Drive and Stadium Boulevard at 500 ft AGL (7000 MSL)
113
Must skytrain acknowledge the "Two minutes to extended base" radio call?
Yes
114
Is more than one sailplane allowed in an acrobatic area at a time?
No, when the acrobatic areas are active all other aircraft will remain well clear.
115
What is the altitude boundaries for the North Aerobatic Area?
9000ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
116
What are the boundaries of the North Aerobatic Area?
Bounded by the Academy Club, Reservoir 3, through the cemetery to Stadium Boulevard, south along Stadium Boulevard to Academy Drive to the Academy Club
117
What is the ground elevation of the North Aerobatic Area?
7,000 ft MSL
118
What are the altitude boundaries for the West Aerobatic Area?
9000 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
119
What are the boundaries of the West Aerobatic Area?
It is a rectangle bounded by the east-west running ridgeline with the green water tank (south border) to the Pine Valley Child Development Center (Northeast Corner) and the water filtration plant )west border). Remain north of the Peregrine Estates subdivision.
120
What is the ground elevation for the West Aerobatic Area?
7000 ft MSL
121
What two areas is the East Aerobatic Area divided into?
East Alpha and East Bravo
122
What are the altitude boundaries for East Alpha aerobatic area?
8000ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
123
What are the altitude boundaries for East Bravo aerobatic area?
8,100 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
124
Aircraft in East Bravo will not fly lower than how many feet?
9000 ft MSL
125
What is the ground elevation for the East Aerobatic Area?
6,500 ft
126
What are the altitude boundaries for the Athletic Field Aerobatic Area?
8,600 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
127
What are the altitude boundaries for the Stadium Aerobatic Area?
8,200 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
128
What are the altitude boundaries for the Prep School Aerobatic Area?
8,500 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL
129
What is the minimum altitude for a high speed pass?
500 ft
130
What altitude must spins be initiated above?
3,500 feet AGL
131
What altitude must spins be recovered by?
No lower than 3000 ft AGL except for competition spins which may recover as low as 2,000 ft AGL
132
What altitude must spin prevents be recovered by?
2,000 ft AGL
133
Spiral dives must be recovered by what altitude?
1,500 ft AGL
134
Nose high stalls, turning stalls, and landing attitude stalls must be recovered by what altitude?
1,500 ft AGL
135
All aerobatics must be completed above?
1,200 ft AGL
136
Complete slow flight above what altitude?
1000 ft AGL
137
The stall indication airspeed for slow flight must be determined by what altitude?
1,500 ft AGL
138
Thermalling must be completed no lower than what altitude?
500 ft AGL
139
What is the minimum altitude for Intentional slack lines?
1,000 ft AGL
140
What is the minimum altitude for box-the-wash?
1,000 ft AGL
141
What minimum altitude must be maintained during ridge soaring or flight over mountain ranges?
500 ft AGL
142
All slips must be recovered by what altitude?
100 ft AGL
143
Are aircraft allowed to fly further west than the western boundary?
No, unless on tow above 10,000 ft MSL. This restriction does not apply to oxygen, wave, or cross-country flights.
144
AMU
Acceleration Monitoring Unit
145
IF lightning or thunderstorms are reported within 10 NM of the are of operation, units will ensure that aircraft are...
Not exposed to hail, lightning, wind shear, or microbursts
146
Units will terminate operations when lightning is within how many NM?
5NM
147
When the wind chill index is below 32* F, time is limited outside a heated environment to how long?
30 mins
148
Sailplane operations will cease when the chill index is below what temperature?
0*F
149
The chill index can be waved to what temperature by the FTS/CC or FTS/SDO?
-19*F
150
All operations will cease when the chill index is at or below what temperature?
-20*F
151
VMC
Visual Meteorological Conditions
152
Is flight into areas of known or forecast icing conditions authorized?
No, prohibited
153
IS flight into areas of forecast sever turbulence authorized?
Only with OG Commander approval. If sever turbulence is reported, cease operations in the affected area.
154
Pilots will report severe sink conditions to the unit supervisors or air traffic control. What are severe sink conditions?
Greater than 10 knots at normal glide speeds
155
What four maneuvers will not be accomplished unless an instructor pilot is at a set of controls?
Intentional slack lines, spins, intentional low patterns, and simulated rope break
156
What are the boundaries of the local soaring flying area?
Palmer lake, rampart reservoir, the town of cascade, and southwest along highway 24 to the intersection with S. 31st street, north to Glen Eyrie Reservoir, northeast to the intersection of S. Rockrimmon Blvd and I-25, north along the railroad tracks immediately west of I-25 to the town of monument and back to palmer lake.
157
What are the altitude boundaries for the local flying area?
Surface to 17,500 ft MSL
158
What Alert Area covers USAFA property?
A-260
159
What class airspace is the USAFA airfield? How far does it extend?
Class D airspace with a 3 mile radius from the tower.
160
What altitude does the class D airspace extend too?
Surface to 8,800 MSL
161
What airway crosses through the alert area? At what altitude must aircraft operating through the alert area use caution on this airway?
Victory Airway, V-108 at 10,400
162
What is the No Transgression Zone used for?
Tows and Emergencies. The NTZ affords tow pilots an area to tow through while making normal area tows, and also provides a area for sailplanes to recover during emergencies and severe sink conditions.
163
What is the altitude box for the No transgression zone?
Surface to 8000 MSL
164
Where do the majority of soaring activities take place? To what altitude?
West of the railroad tracks, south of North Gate Boulevard, east of the Front Range, and north of the North Gravel Pit. Remain below 12,500 ft MSL
165
When parachuting airspace is active, conditions permitting, and above 8,000 ft MSL, gliders and tow panes should remain at least how far west of the western border of the parachuting airspace?
At least 1/2 NM
166
NTZ
No Transgression Zone
167
What glide ratio are the circles of safety based on? How much margin of safety does this provide?
17:1 with clam winds, provides a 2:1 margin of safety
168
The circles of safety provide a minimum of how much terrain clearance above the points on the circles (but not necessarily all terrain in the area?)
1000 ft AGL
169
What is the 8200 circle of safety?
An arc defined by the Blue Townhome Tennis Courts, Mt Saint Francis, USAFA hospital, and USAFA Cemetery
170
What is the 7800 circle of safety?
An arc defined by the Santa Fe Red Roods, the Pine Valley Baseball Fields, and Falcon Stadium
171
What are the lateral boundaries of the parachuting Style Zone?
The Same as the no transgression zone (South entry point, north entry point, NCO club, stables)
172
What are the boundaries of the No Transgression Zone?
North entry point, south entry point, NCO Club, and stables
173
What is the altitude block for the Style Zone?
9,500-17,500 ft MSL
174
If the Remotely Piloted Aircraft area is active, aircraft must remain at least how far above the RPA airspace?
At least 1000 ft
175
What is the RPA runway name?
Aardvark
176
Can sailplanes fly prior to official sunrise?
No
177
How much time before official sunset must sail planes be in the traffic pattern?
5 minutes prior to official sunset
178
When must all sailplanes be landed by?
Sailplanes must land no later than official sunset
179
May pilots practice compound or multiple simulated emergencies in flight or initiate simulated emergencies below 300 ft?
No
180
All opposite direction landings in the SPLA will land where?
Far west (Lane 4) and clear visually for other aircraft
181
G awareness exercise will be accomplished before every sortie when they plan or are likely to maneuver above how many Gs?
Four Gs
182
What is a G awareness exercise?
A smooth pull to at least four Gs
183
If a discrepancy exists between the front and rear cockpit G meters after cross checking between cockpits , which meter will the pilots use?
The most conservative (highest indicated G) display
184
Initial solo students use what call sign?
Flash XX
185
When releasing from tow, when must skytrain be notified?
If releasing from tow outside of +-300 feet from requested altitude
186
Skytrain must be notified when ascending and descending through which altitude barriers?
12,500 ft MSL, 14,000 MSL (with PRICE check complete), and 15,500 ft MSL in the local flying area
187
How often must contact with skytrain be made above altitudes of 12,500 ft MSL?
Every 30 minutes
188
When should the last aerotow of the day be launched?
No later than approximately 25 mins prior to official sunset or scheduled closing time.
189
When should the last pattern tow of the day be launched?
No later than approximately 10 minutes prior to sunset or scheduled closing time?
190
When should all sailplanes be hangarded?
No later than 15 minutes after official sunset.
191
How many AM-251/AM-461 sorties may be in the air at one time?
No more than 8. Other sorties or continuation sorties are not included in this restriction
192
What should be done on downwind to indicate a radio out?
Rock the wings
193
Define severe sink
Any sever sink rate over 10 knots down on the vertical speed indicator (VSI) or equal to 1000 ft per minute decent rate, while flying near Min Lift over Drag
194
What is normal decent rate at pattern airspeed?
Approximately 150 ft per minute, or 1.5 knots down on the VSI
195
What are three recommended USAFA emergency landing fields?
Officers Club landing field, Cadet Parade field, Aardvark
