Vol Self Test Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
Using equipment generates what type of maintenance?
A
Corrective or “unscheduled” maintenance.
2
Q
What are the two basic types of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?
A
- on-equipment
- off-equipment
3
Q
Maintenance cross-tells are used for what purpose?
A
To highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes.
4
Q
What should typically be included in a maintenance cross-tell report in addition to details such as national stock numbers, part numbers, and specific location of problem areas?
A
Background info and History.
5
Q
What are two major goals of Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program (IREP) meetings?
A
To increase local repair capability when appropriate and to reduce the overall cost of operations.
6
Q
In order of increasing capability, what are the three separate levels of maintenance?
A
Organizational, Intermediate, Depot
7
Q
Which level of maintenance is performed off-equipment at the back shop level?
A
Intermediate.
8
Q
What level of maintenance is used for complex repairs and is located at a major repair facility?
A
Depot.
9
Q
What combined maintenance approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function, where possible, by consolidating that repair function at the depot level?
A
2LM.
10
Q
What type of maintenance facility is a hybrid of 2LM and 3LM and combines intermediate-level maintenance from multiple bases to one location?
A
Regional Repair Facility.
11
Q
What type of specialized regional repair facility provides intermediate-level maintenance for selected commodities?
A
Centralized Repair Facility (CRF).
12
Q
How can a successful R and M program be defined?
A
As one that promotes the ability to identify and correct system deficiencies before they affect combat capabilities.
13
Q
What is the primary scope of the Product Improvement Working Group (PIWG)?
A
Is to address product deficiencies affecting R and M that the field unit cannot resolve and to resolve deficiency reports that the single manager assigns them.
14
Q
Who takes the lead in identifying, tracking, assessing, and correcting R and M deficiencies on their assigned air and space equipment and also co-chair the PIWG.
A
Single Manager.
15
Q
As and end user, what is your primary focus in the DR process?
A
Is to identify deficiencies and properly submit reports.
16
Q
If uncorrected, may cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness and no workaround is known?
A
1A.
17
Q
If uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system and no workaround is known?
A
1B.
18
Q
Prevents the accomplishment of an essential capability or critically restricts OSS and E, to include interaction with other mission critical platforms or systems, and no acceptable work around is known.
A
1C.
19
Q
Adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS and E and no acceptable workaround is known?
A
1D.
20
Q
Adversely affects technical, cost, or schedule risks to the project or life cycle support of the system, or result in a production line stoppage and no acceptable workaround is known?
A
1E.
21
Q
Adversely affects an essential capability or negatively impacts OSS and E and adequate performance is achieved through significant compensation or acceptable workaround?
A
2A.
22
Q
Adversely affects technical, cost, or schedule risks to the project or to life cycle support of the system but an acceptable workaround is known?
A
2B.
23
Q
Does not affect essential capability but may result in user/operator inconvenience or annoyance?
A
2C.
24
Q
Results in inconvenience or annoyance for development or maintenance personnel but does not prevent the accomplishment of the task?
A
2D.
25
Other effects, such as enhancements having little or no impact to OSS and E under current requirements?
2E.
26
What MXG agency is tasked with providing technical assistance for DR's?
QA.
27
To the greatest extent possible, how should maintenance be performed?
On a preplanned and scheduled basis.
28
When the scope of an OI will cross organizational group lines, at what level should it be published?
Wing Level.
29
What office assumes sole responsibility for the accuracy, currency, and integrity of the contents of an OI and for compliance with it?
OPR
30
Can an AF civil service employee act as the POC for an OI?
Yes, must be AF civil service employee or Active Duty.
31
Which section acts as the OPR for the maintenance policy guidance in the MXG?
QA is the OPR for Maintenance.
32
What type of support agreement governs services provided by US Northern Command to US Central Command?
Inter-command SA ( support agreement ).
33
What flight within the MXG normally acts as the POC for SA's?
Normally Programs and Resources Flight.
34
What is the most important thing you must know about SA's?
What is in them.
35
What is historical documentation as it pertains to aircraft and equipment?
Historical documentation is the permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment, including aircraft, engine modules, and designated MDS specific-6 T.O. component.
36
Who is responsible for determine which items in the MDS specific -6 T.O. Need historical reporting and for informing the single manager so the items can be identified for reporting?
Item manager.
37
For aircraft engines, when are the printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95's NOT required to accompany end-items upon transfer to/from another location?
When that location has access to the necessary MIS to retrieve the historical information.
38
During what type of transfer do helicopter blades and tail rotor blades have to be accomplished by printed copy of their AFTO IMT 95?
Upon transfer into the disposed system.
39
Upon transfer of engines to and from a depot maintenance facility, who is responsible for ensuring all basic engine components have been accounted for?
The maintenance facility that preserves the engine.
40
What aircraft engine documentation is an AFTO IMT 95 primarily used for?
Used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, & maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine wheels.
41
Which maintenance information system is considered to be the standard AF base-level automated MIS?
IMDS-CDB
42
Used to pre fill/print AFTO Form 781 A,J, and K.
Aircraft Automated Forms.
43
What subsystem of IMDS-CDB can be used to order parts?
IMDS-CDB/SBSS.
44
Allows monitoring of manpower resources?
Maintenance Personnel.
45
Updates/monitors approved/actual aircraft configuration?
Generic Configuration Status Accounting System (GCSAS)
46
Gives capability to forecast and schedule training?
Training Management.
47
Gives the ability to update aircraft operating times?
Automated Debriefing
48
Used to create, schedule, and change work center events?
Maintenance Events.
49
Supports flying operations in three phases?
Operational Events.
50
Provides monitoring and control of TCTO progress.
Time Compliance Technical Order.
51
Automates location of aircraft, misses, and AGE?
Location.
52
Allows forecasting of TCTO's and time changes?
Inspection and Time Change.
53
Tracks engines/components for time change?
Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS).
54
Tracks maintenance on test equipment?
Automatic Test Equipment Reporting System (ATERS).
55
Replaced the Maintenance Data Collection System?
Job Data Documentation (JDD).
56
Monitors Estimated Time in Commission (ETIC)?
Status and Inventory Reporting.
57
In regards to MIS data integrity, what are work center and shift supervisors responsible for doing?
Responsible for reviewing, on a daily basis, the data entered into their respective MIS by personnel under their control.
58
What section guides the data integrity team process and is responsible for ensuring the MIS data provided to maintenance managers is meaningful and factual?
MOS/MMA section
MOS-Maintenance Operation Flight
MMA-Maintenance Management Analysis
59
What section is responsible for correcting incorrect and erroneous data entered into the MIS?
The section that entered the data.
60
As roadmaps, what can maintenance management metric, if used properly, help you to determine?
Where you have been, where you are going, and how ( or if ) you are going to be there.
61
What are two major categories that metrics are often divided into?
Leading and Lagging indicators.
62
What type of performance indicator shows s problem first, while it is impacting maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
Leading indicators.
63
What type of indicator shows firmly established trends?
Lagging Indicators.
64
The best known yardstick for measuring a unit's performance?
Mission Capable Rate (MC).
65
Average number of deferred discrepancies across the fleet of possessed aircraft?
Deferred Discrepancy Rate (DDR).
66
Percentage of "Code 3" aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4,8, or 12 hours.
Fix Rate (FR).
67
Most important and accurate measure of the unit's maintenance quality?
Repeat/Recurring Discrepancy Rate (R/R).
68
Average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary assigned missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons?
Total Not Mission capable Maintenance Rate (TNMCM).
69
Average number of sorties or hours flown per Primary Aerospace vehicle authorized per month.
Utilization Rate (UTE).
70
Percentage of aircraft that land in "Code 3" status?
Break Rate (BR).
71
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform maintenance on primary mission aircraft, related AGE, and munitions support equipment for the first 8 hours after landing or start do recovery?
Priority 2.
72
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform scheduled maintenance to include periodic inspections, routine TCTO's, and TCI's?
Priority 4.
73
What maintenance repair priority level should be assigned to perform routine repair of AGE and repair cycle assets?
Priority 5.
74
If a change is made to the repair priority level, does LRS parts delivery priority have to be changed to match it?
No, not necessarily, this decision should be made by the Production Superintendent in coordination w/MOC.
75
Although the "Wing Standup" meeting is used to keep the WG/CC updated about maintenance issues, what is the overall focus of the meeting?
To identify and resolve issues/ disagreements related to the schedule.
76
In addition to attending a monthly maintenance and flying schedule meeting, what does the WG/CC ensure at the meetings with regard to MXG and OG interaction?
WG/CC ensures that MXG and OG participate jointly in developing an annual maintenance and flying program and a joint plan to ensure the best use of aircraft, equipment, and personnel.
77
Who is personally tasked as the wing FOD/DOP program manager?
Wing Vice-Commander (WG/CV).
78
In addition to ensuring effective FOD/DOP programs, what must the FOD/DOP program manager do on a quarterly or monthly basis?
For establishing and maintaining an effective program that includes chairing quarterly or monthly FOD/DOP prevention committee meeting.
79
Why is it important for the MXG/CC to standardize maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structure, compliance, and management philosophy?
Standardizing is important because it leads to greater interoperability, improves maintenance quality, and ensures maintenance effectiveness.
80
As well as overseeing the development and publication of all maintenance-related OI's, what specific guidance must the MXG/CC establish for cannibalization responsibilities and actions?
Establishing written guidance on individual responsibilities and specific procedures for "Cann" actions.
81
Who is responsible for ensuring effective management of all maintenance training programs including the development of an orientation program to adequately train newly assigned MXG personnel?
MXG/CC.
82
Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the MXG.
MXG/CD (Maintenance Group Deputy Commander).
83
Who does the MXG SUPT work directly for?
MXG/CC.
84
Other than acting as a technical advisor, the MXG SUPT advice the MXG/CC on what type of issues?
Personnel, morale, and welfare issues. As well as on problems not identified through maintenance data systems or QA Inspection reports.
85
What is the MXG SUPT's primary job as it relates to enlisted manning within the MXG?
Acts as a liaison between staff and production supervisors and serves as the groups' focal point for manning.
86
What responsibilities does a SQ/CC have with the overall focus of upgrade training and maintenance qualification program?
Ensures that UGT and maintenance qualification programs emphasize quality and are not just focused on meeting minimum UGT frames.
87
Even though SQ/CC are ultimately responsible for unit deployment readiness, who do they appoint to help ensure deployment readiness?
UDM.
88
I'd squadron manning authorizations are not right, what can the SQ/CC do to help remedy the situation?
They coordinate with the wing manpower office, through the group manning manager, for assistance in preparing an authorization change report (ACR) which, if approved, will alter their manning authorizations.
89
What two positions within the MOS perform essentially the same duties as the MOO/MX SUPT?
MOF/CC and MOF SUPT
| Maintenance Operations Office/Maintenance Superintendent
90
In AMXS/HMXS or MXS, who does the MX SUPT work for?
MOO.
91
Who is responsible through the MOS/CC to the MXG/CC for monitoring the overall health of the fleet?
MOF/CC assisted by the MOF SUPT.
92
Who is responsible for developing written procedures for EOR inspections in coordination with the wing weapons manager, weapons safety manager, and airfield management?
MOO/MX SUPT in AMXS/HMXS.
93
Who is responsible for reviewing and consolidating monthly maintenance plan inputs from the various MXS flights/section and for forwarding them to MOF PS and D?
MXS MOO w/ the assistance of the MX SUPT.
94
In MOS, who are flight chief responsible to in the area of leadership, supervision, and training of their assigned flight personnel?
MOF/CC
95
With regards to job environment safety, what must a flight chief inform workers of?
They are responsible for informing workers about any hazardous conditions personnel may encounter while on the Job.
96
Who is responsible for reviewing PRD's and flight aborts daily to ensure proper maintenance is being taken to correct the underlying problem?
AMU OIC/SUPT.
97
Who chairs a daily maintenance production meeting to develop and modify the overall maintenance plan of attack for an AMU?
AMU OIC or SUPT
98
What is the primary job of the section NCOIC/Section chief?
Is to act as the First-Line manager and Supervisor of maintenance production and to serve as the technical Authority and Advisor for his/her particular section.
99
What AF IMT should a section NCOIC use to monitor, track, and document safety and health-related information about his or her workers?m
AF IMT 55
100
For section managed TMDE, what is a section NCOIC responsible for ensuring?
That Maintenance and Calibration requirements are accomplished.
101
The section NCOIC should ensure cross-utilization training requirements do not interfere with what?
UGT training.
102
The section NCOIC should ensure his or her section is organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the point of maintenance (POM) as possible without jeopardizing what?
Accountability and Control Procedures.
103
What is the primary job of an AMU flight-line Pro Super?
Is to direct the overall maintenance efforts of his/her AMU.
104
What is the grade requirement to be appointed as an AMU flight-line Pro Super?
SNCO or Civilian Equivalent.
105
If one is appointed, what is the primary job of an MXS Pro Super?
Provide MXS specialist non-availability to MOC at the beginning of each shift, identify production requirements and shortfall to his/her MOO/MX SUPT, and direct the overall maintenance effort of his or her unit to help meet the mission requirements.
106
Which MOF section is responsible for monitoring and coordinating sortie and maintenance production ion and overall execution of the flying and maintenance schedule?
MOC.
107
Who is responsible for appointing, in writing, a highly qualified individual to manage the engine Health Management Program?
MXG/CC.
108
Which MOF section is responsible for coordinating aircraft maintenance requirements and ensuring proper utilization scheduling between the OG and MXG and any other applicable external agencies?
PS and D.
109
What is the primary mission of the Maintenance Management Analysis section?
To track, analyze, and present information to help the various levels of leadership assess the health of their Units aircraft and equipment.
110
Other than teaching, what is the mission of the Maintenance Training Flight?
To serve as MXG's single point of contact for all training matters affecting maintenance and to be responsible for the overall management and control of the training management subsystem of IMDS-CDB.
111
What are unit training managers responsible for in addition to assisting squadron commander with training matters?
Manage Squadron enlisted specialist training program.
112
Is the MTF normally allowed to duplicate training taught on base by a locally assigned AETC Training Detachment?
No.
113
Programs and Resources Flight personnel are primarily responsible for managing what programs within the MXG.
Manning, facilities, support agreements, and development program.
114
Within the Program and Resources Flight, who can give technical assistance for palletizing equipment or doing a deployment site survey?
The logistic planner.
115
What is the basic mission of an AMU?
To launch and recover A/C and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to support daily A/C flying operations.
116
What are the standard section of an AMU?
Debrief, A/C, specialist, weapons, and support.
117
What is the definition of sortie generation?
The cumulative effort required to launch and recover sorties.
118
In addition to closely monitoring aircraft status, who must the flight-line expediter notify when status and configuration changes occur?
MOC and the Pro Super.
119
What are some of the references that a flight-line expediter must keep close at hand to facilitate their duties?
Copies of the flying schedule, emergency action/functional checklist, base grid map with cordon overlay, IPI listing, MESL, QRL, WUC manual, and a tracking device for A/C status.
120
Flight-line expedites must track the serial number, location, priority, status, ETIC, and configuration of all aircraft. What are some of the other items that must be tracked?
OAP condition codes, fuel loads, munition load, and remarks for each aircraft as applicable.
121
What are some of the information elements that Debrief personnel enter into the applicable MIS.
Discrepancy and deviation info, utilization and applicable flight data (including landing status, system capability, and other applicable cause code).
122
Who is responsible for ensuring aircraft form sets are made available to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs have been suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?
Flight-line expediter or Pro Super.
123
What are some of the entries that Debrief must ensure that the aircraft commander/pilot makes on applicable AFTO 781 IMT's/Forms during the debriefing session?
New discrepancies noted, A/C condition codes, flying time, servicing data, and any other required entries.
124
What does an aircraft landing status code of 2 mean with regard to aircraft or system condition?
Aircraft or system has minor discrepancies but is capable of further mission assignment within normal turnaround times.
125
What are the three different types of crew chief positions that can be assigned to the aircraft section?
DCC, ADCC, and FCC.
126
In a general sense, what are DCC's and ADCC's charged with doing in respect to their assigned aircraft?
Managing and servicing all maintenance on their assigned aircraft.
127
The Specialist section is normally responsible for what duties?
Aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component R and I, reprogramming Avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management.
128
Why is the Specialist section NCOIC responsible for promoting cross-talk with other unit specialist section?
To obtain information on system/component repeat, recur, and CND trends.
129
Which specialist is responsible for maintaining ECS, bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems?
E and E.
130
Who must the specialist Expeditor coordinate with in determine maintenance priorities for specialist support?
With the Pro Super and Flight-line expediter.
131
What are two standard elements in an AMU Weapons Section?
Loading and Maintenance.
132
Who serves as the key advisor to the AMXS MOO on factors that affect weapons training, weapons loading, and armament system maintenance capabilities for the AMU?
Weapons Section NCOIC.
133
What are weapons expeditors responsible for monitoring with regard to the Weapons Section NCOIC?
Monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations.
134
Who must the weapons Expeditor coordinate with for the delivery and pick-up of munitions?
With MOC or Munitions Control.
135
Who is responsible for controlling access to an aircraft under going munitions loading and unloading?
Load crew chief.
136
The NCOIC of the AMU Support Section must come from one of what two AFSC's?
2Axxx or 2Wxxx.
137
What is the minimum amount of time that personnel are normally assigned to the Support Section?
12 months.
138
What information must Supply Support personnel keep expediters updated on?
The status of all back-ordered parts.
139
List the nine standard flights that make up the MXS.
Accessories, Age, Armament, Avionics, Fabrication, Maintenance, Munition, Propulsion, TMDE.
140
If the MXS has more than 700 manning authorizations, what do commanders have the option of doing?
They can separate MXS into two squadrons: EMS and CMS.
141
What sections are in a standard Accessories Flight?
The E and E, Egress, Fuel Systems, and Hydraulics section.
142
What Accessories Flight section is responsible for repairing oxygen and nitrogen servicing carts?
E and E
143
When Egress explosive devices are damaged or suspected to be unsafe, who does the Egress Section request assistance from?
EOD.
144
What three sections usually make up AGE Flight?
Repair and Inspection, Servicing/Pickup/ and Delivery, and Age Production Support.
145
What AGE Flight section is responsible for maintaining TO files?
AGE Production Support.
146
What is the overall mission of Armament Flight?
To perform off-equipment maintenance for assigned aircraft armament systems, guns, pylons, racks, launchers, and adapters.
147
Who does the Armament Flight CC/Chief assist in recommending distributions of 2W1X1 personnel to satisfy on-and off-equipment weapons release and gun system maintenance?
WWM.
148
Which Armament Flight section coordinates with MOF PS and D in scheduling inspections, TCTO's, and time-changes?
Armament Maintenance.
149
Which Avionics Flight section off-equipment maintenance and/or CND screening on communication and navigation components and systems, including assigned SE not maintained by TMDE?
Communication-Navigations.
150
Which Avionics Flight section maintains LANTIRN pods?
Sensors.
151
What section maintains, programs, and performs TCTO's on avionics components when the specific test stations and support equipment are available in the section?
Avionics Intermediate?
152
What section make up the Fabrication Flight?
Aircraft Structural, Maintenance, Low-Observation Aircraft Structural Maintenance, Metals Technology, and NDI.
153
What two Fabrication Flight sections are responsible for corrosion control?
ASM and LO
154
What is Metals Technology section tasked with doing?
Inspecting, repairing, servicing, manufacturing, fabrication, heat treating, testing, cleaning, and welding aircraft, equipment, components and tools.
155
What four sections normally make up the Maintenance Flight?
Repair and Reclamation, wheel and tire, aircraft inspections, and transient alert.
156
Which Maintenance Flight removes, replaces, and rigs flight control surfaces?
Repair and Reclamation.
157
What is the definition of transient aircraft?
Aircraft not assigned to the local base and are en route from one location to another that may require routine servicing.
158
Which Munitions Flight section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers?
Munitions Production.
159
Which Munitions Flight section manages unit mobility and training programs?
Munitions system.
160
Who acts as the wing focal point for propulsion maintenance programs and gives advice to wing leadership about propulsion issues?
Propulsion Flight CC/Chief.
161
Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?
JEIM.
162
Which Propulsion Flight section is responsible for maintaining, managing, and storing engine support trailers?
Engine Equipment Maintenance.
163
Which TMDE Flight section performs in-laboratory and on-site calibration and repair using laboratory equipment and calibration standards?
PMEL.
164
Who do the PMEL QA Section evaluators report their inspection findings to?
TMDE flight CC/Chief.
165
What are the four elements of the TMDE Production Control section?
Customer Service, production scheduling, traffic management, and maintenance supply liaison.
