{ "@context": "https://schema.org", "@type": "Organization", "name": "Brainscape", "url": "https://www.brainscape.com/", "logo": "https://www.brainscape.com/pks/images/cms/public-views/shared/Brainscape-logo-c4e172b280b4616f7fda.svg", "sameAs": [ "https://www.facebook.com/Brainscape", "https://x.com/brainscape", "https://www.linkedin.com/company/brainscape", "https://www.instagram.com/brainscape/", "https://www.tiktok.com/@brainscapeu", "https://www.pinterest.com/brainscape/", "https://www.youtube.com/@BrainscapeNY" ], "contactPoint": { "@type": "ContactPoint", "telephone": "(929) 334-4005", "contactType": "customer service", "availableLanguage": ["English"] }, "founder": { "@type": "Person", "name": "Andrew Cohen" }, "description": "Brainscape’s spaced repetition system is proven to DOUBLE learning results! Find, make, and study flashcards online or in our mobile app. Serious learners only.", "address": { "@type": "PostalAddress", "streetAddress": "159 W 25th St, Ste 517", "addressLocality": "New York", "addressRegion": "NY", "postalCode": "10001", "addressCountry": "USA" } }
Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CDC 3D153 > VOL.1 URE > Flashcards

VOL.1 URE Flashcards

(76 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan
(CFETP) part I?

A

Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

A

Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

A

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video
network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic
equipment?

A

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training
guides (JSTG)?

A

Job safety training outline (JSTO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or
property at risk?

A

457

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift
work. noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A

Stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground,
weapons, or space safety?

A

Hazard reporting program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more
than how many pounds?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death
is

A

50 mA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation
overexposure occurs?

A

72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation
practices?

A

TO 31 - 10 series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A

Upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

A

Minimize transmission loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How are connectorized cables labeled?

A

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

A

Adhesive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

A

Flight commander/chief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three main functions of grounding?

A

Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

A

lightning protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

A

Bonding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The RED designation is used for equipment processing

A

clear-text classified information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from O - 999 volts?

A

Class I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

A

Walking across carpet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between
the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?

A

Source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?
Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
26
Which of the follow ing statements is true concerning shielding?
Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
27
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
enemy jamming.
28
What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
Rapid tuning transmitter.
29
What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
Power line.
30
Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
Joint Spectrum Center.
31
Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?
Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
32
What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
Distance and angles.
33
What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?
Nickel cadmium.
34
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
Sag.
35
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
Blackout.
36
What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EM!) and radio frequency interference (RF!)?
Noise.
37
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?
Passive standby.
38
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?
Line interactive.
39
How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?
Three.
40
What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
Amplitude, frequency, and phase
41
When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
42
What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
Frequency of the modulating signal.
43
The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
percent of modulation.
44
Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
no reduction in carrier power
45
The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in
positive half cycle of the modulating signal.
46
A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
3
47
What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
Guard band.
48
What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.
49
What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
The analog signal is band limited.
50
Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is
placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.
51
In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?
Parity.
52
If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?
Block of data
53
``` The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines ```
parity.
54
What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?
VRC and LRC.
55
When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
Receiving end.
56
In telecommunications cable, the " tip" or "primary" wire color group order is
white, red, black, yellow, and violet.
57
Two types of network cables are
straight through and crossover.
58
An optical transmitter is comprised of
a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.
59
What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?
10 MHz- 100 MHz/km
60
Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?
Single mode fiber
61
A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
patch cord
62
What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
Trunks.
63
Which device has multi port connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Router.
64
Which routing protocol do lntemet backbones use?
Border gateway protocol (BGP).
65
Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
public network.
66
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
Encapsulates data.
67
What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?
Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm
68
Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for
future growth
69
Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?
Get
70
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
Biometrics.
71
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
Spam.
72
Which vulnerabil ity preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
Patches
73
What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?
Uninterruptible power supply.
74
In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the
auxiliary port.
75
When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?
Display hold.
76
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

CDC 3D153 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions