VOL.1 URE

Question 1

Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan
(CFETP) part I?

Answer 1

Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).

Question 2

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

Answer 2

Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153

Question 3

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

Answer 3

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

Question 4

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video
network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic
equipment?

Answer 4

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

Question 5

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training
guides (JSTG)?

Answer 5

Job safety training outline (JSTO).

Question 6

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or
property at risk?

Answer 6

457

Question 7

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift
work. noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Answer 7

Stress.

Question 8

Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground,
weapons, or space safety?

Answer 8

Hazard reporting program.

Question 9

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more
than how many pounds?

Answer 9

25

Question 10

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death
is

Answer 10

50 mA.

Question 11

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation
overexposure occurs?

Answer 11

72

Question 12

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation
practices?

Answer 12

TO 31 - 10 series

Question 13

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Answer 13

Upper

Question 14

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Answer 14

Minimize transmission loss

Question 15

How are connectorized cables labeled?

Answer 15

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

Question 16

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

Answer 16

Adhesive.

Question 17

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

Answer 17

Flight commander/chief.

Question 18

What are the three main functions of grounding?

Answer 18

Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

Question 19

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

Answer 19

lightning protection.

Question 20

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

Answer 20

Bonding.

Question 21

The RED designation is used for equipment processing

Answer 21

clear-text classified information.

Question 22

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from O - 999 volts?

Answer 22

Class I.

Question 23

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

Answer 23

Walking across carpet.

Question 24

Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between
the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?

Answer 24

Source.

Question 25

What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?

Answer 25

Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.

Question 26

Which of the follow ing statements is true concerning shielding?

Answer 26

Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

Question 27

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

Answer 27

enemy jamming.

Question 28

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

Answer 28

Rapid tuning transmitter.

Question 29

What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

Answer 29

Power line.

Question 30

Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

Answer 30

Joint Spectrum Center.

Question 31

Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?

Answer 31

Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

Question 32

What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Answer 32

Distance and angles.

Question 33

What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?

Answer 33

Nickel cadmium.

Question 34

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

Answer 34

Sag.

Question 35

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Answer 35

Blackout.

Question 36

What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EM!) and radio frequency interference (RF!)?

Answer 36

Noise.

Question 37

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?

Answer 37

Passive standby.

Question 38

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Answer 38

Line interactive.

Question 39

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Answer 39

Three.

Question 40

What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

Answer 40

Amplitude, frequency, and phase

Question 41

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains

Answer 41

carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

Question 42

What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?

Answer 42

Frequency of the modulating signal.

Question 43

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the

Answer 43

percent of modulation.

Question 44

Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

Answer 44

no reduction in carrier power

Question 45

The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in

Answer 45

positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

Question 46

A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?

Answer 46

3

Question 47

What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?

Answer 47

Guard band.

Question 48

What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?

Answer 48

Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

Question 49

What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

Answer 49

The analog signal is band limited.

Question 50

Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is

Answer 50

placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.

Question 51

In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?

Answer 51

Parity.

Question 52

If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?

Answer 52

Block of data

Question 53

``` The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines ```

Answer 53

parity.

Question 54

What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

Answer 54

VRC and LRC.

Question 55

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

Answer 55

Receiving end.

Question 56

In telecommunications cable, the " tip" or "primary" wire color group order is

Answer 56

white, red, black, yellow, and violet.

Question 57

Two types of network cables are

Answer 57

straight through and crossover.

Question 58

An optical transmitter is comprised of

Answer 58

a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.

Question 59

What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

Answer 59

10 MHz- 100 MHz/km

Question 60

Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

Answer 60

Single mode fiber

Question 61

A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

Answer 61

patch cord

Question 62

What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

Answer 62

Trunks.

Question 63

Which device has multi port connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Answer 63

Router.

Question 64

Which routing protocol do lntemet backbones use?

Answer 64

Border gateway protocol (BGP).

Question 65

Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

Answer 65

public network.

Question 66

Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?

Answer 66

Encapsulates data.

Question 67

What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?

Answer 67

Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm

Question 68

Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for

Answer 68

future growth

Question 69

Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?

Answer 69

Get

Question 70

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Answer 70

Biometrics.

Question 71

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Answer 71

Spam.

Question 72

Which vulnerabil ity preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Answer 72

Patches

Question 73

What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?

Answer 73

Uninterruptible power supply.

Question 74

In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the

Answer 74

auxiliary port.

Question 75

When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?

Answer 75

Display hold.

Question 76

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Answer 76

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.