Volume 1 Flashcards

(120 cards)

1
Q

What are the Air Force core values?

A

Integrity, service before self, and excellence

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2
Q

Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the

A

leader

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3
Q

When people are taught the right way to do something, they’re also being taught the

A

safe way

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4
Q

How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?

A

As a separate item from the training

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5
Q

If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment
improperly, you should

A

alert them to the potential hazards

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6
Q

A major cause of accidents is

A

horseplay

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7
Q

Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical
systems?

A

Plastic rim glasses.

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8
Q

If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?

A

Use a hand truck or forklift.

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9
Q

Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

A

Emotional irritability.

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10
Q

When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not
exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

A

30

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11
Q

You use compressed air to clean clothing when

A

it is not on the body

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12
Q

What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing
operations?

A

Do not need to ground.

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13
Q

During engine runup, all unnecessary personnel and equipment will be kept clear at least what
distance from the rotary wing aircraft?

A

A distance equal to its length.

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14
Q

Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during
engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to

A

droop at decreased speeds

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15
Q

Radiation hazards vary based on the

A

strength of emission and time of exposure

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16
Q

What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is
operating?

A

25 ft

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17
Q

Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered “explosives-loaded”?

A

Flares

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18
Q

What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?

A

Remove all ammunition and explosives

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19
Q

The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

A

distance criteria.

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20
Q

When possible, from where should you fight a fire?

A

The upwind side

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21
Q

A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class

A

B

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22
Q

A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

A

C

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23
Q

A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a

A

D

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24
Q

Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher
headquarters?

A

Supplement

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25
Which visual aid gives examples of international aircraft marshaling signals?
AFVA 11-224
26
Which publication contains official and professional information on matters related to defense policies and programs of interest?
Staff digests
27
Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air Force bases and activities?
Limited
28
Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with
TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System
29
In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?
Fourth
30
Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH– 60G helicopter?
TO 1H–1(H)G–6.
31
Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders (TCTO)?
TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System
32
An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within one to
10 days
33
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a hazard through prolonged continued usage?
Routine action.
34
Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft efficiently?
inspection workcards
35
How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?
Immediately
36
Which level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of using organizations?
Intermediate
37
Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order(AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?
Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.
38
What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?
Emergency recall or mobilization rosters
39
Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?
Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
40
During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, besides performing maintenance found during the look phase, what other maintenance is performed?
Preplanned maintenance
41
Who establishes the requirements for the development of a 3-level, career development course (CDC), and exportable training courses?
Career field
42
Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?
Local or major command (MAJCOM).
43
How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?
5
44
When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection should you perform?
Pre-flight
45
When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection should you perform?
Basic post-flight.
46
What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?
Acceptance
47
Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?
Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document
48
Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?
AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight Document.
49
Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781- series forms?
Crew chief
50
``` The technical orders (TO) that authorize the use of abbreviations for use in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms are listed in ```
TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.
51
Which symbol represents an unknown condition and a more serious condition may exist?
Red dash
52
Which Air Force form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21 equipment?
AF Form 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record
53
Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form serves as a permanent history of significant actions for an aircraft?
AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data
54
The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for
collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
55
Which is not an intended user for maintenance data documentation (MDD) data?
Worldwide Data Collection Center (WDCC).
56
Individual Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) identification (ID) passwords should be changed whenever compromise is suspected or not more than every
60 days
57
Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of
not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.
58
Critical items may be designated by the local chief
of supply
59
Which expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) are considered repair asset codes?
XD or XF
60
Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?
AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.
61
To verify the Daily Document Register (D04), a requesting organization or shop should retain what Air Force (AF) Form
2413, Supply control log.
62
Within how many hours is a submission of a Category I deficiency report required?
24
63
What are the three classifications of defects for material and equipment?
Critical, major, and minor
64
What preferred method uses Microsoft Access to draft and submit deficiency reports?
DREAMS II.
65
A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by
making frequent visits to base activities
66
Which type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?
Custodial.
67
When using a 12-inch torque wrench handle with a 3-inch extension to torque a flight control bolt to 120 inch-pounds, what is the proper torque setting?
96 inch-pounds
68
When setting your torque wrench prior to torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft clamp, you must figure out the
nut friction torque, and add it to the required torque value
69
The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the
handle at the lowest setting
70
The C–8-type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from
10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent
71
Which special tool is used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel?
Propeller protractor
72
What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?
The LCD displays “LOW BAT”
73
How many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?
2
74
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
groove on the end of the barrel.
75
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts may be wired in a series?
3
76
How many turns per inch are allowed on .020 gauge safety wire?
9-12
77
``` What is the purpose of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuous Sheet)? ```
A continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record
78
What Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) roster shows a documented record of your certified powered support equipment qualifications?
Special certification roster
79
On a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready, but not required for use, a service inspection should be accomplished every
7 days
80
Which optional feature can be installed on the –86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current (VDC)?
Transformer rectifier
81
On the –86 generator control panel, the indication of a clogged air filter is a
yellow air service indicator flag
82
What is another name for engine wash cart?
Spray unit cart.
83
On the engine wash cart, the mixer assembly produces a water to soap ratio of
4:1
84
When you start the first hydraulic high-pressure pump motor on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, approximately how many seconds must you wait before you proceed to the next system so that the motor can go into the “run” configuration?
3-4
85
With the motor running on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, which valve should you press to relieve any air that was trapped in the system from the fill and bleed operation?
Bleed
86
What is the maximum output of the MC–2A air compressor?
200 psi
87
Up to how many feet can the MA–3 ground air conditioner unit be self-propelled using battery power?
200
88
What must be replaced on the nitrogen cart after dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas?
Purifier cartridge.
89
What is the purpose of the cellophane wrap on the separation membranes on the Self Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC)?
Necessary for proper function and nitrogen production
90
The hydraulic relief valves on the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit are set at what maximum and minimum levels to relieve the low and high pressure systems from excessive pressure?
100 psi (low); 3,300 psi (high).
91
What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–1 stand?
10
92
What is the maximum weight, in pounds, allowed on the B–5 maintenance stand?
600
93
What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–7 stand?
16
94
Prior to lowering jacks and helicopter, you must check
and remove all obstructions
95
What is the maximum lifting capacity, in pounds, of the J–1 hoist?
5000
96
The usual way of counteracting torque in a single-rotor helicopter is to
use an anti-torque tail rotor
97
A pilot would use autorotation
during an emergency landing with an engine failure
98
To correct for the dissymmetry of lift, the helicopter uses
a flapping hinge.
99
Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?
Ground resonance.
100
What is incorporated into the cyclic system to prevent gyroscopic precession?
Offset linkage.
101
Which aircraft design allows for stronger and lighter structure?
Semi-monocoque
102
An aircraft weight and balance update is required
when a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed.
103
The fuel servicing point is identified by a black
four-pointed star
104
What form of corrosion occurs from the combined effects of abrasion and wear and corrosion at the interface of two contacting surfaces?
Fretting
105
Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?
Removing rust
106
You should not clean exterior plastic surfaces with
Cheesecloth
107
What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers; disbond adhesives, and craze plastics?
Steam cleaning.
108
When washing the engines and the outside air temperature is between 5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) and 40°F, what should the percentage ratio mix of methanol or isopropyl alcohol in the water solution be?
60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol
109
Lubrication charts showing what type of lubricant to use on aircraft components can be found in
the applicable –2–1 aircraft technical order (TO) or interactive electronic technical manual (IETM) for the CV–22.
110
Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be
filtered before use
111
All of the following are publications that apply to aircraft towing except
AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
112
What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?
3
113
To lessen the danger of a tripod jack pivoting while it supports helicopter, you should
make sure two legs of the tripod jack are parallel to the fuselage centerline.
114
Who should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft?
Qualified weapons personnel.
115
What is the proper sequence to ground an aircraft after flight?
Ground to aircraft
116
Pertaining to navy shipboard personnel, what color jersey does a safety officer wear?
White
117
When refueling, what is the minimum safe distance between aircraft?
50 ft
118
Before you move the aircraft into a fuel cell, you must first
purge and dry the tanks.
119
To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, you should
use the aircraft intercom system.
120
Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?
Schematic.