Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDC 2T370N > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

As a work center supervisor, who do you work with to build your MTP and ITP’s?

A

Unit Training Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who shares the overall responsibilities for the vehicle management training program?

A

The VFM/VMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can a civilian be a appointed as the vehicle training monitor? If so, why?

A

Yes, for continuity purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the other responsibilities of the vehicle management training monitor?

A

Preparing and submitting AETC I’m resident training requests, assisting in the development and use of training requirements and techniques, and briefing VFM/VMS on status of all personnel in upgrade training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are two of the biggest factors/challenges that the VFM/VMS and the training monitor have to overcome?

A

The influx of inexperienced (3-level) personnel and contingency tastings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define financial planning.

A

The process of allocating funds towards competing needs, taking into account your income goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long are TCTOs active

A

Active until the rescission date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where can you get a copy of the Materials Safety Data Sheet if yours is missing?

A

Civil Engineering Environmental Flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Keeping a complete file of MSDS for each hazardous chemical and mixture used in the workplace

A

Can effectively reduce waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What basic duty do vehicle maintenance shops have for hazardous waste management?

A

Collect, identify, and document waste produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who must determine whether a solid waste is hazardous, as defined in the regulations?

A

The person who generated it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which hazardous waste will most likely be generated by vehicle maintenance shops?

A

Degreasing solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why should hazardous waste containers be placed on pallets?

A

To reduce corrosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which country is the largest user of energy?

A

United States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the best thing individuals can do to help reduce air pollution?

A

Use public transportation where practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard (STD) 91-20 contains basic information for operating

A

A vehicle maintenance shop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When operating a wire wheel that has an eye shield AFOSH standards require personnel wear

A

Safety glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the AFOSH standard 91-501, Chapter 18, Machinery, require for the use of abrasive wheel machinery in the shop?

A

Machine must be securely mounted and grinding wheels guarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which chapter in AFOSH standard 91-501, covers vehicle maintenance battery shops?

A

Chapter 19, Emergency Shower and Eyewash Units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As a Vehicle Management Supervisor, your main purpose and responsibility is to

A

Implement approved policy by leading airmen of lower grades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

As a VM work center supervisor, which are specific responsibilities that you have?

A

Ensure proper tools are readily available, assigning work, enforcing safety procedures, and meeting training needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When planning and assigning work requirements, you as VM supervisor need to consider the priority of the work to be done,

A

The task that needs to be done, and workers’ abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To whom is the mission essential level (MEL) presented for final approval?.

A

Mission Support Group Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

As a VM supervisor, should assign a specific repair to individuals by

A

Ability and knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are vehicle components that are authorized depot repair codes in the Federal Supply?

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which condition must be met before a depot eligible vehicle is approved for depot maintenance?

A

Required repairs are clearly beyond the base vehicle management capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who approves or disapproves all requests for depot overhaul?

A

Warner Robins Air Logistics Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When and whom is the base 5-year projected depot maintenance requirements submitted?

A

15 July to MAJCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who specifically authorizes substitutions for vehicles already programmed for depot?

A

Warner Robins Air Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many years are added to the life expectancy of a depot overhauled vehicle?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is the warranty period for all depot overhauled vehicles?

A

According to specific contract specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Areas that should be considered prior to assigning an individual to perform quality assurance (QA) inspections are

A

Skill level, broad expertise, and ability to avoid favoritism or bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Choose the phrase that best describes manpower.

A

The total number of jobs or positions required to accomplish a particular mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Factors that affect manpower authorizations are called

A

Variances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is a negative manpower variance?

A

Material control function realigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The financial obligation to pay for the loss, damage, or destruction of a vehicle resulting from abuse is known as

A

Pecuniary liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many categories of property are in the supply system?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of equipment item is required by field units to do their jobs?

A

Organizational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Items that are needed to outfit an individual stationed in a cold weather area are called

A

Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the code used to identify repairable cycle assets that are primarily under depot level control?

A

XD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Consumables are expendable, non-repairable items that have the identifying indicator

A

XB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which publication is used as a starting reference for justifying tools and equipment?

A

TO 36-1-50, Motor Vehicle Maintenance Guide

43
Q

Which publication is used to identify “shop-specific” equipment by type and quantity?

A

ASC 457

44
Q

What is the benefit to you, your shop, and/or the Air Force from the Vendor Product Evaluation Program?

A

Industry develops products that are cost effective, high quality, easy to use, and safe.

45
Q

What role does the Logistics Readiness Squadron play in the war planning process?

A

Provide necessary forces to accomplish the in-theatre mission.

46
Q

Who is responsible for developing the concept of operations (CONOP) upon receipt of tasking to support a national security objective and military objectives?

A

Supported commander

47
Q

What are directed at the Air Force-level, built at the major command (MAJCOM) level, and filled at the squadron level?

A

Unit type code (UTC).

48
Q

Who determines the make up of a UTC in rank, skill-level, Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), and numbers?

A

Major command (MAJCOM).

49
Q

The mission capability (MISCAP) statement associated with a UTC contains

A

Type and amount of work to be performed.

50
Q

The three main principles of the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) are

A

Teaming and light, lean, lethal.

51
Q

How many bands make up the Global AEF

A

5

52
Q

What is the difference in information reported by the AEF Reporting Tool (ART) and Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

A

ART reports readiness of a UTC and SORTS reports unit readiness

53
Q

What method of assessment does the AEF ART use to measure readiness?

A

Stoplight

54
Q

What is a declaration of the mission for which a unit has been equipped, organized, designed, and tasked?

A

Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

55
Q

How many levels of unit combat readiness are there for SORTS report submitted?

A

Monthly

56
Q

The overall combat readiness rating in the SORTS is determined by the

A

Unit commander

57
Q

Who provides logistics support to facilitate deployment operations?

A

LRS commander

58
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring their people are properly trained and evaluated, and records are maintained?

A

Work center supervisor.

59
Q

Which deployment work center is the focal point for deployment operations?

A

Deployment Control Center (DCC)

60
Q

Which deployment work center provides services such as issuing dog tags

A

Personnel Deployment Function (PDF)

61
Q

Perform preventive maintenance and inspection and special inspections on vehicles prior to deployment

A

If due within 90 days.

62
Q

Who inspects and approves each vehicle and documentation package prior to shipment, ensuring suitability and compliance?

A

VM superintendent.

63
Q

Which parts support kit provides lateral support to multiple bases?

A

Contingency high priority mission support kit (CHPMSK).

64
Q

Which parts support kit is designed and pre-assembled based on wartime tastings developed during war planning?

A

Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP).

65
Q

You can find vehicle specific parts listing on the VM Community of Practice for which parts kit?

A

Temporary mission support kit (TMSK)

66
Q

Temporary mission support kits (TMSK) are designed to vehicles operating in adverse condition for

A

30 days.

67
Q

When planning deployed facilities, how much of the vehicle fleet must fit into shop work areas?

A

5 percent

68
Q

On-scene repair is the goal of

A

Expanded mobile maintenance

69
Q

The process of assessing damage, putting the priority vehicles first, and doing cannibalization or whatever it takes to get those vehicles back in commission is called

A

Triage maintenance

70
Q

Which priority level is used for sortie sustaining vehicles and equipment?

A

Priority 2

71
Q

Which is not an advantage of a compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicle?

A

Conversion cost

72
Q

What valve should be closed before testing or servicing the compressed natural gas system?

A

Manual shutoff

73
Q

Why is the timing adaptation system used for on a compressed natural gas vehicle?

A

Controls engine timing

74
Q

The feedback system on a compressed natural gas vehicle is used to

A

Maximize engine performance

75
Q

What is meant by a regenerative brake system on an electric vehicle?

A

Energy produced during braking recharges the batteries

76
Q

The least amount of power or propulsion systems a hybrid vehicle utilizes are

A

2

77
Q

Diesel hybrids are not commonly used in the United States because

A

Of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides in the exhaust, and higher noise and vibration.

78
Q

When is regenerative breaking most efficient on a hybrid vehicle?

A

At higher speeds

79
Q

On which theory are fuel cells based?

A

Reverse electrolysis

80
Q

What is not an advantage of fuel cells over battery-powered vehicles?

A

Cost

81
Q

In an air bag system, how is the inflator assembly electrically connected between the safing sensor and crash sensors?

A

In series

82
Q

What component in the air bag system provides an electrical ground that allows current to flow through the inflator?

A

Crash sensor

83
Q

Where are crash sensors usually located on most vehicles?

A

Front of the vehicle near the grille

84
Q

Which location is not a common location of the dating sensor?

A

Inside the trunk

85
Q

What is the correct position to place a live inflator assembly on a workbench?

A

Trim cover facing away from the surface of the bench.

86
Q

What will cause deployment of an air bag?

A

One closed safing sensor and one closed crash sensor.

87
Q

What HMMWV suspension system component dampens suspension movement and limits amount of suspension travel?

A

Shock absorbers

88
Q

At what angle is the radiator mounted in a HMMWV?

A

45 degrees

89
Q

What gauge wire does most M-series automotive circuits use?

A

14 gauge.

90
Q

When you can see four blackout marker lights of the vehicle front during a night time convoy, it means you are too

A

Close to the vehicle.

91
Q

Which simplified test equipment for internal combustion engines (STE/ICE) connectors is used to connect the vehicle test meter (VTM) to a vehicle diagnostic connector?

A

J1.

92
Q

What is the primary purpose of the M-series 2 1/2-ton truck?

A

Transport troops or heavy loads up to 5,000 pounds.

93
Q

How many forward and reverse gears are available when using the transmission in conjunction with the transfer case on the 2 1/2-ton M-series?

A

Eight forward and two reverse.

94
Q

What major component of the 5-ton M-series medium wrecker is used to control the operating gear ratio of the rear winch drive motor?

A

Torque control lever.

95
Q

What voltage(s) can the electrical system of the MaxxPro Cat 1 MRAP vehicle provide?

A

12, 24, and 110V

96
Q

What condition does the life support system in the MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle create in the cab?

A

Safe

97
Q

Which areas protected by the fire suppression system on the MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle operate automatically?

A

Engine and interior.

98
Q

Which area(s) protected by the fire suppression system on the MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle operate manually?

A

Interior, engine, fuel tank and tires.

99
Q

On the MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle, which armor component attaches externally to the base armor?

A

Catcher plates.

100
Q

On the MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle, what assists the operator in the opening and closing the forward doors?

A

Air

101
Q

Which MaxxPro CAT 1 MRAP vehicle winch accessory increases the self-recovery winch’s pulling power?

A

Snatch block

102
Q

The conventional and blackout lighting systems on the the Cougar 6x6 MRAP vehicle are controlled by

A

A rotary switch.

103
Q

At what pressure does the NBC system in the Cougar CAT 2 MRAP vehicle pressure alarm/light shut off?

A

3 inches of WC.

104
Q

The tint on the interior of the glass on the Cougar 6x6 CAT 2 MRAP vehicle reduces interior temperatures

A

50%

CDC 2T370N (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions