Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What must be present to produce fire?

A

Fuel, heat, oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define flash point

A

The lowest temperature where combustible vapors will ignite is the flash point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define ignition point

A

Ignition point is the minimum temperature where a combustible will continue to burn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do you do if you store over 10 gallons of a flammable liquid?

A

Normally they are stored outside the building, in a cabinet painted yellow labeled “FLAMMABLE–KEEP FIRE AWAY”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How often do you empty dirty/oily rags?

A

Empty them at least once a daily, and move to a safe location outside the building for secheduled pickup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How to store clean rags?

A

In a separate container, marked “CLEAN RAGS ONLY”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who’s job is saftey?

A

Everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the saftey of sealded drums?

A

Don’t perform any cutting or welding on them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When welding what type of ventailation do you need?

A

postive airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What metals do you need a particle mask for?

A

Beryllium, magnesium, titanium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the saftey AFI?

A

AFI 91-203

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who are the MSDS posted for?

A

EVeryone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where should you wear double hearing proctection?

A

It is advisable to wear double hearing protection when you are operating equipment inside a hanger, shelter, or bunker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the radar danger zone on aircraft?

A

The radar danger zone extends from the aircraft antenna in a radius of 50 feet and covers an arc of 100 degress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first step to take when leaaving the cock pit or flight deck area?

A

inspet your tools and equimpent and make sure you have accounted for every tool and every hardware item before you leave the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of maintance forms?

A

Maintance forms provide a permanent record of all maintance records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What form is used to docment any maintance action on an aircraft or other weapon system?

A

AFTO 781

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

On the AFTO form 781 what does the signature consits of?

A

The first name initial, complete last name, grade, and employee number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

On the AFTO form 781 what does the date contain?

A

The day and the month each use two digits and the year uses only one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to upgrade a symbol on the AFTO Form 781?

A

Line through the name of the person who made the entry, and enter their own signature, grade, and employee number, above or beside the signature block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What to do if an erronous red symbol is entered in the forms?

A

Enter this statement in the corrective action block, “Symbol entered in error, Item reentered on page ____, item _____.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a RED X is entered who may authorize or direct an aircraft to fly?

A

No one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many entries may be put under one RED X?

A

Each RED X symbol will always be a separte AFTO Form 781A entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many signatures does a RED X reguire?

A

TWO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are RED DIAGONAL enterented?

A

The RED DIAGONAL extends from the upper righthand corner to the lower left hand corner of the block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

With the RED DIAGONAL where else must it be released?

A

The RED DIAGONAL must also be released in block 9 of the AFTO 781H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common symbol entered in on the AFTO 781A?

A

The RED DIAGONAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What to do if a RED DIAGONAL leads to a more in-dept maintanince action?

A

Enter a RED X in the next open symbol block. On the orignal RED DIAGONAL entry, make a reference to the RED X in the corrective action block, but don’t close out the RED DIAGONAL until you’re sure your original discrepancy has been corrected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where else must a RED DASH be released before it can fly?

A

A RED DASH symbol reqires a release in block 9 of AFTO Form 781H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What to do when a new AFTO Form 781A is initiated?

A

Transfer any uncorrected discrepancies, other than RED X items, to the AFTO Form 781K.

If transfering to a new 781A enter the page number, item number, the date of the new form, and sign the TRANSFERED BY block.

When transfering to the 781K enter the date of the transfer and signs in the TRANSFERED BY block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

On the AFTO Form 781A, when transfering entries to a new form, what do you put on the symbol?

A

Nothing, this reprensents only transcribing action and does not correct the orignal reported condion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the AFTO 781K?

A

This form keeps a record and tracks inspections due or inspections completed.

Delayed discrepancies may be transferred from AFTO From 781A.

Don’t place RED X entries on the AFTO From 781K.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the AFTO 781H?

A

It shows the current status of the aircraft and serves as a ready reference to the servicing, maintenance, and inspection history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What to do if a fiberglass hammer haddle cracks, and why?

A

Replace it. If the handle is split, it will continue to break until the head eventually falls off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you tigten a lose hammer head?

A

try to replace the wedge, if that does not work replace the handle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to clean up the face of the hammer?

A

regrind it to clean it up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common type of hammer in Metals Technology shops?

A

The ball peen hammer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are soft face hammers used for?

A

Soft face hammers are used to to strike heavy blows without marring the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are dead blow hammers filled with?

A

Lead shot to help increase the impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the included angle of a prick punch?

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the included angle of a center punch?

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When using a drive punch?

A

Use a series of light taps, instead of heavy blows. Heavy blows more often bend the punch intead of driving out the bolt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the included angle of a chisel?

A

60 or 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When do you grind a 70 degree cutting edge on a chisel?

A

For cutting hard materials like carbon steel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When do you grind a 60 degree cutting edge on a chisel?

A

For cutting soft materials like aluinum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where do you hold piers and why?

A

Hold them tightly near the end of the handle to create more leverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When do you not use a pair of pliers?

A

When you can use a wrench.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do hex-key or Allen wrenches come in?

A

1/32 to 1 inch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How to lubricate an air drill?

A

Put a drop of oil in the air intake about once a week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How to hold a handheld sander?

A

Hold it so the sanding disk forms an angle of approximately 15 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens if handheld sander is held at a wrong angle?

A

If the angle is too great it will gouge the work piece. if the angle isn’t enough, the sander will be hard to control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How much pressure do you apply for a handheld sander?

A

Apply just enough pressure to cause the disk to flattenslightly and use a stady back-and-forth motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most common size of shop surface plates?

A

12 x 18 and 18 x 24.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the tolerance rage of surface plates?

A

0.00005 - 0.00025.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How to clean a cast iron surface plate?

A

Use dry-cleaning fluid with a clean cloth to remove any sticky flim, rust, or tarnish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When not in use, how do you protect the surface of a cast iron surface plate.

A

First, apply a light oil flim over the entire surface, and then install a wooden cover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many gage blocks come in sets?

A

They come in sets of 5 to 103 in various thinknesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

With gage blocks what are the dregees of accuracy?

A

The highest is grade AA, with an accuracy of 0.000002. Grade A is 0.000006 for blocks 1 inch or thinker and 0.000002 for ones that are less. Grade B are the common ones. These are common ones. They are known as working blocks. They are +0.000010 and -0.000006.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do you wring gage blocks?

A

To wring gage blocks bring them lightly together in a circular motion. If wringing produces a smooth action, slide the top block halfway off the lower block, Apply light pressure, and then slide the block into full contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How deep can a depth micrometer measure?

A

The range of measurements for depth micrometers is 1 inch. Larger distances can be meaured with extension rods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the range an inside micrometer?

A

0.500 inch, with the body being 1 1/2 inches. You can’t messure holes smaller than 1 1/2 inches. Use extenstion rods for holes over 2 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe an internal micrometer?

A

The internal micrometer uses a three-point measuring contact system to determice the size of a bore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe an ball micrometer?

A

The ball micrometer has a rounded anvil and flat spindle. Use it to check the wall thickness of cylinders, sleeves, rings, and other parts that have a hole bored into them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe an blade micrometer?

A

A blade micrometer has an anvil and spindle that are thin and flat. The spindle has a no rotating attachment that advances to contact the work without turning. This feature permits you to measure the depth of a narrow shoulder without having the blade roll off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who and when invented the vernier scale?

A

In 1631, Pierre Vernier, a French Mathematician.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

After how much wear should you replace or repair a vernier caliper.

A

If the flatness or parallelism of the jaw’s edges exceed approximately 0.0005 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the accuracy of the bevel protractor?

A

The accuracy of the vernier bevel protractor is +/-1/12 degrees, or 5 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How fast do you run the spindle when using a coaxial dial indicator?

A

500 to 600 revoulutions per minute (RPM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a 14 pitch blade?

A

Use a 14 pitch blade on Al and Cu. The course pitch makes the sawing fast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a 18 pitch blade?

A

This one is recomened for general use. Use it on solid stock, cast brass (soft or hard), tool steel, high-speed steel, cast iron, and so forth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a 24 pitch blade?

A

Use it on tubing, channel iron, and sheet metal thicker than 0.047 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a 32 pitch blade?

A

use it on thin materials sheet metal thinner than 0.047 inches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a all-hard blade?

A

Use it on materials with a heavy cross section, brass, tool steel, cast iron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When useing a hacksaw blade when do you use a flexible blade?

A

Use it when sawing hollow shapes and metals of light cross sections (tubing, tin, copper).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do you use a hacksaw?

A

use pressure on the forward stroke and reduce pressure on the return stroke. Use a cutting speed of 40 to 50 strokes per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do you use a file?

A

For conventional filing, don’t aply pressure on the back stroke. Don’t exceed 30 to 40 strokes per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe a mill file?

A

Mill files are used mainly for sharpening milling cutters and saw blades. These files taper slightly in thickness and width for approximately one-third of their length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe a Half-round file?

A

Half-round files are used mainly to file concave surfaces. They are double-cut and tapered in width and thickness toward the point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe a round file?

A

Round files are mainly used to file or enlarge circular openings, or to file concave surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe a square file?

A

Square files are used for filing keyways, slots, and corners, and for general use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe a three-square file?

A

Three-square files are used for filing acute internal angles, clear out square corners, and repair damaged threads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Describe a flat file?

A

Flat files are used for all common filling operations. These files taper slightly toward the point in width and thickness. They are double-cut on both sides and single-cut on both edges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe a solid hand reamer?

A

The solid hand reamer is a general-purpose eamer for operations where a common fractional size is required. A straight-hand reamer is tapered at the start of the cutting edges for a distance equal to the diameter of the reamer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do you rough drill for a taper pin reamer?

A

The size of rough-drilled or bored hole should be approximaely 0.002 to 0.015 inch smaller then the reamer size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

On a liner reamer, what is the size of the pilot?

A

The dameter of the pilot is 0.005 inches smaller than the diameter of the reamer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What material should not be broached?

A

Don’t broach materials harder than Rockwell C35.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

With tapping how big should the chamfer be?

A

After dilling the hole the chamfer should be equal to the major diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is a fraction?

A

A fraction is a number that shows how man equal parts of a number or whole are taken or used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

With a fraction, what is the denoinator?

A

The number that shows how many total parts there are in the whole. It is written below the line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

With a fraction, what is the Numerator?

A

The number that shows how many of the equal parts of the whole have been usedto leave a fraction reamaining. It is written above the line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How do you reduce improper fractions?

A

Reduce improper fractions to whole or mixed numbers by dividing the numerator by the denominator and carrying any remaining fraction as a part of the whole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How do you change a common fraction to a decimal?

A

Divide the numerator by the denominator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is an acute angle?

A

An angle that is less than 90 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What do the sum of the angles of a triangle add up to?

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is a terminal line?

A

The line ending an angle?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is an intial line?

A

The line starting an angle?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What makes an angle positive or negative?

A

If the line rotates counterclockwise, it creates a postive angle. If the line rotates clockwise, it crates a negative angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the first step in using Vise Gribs or self-locking pliers?

A

Make sure the jaws are even by locking them together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the drill size for a number 1 ezy-out?

A

5/64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the drill size for a number 2 ezy-out?

A

7/64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the drill size for a number 3 ezy-out?

A

5/32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the drill size for a number 4 ezy-out?

A

1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the drill size for a number 5 ezy-out?

A

17/64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the drill size for a number 6 ezy-out?

A

13/32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the drill size for a number 7 ezy-out?

A

17/32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the drill size for a number 8 ezy-out?

A

13/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the drill size for a number 9 ezy-out?

A

1 1/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the drill size for a number 10 ezy-out?

A

1 5/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the drill size for a number 11 ezy-out?

A

1 9/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the drill size for a number 12 ezy-out?

A

1 15/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How do you insert an ezy-out in a hole?

A

Tap it only light enough to seat it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What angle do you grind a screw punch to?

A

10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

After puting a ground tool bit in a screw punch?

A

Tape all but the last 1/4 inch to keep the pieces from flying if the bit does break.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How do you use a screw punch?

A

To start, hold the screw punch at about a 10 to 15 degree angle in the direction of rotation. Tap it a couple of times. Next, angle the tool back to about 30 to 45 degrees. Use a series of light taps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What drill bit do you select to drill out a screw to tap drill?

A

choose the final size to be one size under the tap drill size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How do you remove a lock-ring inserts?

A

Drill into the lock-ring and the insert neck with a drill that cuts teh serrated teeth of both parts. Don’t drill deaper than the counterbore. After this remove the insert with an extractor, then remove the lock-ring by lightly tapping ti on the side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How deep should a rosan slimserts sit below the parent metal?

A

0.005 to 0.010.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe a heilcoil?

A

A Heli-Coil is a coiled thread insert made of 18-8 PH stainless steel wire and cold workd to tensile strength f 200,000 pounds per square inch (psi).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What type of bolt should never be used with Heli-Coils?

A

Never use stainless steel screws or bolts with stainless steel Heli-Coil inserts because the threads will seize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When removing an Heli-Coil, where should the extrator tool be used?

A

Tap the extractor tool into the hole so that one side is a quarter turn from the end of the top insert coil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How deep should a keenserts be seated?

A

0.005 to 0.010.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are anti-friction bearings hardened to?

A

Rockwell “C” 60-63.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What do all bearings have?

A

All bearings have a procedure to retain them in or on their housing.

124
Q

What can a staked bearing do?

A

Staked bearings can withstand rotational loads, but they cannot withstand thrust loads.

125
Q

How many times can a part be roller staked?

A

It can be accomplished up to three times on steel and titanium housings which are heat treated to 175,000 psi.

For aluminum alloy houings, the only acceptale materials are 7075-T6 and 7075-T7, and once they are staked, they cannot be re-staked.

126
Q

What do you use to roller stake a bearing?

A

A tool with shaped rollers is used in conjunction with a drill press or milling machine quill to roll the parent material over the chamfer of the bearing.

127
Q

When roller swaging what speed to you set the spindle to?

A

Set the machine RPMs to 100.

128
Q

Who is responsible for providing all personnel with a safe work environment?

A

Commanders.

129
Q

How are unsafe and unhealthy working conditions eliminated or controlled?

A

Through engineering changes, administrative controls, revised procedures

130
Q

Who is responsible for safety?

A

Everyone.

131
Q

Who is responsible for good housekeeping in the shop?

A

Everyone in the shop/workcenter.

132
Q

When is the best time to clean up a spilled substance?

A

Immediately

133
Q

What is a flammable liquid?

A

A liquid that has a flash point less than 100 F

134
Q

How might a cleaning solvent that is normally safe produce flammable vapors?

A

By being agitated in enclosed areas.

135
Q

What measures should you take to prevent a fire from agitated combustible solvents?

A

Remove all sources of ignition and provide adequate ventilation.

136
Q

Name five ignition sources that could cause accidental fires and explosions

A

(1) Smoking materials, (2) space heaters, (3) non-explosion-proof electrical equipment, (4) improperly fused electrical equipment and tools that produce sparks, and (5) static electricity.

137
Q

What official may authorize you to store flammable or combustible liquids inside the shop?

A

The base fire marshal.

138
Q

Describe the specifications for an oily rag container.

A

Self-closing metal container clearly marked, OILY WASTE ONLY.

139
Q

Who conducts safety inspections in the Metals Technology shop?

A

Safety inspections are conducted at the Wing or Group Safety office level and spot inspections are conducted at the Squadron, Flight, and Element level

140
Q

Why do we conduct safety inspections?

A

To catch and eliminate unsafe actions or conditions before someone gets hurt.

141
Q

List five things to look for when conducting safety inspections.

A

(1) Are personnel using the proper PPE? (2) Is the PPE in good shape and functioning as required? (3) Are machine guards properly installed and being used? (4) Are welding in progress signs posted when welding operations are ongoing? (5) Are welding screens or curtains being used as required? (6) Are bottles securely chained and caps on tight in the flammable gas storage area? (7) Are flammable storage lockers grounded? (8) Do flammable storage lockers have self-closing/ locking doors? Are they functioning properly? (9) Are extension cords being used for permanent or long term use? (10) Are light switch/ outlet covers missing or cracked?

142
Q

List the safety items that the Air Force furnishes to help protect you from workcenter hazards.

A

(1) Safety glasses. (2) Steel toe boots. (3) Gloves. (4) Gauntlets. (5) Welding jacket. (6) Apron. (7) Hearing protection. (8) Hard hat. (9) Particle/filter mask. (10) Welding helmet. (11) Welding goggles. (12) Face shield. (13) Coveralls.

143
Q

What PPE item is required for all maintenance personnel?

A

Steel toe boots.

144
Q

Before you begin any work, what should be your first action?

A

Remove all watches, rings, and jewelry.

145
Q

Would you use your hands to remove chips from machinery? Why?

A

No. to prevent cuts.

146
Q

What items do you look for during an inspection prior to operating a machine?

A

Check the machine forms, check the guards, and look for the shutoff, items, or obstructions that could prevent machine operation.

147
Q

What should you check before you begin a welding operation?

A

Check the machine forms; check to be sure the machine ground is grounded.

148
Q

If you’re welding in a confined space, what is an important safety action to take?

A

Make sure the area is vented properly

149
Q

What is the minimum amount of protective equipment you should use while grinding hazardous materials?

A

Safety glasses, a face shield, and a particle mask or filter mask.

150
Q

If you need information about a particular material in the shop, where would you look?

A

The Material Safety Data Sheet.

151
Q

List some common hazardous materials you’ll use in the shop.

A

Welding rods, chemicals, coolants, metals, and solvents.

152
Q

Who is responsible for keeping MSDSs current and for updating the MSDS list in the hazardous materials pharmacy?

A

The shop MSDS monitor.

153
Q

What dangers do aircraft engines pose?

A

Intake and thrust, whether from jet or propeller aircraft, can turn objects into missiles and can severely injure personnel and damage equipment.

154
Q

Describe the minimum safety zones for aircraft engines.

A

These zones vary with different aircraft, but the minimum safe operating distances are 25 feet from the front of the intake, 5 feet from either side of the intake, and 200 feet from the exhaust of any aircraft with running engines.

155
Q

What is the noise safety zone for aircraft engines?

A

Approximately 300 to 400 feet at the rear of the aircraft, depending on the type of aircraft.

156
Q

What invisible hazard is produced by aircraft and can damage body tissue, particularly the eyes?

A

Aircraft radar.

157
Q

If you are required to work in an aircraft cockpit what special precautions should you take?

A

Make sure all safety pins are flagged and installed.

158
Q

What do you do before you begin any maintenance on a weapon system?

A

Check the forms.

159
Q

Who is authorized to upgrade an aircraft write-up? When or why?

A

A person of higher authority within the maintenance activity. When he or she believes the condition is more serious than represented by the symbol, they can upgrade the symbol.

160
Q

Who is the approving authority to downgrade a RED X?

A

The Operations Group commander.

161
Q

What goes over the RED X when signing it off?

A

Put your first initial of your last name.

162
Q

Give the condition and an example for a red x symbol.

A

Grounding condition, aircraft is unsafe to fly until fixed.

163
Q

Give the condition and an example for a red diagonal symbol.

A

Unsatisfactory condition, may affect safety or flying efficiency of the aircraft.

164
Q

Give the condition and an example for a red dash symbol.

A

Unknown condition, aircraft may require inspection, functional checkflight, or a scheduled accessory replacement.

165
Q

On what occasion is it acceptable to erase a RED symbol entered in the aircraft forms?

A

Never.

166
Q

What Air Force equipment items will have an AFTO 244?

A

All powered and non-powered AGE and SE, training equipment, TMDE equipment, vehicular support equipment, all industrial machinery and industrial plant equipment.

167
Q

What TO gives information on equipment forms documentation?

A

TO 00–20–5, Inspection System and Status Reporting For Support and Training Equipment.

168
Q

What part of the AFTO form 244 contains the inspection type?

A

Part III.

169
Q

What part of the AFTO form 244 contains the NSN?

A

Part I.

170
Q

What is part IV of the AFTO form 244 used for?

A

The Supervisory review.

171
Q

What items do you look for when inspecting a hammer prior to use?

A

The handle for cracks and splits, or being broken; the head for nicks, mushroomed areas, or burrs.

172
Q

What are the included angles for the points of prick punches and center punches?

A

60 degrees for prick punches; 90 degrees for center punches.

173
Q

How do you select the size of the drive punch you need to remove a bolt or a pin?

A

Select one closest in diameter to the bolt or pin you’re trying to remove.

174
Q

If you’re going to sharpen a chisel to cut a piece of C- steel, what should be the included angle of the cutting edge?

A

70 degrees.

175
Q

What procedure should you follow when using an adjustable wrench to tighten or loosen a bolt?

A

Always use the wrench so the pressure is against the solid jaw when the wrench is turned. When properly used, you would turn the wrench in the direction of the adjustable jaw.

176
Q

What are the sources of power for powered hand tools?

A

Air (pneumatic), battery, or electrical power.

177
Q

List three general safety guidelines to follow when using power tools.

A

Any three of the following: (1) Never use electric equipment in wet or damp conditions. (2) Properly ground all electric tools prior to use. (3) Do not use electric tools near flammable liquids or gases. (4) Inspect all pneumatic hose lines and connections prior to use. (5) Keep constant watch on the air pressure to stay within specified limits. (6) Keep all equipment in proper working order and use the equipment according to the manufacturer’s instructions. (7) Remove chuck keys from drills prior to use. (8) Hold tools firmly and maintain good balance. (9) Secure the work in a holding device, not in your hands. (10) Wear eye protection while operating these machines. (11) Ensure all lock buttons or switches are off before plugging the machine tool into the power source.

178
Q

What is the safe air pressure for operating a pneumatic drill?

A

90 to 110 psi.

179
Q

How do you keep a pneumatic drill motor lubricated?

A

Put a drop of oil in the air intake about once a week.

180
Q

What can happen if a grinding wheel becomes damaged during use? How can you protect yourself and others from personal injury if this occurs?

A

The wheel can disintegrate while you’re using it. Wear goggles and a face shield, and use protective shields or curtains around the grinding area to protect other personnel in the shop.

181
Q

Why don’t you use a grinder on or near an aircraft?

A

Because the sparks produced by the grinding operation could cause a fire.

182
Q

How is the proper cutting pressure obtained with a portable band saw?

A

By using the weight of the portable band saw.

183
Q

What determines the cost of a surface plate?

A

Size and accuracy.

184
Q

How do you place heavy parts or tools on a surface plate?

A

By setting them on the edge and sliding them into position.

185
Q

The gage blocks you are most likely to use in the shop are manufactured within what tolerance?

A

+0.000010-inch and –0.000006-inch.

186
Q

How do you select gage blocks when you’re setting them up for a dimension?

A

Begin by selecting the thicker blocks first; then, add thinner blocks until you get the correct dimension. Try to use as few blocks as possible.

187
Q

Why don’t you touch the gaging surface of the blocks with your bare hands?

A

Moisture from your hands can cause the blocks to corrode.

188
Q

What is the purpose of the telescoping gage?

A

To gage slots or holes.

189
Q

Why is it necessary to ensure a small-hole gage is properly aligned while checking it with a micrometer?

A

To prevent erroneous readings.

190
Q

Which gage would you use to center a thread-cutting tool on a lathe?

A

Center gage.

191
Q

What gage do you use to determine if a bolt has the proper amount of threads?

A

Screw pitch gage.

192
Q

Which type of gage is very helpful for checking the accuracy of small bends and rounded edges in formed metal?

A

Radius gage.

193
Q

What gage do you select if you are trying to measure the gap between a bearing and its housing?

A

Feeler gage.

194
Q

What is the pitch of the spindle screw on an outside micrometer?

A

40 threads per inch.

195
Q

How many thousandths of an inch does the spindle move if it is revolved three complete turns?

A

0.075.

196
Q

On a micrometer, what part of an inch does each graduation on the vernier scale represent?

A

0.0001.

197
Q

What effect can dust and grit have on a micrometer?

A

They can cause play in the spindle or the barrel to bind.

198
Q

How does the 0 reading on a depth micrometer differ from the 0 reading on an outside micrometer?

A

A “0” reading on a depth micrometer has all the graduations on the barrel exposed, while the “0” reading on an outside micrometer requires all the graduations on the barrel be covered.

199
Q

What part of a depth micrometer is subject to damage if held incorrectly?

A

Extension rod.

200
Q

What can result from installing dirty extension rods on inside and depth micrometers?

A

They can be damaged by the abrasive action of the dirt and dust, making the readings erroneous.

201
Q

Why is a vernier caliper more versatile than a micrometer?

A

It can take the place of several inside and outside micrometers.

202
Q

On the vernier caliper and height gage, what part of an inch does each graduation on the vernier scale represent?

A

0.001 inch.

203
Q

What attachment is used with the height gage to measure heights of less than 1 inch from the bottom of the base?

A

Offset attachment.

204
Q

What is the purpose of an acute angle attachment?

A

Used in conjunction with a vernier bevel protractor to permit a longer line of contact on parts that have angles of less than 30°.

205
Q

What happens to a dial indicator when it is in contact with a part or component that is struck with a hammer?

A

It receives nearly the same shock that the work receives, which can damage the indicator.

206
Q

Why does a coaxial dial indicator provide a more accurate location than a standard dial indicator?

A

Because operating conditions are more closely replicated, such as the influence of power transmission, lubricant flow, and torque.

207
Q

What type of blade should you use to cut through a 1-inch brass rod with a hacksaw?

A

All-hard.

208
Q

When starting a cut on a piece of stock, what can you do to prevent the hacksaw blade from sliding?

A

File a notch on the work before you start sawing.

209
Q

What are some hints that will help speed up sawing operations?

A

Apply a little oil to the blade to reduce binding, clamp thin stock between two pieces of wood to prevent chatter, and keep the work tight in the vise to keep it from slipping.

210
Q

Besides length, what is the main difference between an 8-inch single-cut bastard file and a 10inch single-cut bastard file?

A

A 10-inch single-cut bastard file is coarser because the distance between the teeth increases as the length of the file increases.

211
Q

What is pinning?

A

The lodging of metal particles in the file teeth.

212
Q

What types of cuts does a flat file contain?

A

Double-cut on both sides and single-cut on both edges.

213
Q

Which type of file has a “safe” edge? Describe its use.

A

The pillar file; used for filing keyways and slots.

214
Q

When would you use a helical fluted reamer?

A

When you want to make an interrupted cut, like in a hole with a keyway.

215
Q

What is the purpose of the bore and taper on a solid-blade expansion reamer?

A

To permit adjustment on the reamer when you turn the adjustment screw.

216
Q

Which reamer has a taper of ¼ inch per foot?

A

Taper pin reamer.

217
Q

When is a line reamer used?

A

When reamed holes with the same diameter must be aligned.

218
Q

How do you prepare a hole for broaching?

A

The hole should permit the broach pilot to enter freely, but not let it fall freely past the first cutting tooth.

219
Q

What type of pressure is applied when you are using a broach?

A

Slow and even.

220
Q

After you’ve finished broaching the hole, what do you do?

A

Push the broach all the way through the hole, and catch it as it exits the hole.

221
Q

How do the three common types of hand taps differ?

A

(1) A taper tap has a taper of eight to 10 threads. (2) A plug tap has a taper of three to five threads. (3) A bottoming tap has a taper of one to two threads

222
Q

Would you drill a ½-inch-diameter hole before you use a ½-inch 13 tap? Explain.

A

No. If you drilled a ½-inch hole for a ½ – 13 tap, the hole and the tap would have the same major diameter and you wouldn’t be able to tap any threads into the hole.

223
Q

Why do you occasionally turn the tap backwards as you are tapping?

A

To break the chips and help clear them from the teeth.

224
Q

Before you try to back a broken tap out of a hole, what do you do?

A

Pick the chips out of the hole and from around the tap flutes.

225
Q

If you’re trying to remove a broken tap that’s protruding out of the parent part, what can you do to help seat the vise grips easier?

A

Grind flats on the tap.

226
Q

Which tap removal method would you use as a last resort?

A

Using a punch and hammer to break up the tap.

227
Q

What features permit a die to produce rough and finish cuts?

A

A slot cut through one side of the body for adjustment and a setscrew to set adjustment.

228
Q

What is the difference between the starting side and trailing side of a die?

A

The starting side of a die has approximately three threads tapered; the trailing side has approximately one thread tapered.

229
Q

How can you cut threads to a shoulder while using a die?

A

Flip the die over in the diestock and cut the last two or three threads with the trailing side of the die.

230
Q

What are the terms of any fraction?

A

The numerator and the denominator.

231
Q

What is a least common denominator?

A

It is the least common multiple of the denominator of the fraction.

232
Q

What is the difference between a proper fraction and an improper fraction?

A

A proper fraction is a true fraction of the whole, where the numerator is less than the denominator. An improper fraction has a whole unit or whole units, plus a fraction of another unit. The numerator is greater than the denominator.

233
Q

Reduce the fraction 24/56.

A

3/7.

234
Q

Reduce the fraction 21/63.

A

1/3.

235
Q

Reduce the fraction 14/91.

A

2/13.

236
Q

Reduce the fraction 68/3.

A

22 2/3.

237
Q

Find the sum 1/2 + 2/3.

A

1 1/6

238
Q

Find the sum 5/6 + 3/8.

A

1 5/24.

239
Q

Find the difference 2/3 – 1/2.

A

1/6.

240
Q

Find the difference 23/32 – 5/8.

A

3/32.

241
Q

A piece of steel is 4 inches in diameter and 10 feet long. What is the ratio of the diameter to the length?

A

1:30.

242
Q

What is the ratio of two different lathe spindles with RPM of 880 and 1320 respectively?

A

2:3.

243
Q

A local manufacture calls for 75 taper pins. Of the 75 pins, 5 are scrapped. What is the percentage of unusable pins?

A

6 percent.

244
Q

What is the Pythagorean theorem?

A

The square of the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle equals the sum of the square of the other two sides. c2 = a2 + b2.

245
Q

What is the sum of all angles in any triangle?

A

180 degress.

246
Q

What constitute complementary angles of a right triangle?

A

If both acute angles equal each other, they are complementary.

247
Q

Use the Pythagorean theorem to find the sides of a right triangle Given: a = 6 feet, b = 8 feet; Find: c = ?

A

c = 10 feet.

248
Q

Use the Pythagorean theorem to find the sides of a right triangle Given: c = 5 meters, b = 4 meters; Find a = ?

A

a = 3 meters.

249
Q

Which side of a right triangle is always the longest?

A

The hypotenuse is always the longest side.

250
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: sin .933580.

A

69 degress.

251
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: cos .314545.

A

7140′.

252
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: tan .984808.

A

4434′.

253
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: cos .846576.

A

3210′.

254
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: sin 1850′.

A

946462.

255
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: tan 21.

A

2.6050891.

256
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: cos 7000′.

A

.342020.

257
Q

Use a scientific calculator or the trigonometric table found in the Machinery’s Handbook to find: cos 8910′.

A

.014544.

258
Q

Convert the measurement to a decimal: 46 degrees 35’06”

A

465850

259
Q

Convert the measurement to a decimal: 19 degrees 57’20”

A

19.9555.

260
Q

Convert the measurement to a decimal: 89 degrees 06’59”

A

89.1163.

261
Q

Convert the measurement to degrees, minutes, and seconds: 45.625.

A

4537′30″.

262
Q

Convert the measurement to degrees, minutes, and seconds: 30.1125.

A

3006′45″.

263
Q

Convert the measurement to degrees, minutes, and seconds: 11.346.

A

1120′45″.

264
Q

What are bolts used with? What are they used for?

A

They are used with nuts and threaded holes. They are used to secure parts together.

265
Q

How are setscrews used?

A

To fasten parts, such as pulleys, gears, etc. to shafts.

266
Q

What consideration must you give penetrating fluid before you use it?

A

Check the label for compatibility with the parent material.

267
Q

What are four bolt and stud removal methods that don’t take a lot of time?

A

A scribe, a punch, a file and wrench, and self-locking pliers.

268
Q

When might you try using a file and a wrench to remove a broken bolt or stud?

A

When it is broken off above the parent metal.

269
Q

When drilling for an extractor what is the most accurate method?

A

A drill jig.

270
Q

What is the first step when drilling for an extractor?

A

Center punch the broken bolt and then use a pilot drill.

271
Q

What can you use to make your own extractor in place of an Ezy-Out?

A

A high speed lathe tool with a square tapered end.

272
Q

What should you do first when you try to remove a stuck screw?

A

Remove dirt or paint from the screw slot.

273
Q

What item can you add to a standard speed handle to improve its performance?

A

A pressure pad.

274
Q

What are the steps to remove screws with a screw removal tool?

A

Position the foot under the head of an adjacent screw. Adjust the sliding driver until the apex holder is directly over the screw you want to remove. Turn the T handle while maintaining pressure on the removal tool.

275
Q

Where is a good place to use a pneumatic hammer to remove screws?

A

On cargo floors or other very solidly supported surfaces.

276
Q

What important area must you inspect before you use a pneumatic hammer?

A

Check the amount and type of backing for the surface.

277
Q

How far should you rotate a stuck screw with a pneumatic hammer?

A

No more than one quarter turn.

278
Q

What’s the most common screw removal tool?

A

The screw punch.

279
Q

When you use a screw punch to remove a stuck screw, should you use heavy blows or light taps with the hammer? Why or why not?

A

Use light taps, since heavy blows could cause you to damage the panel or drive the screw through the panel.

280
Q

What are the tools you need when you remove screws with a hand impact tool?

A

The correct apex, apex holder, hammer, speed handle.

281
Q

What screw removal method is especially useful when you have a large number of badly damaged screws?

A

Drilling the screws.

282
Q

What tool do you use first when you drill off a screw head? or when you drill for an ezy-out?

A

A rotary file.

283
Q

What tool should you try first when trying to remove a plug?

A

Use an extractor.

284
Q

How can you prevent drill shavings and pieces of the plug from falling into the cavity or cylinder?

A

Pack grease in the center of the plug.

285
Q

How many times can cotter pins be used?

A

Once.

286
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of using solid inserts?

A

They take up a large amount of space.

287
Q

How far below the surface of the parent material should you seat the flange on a solid insert?

A

To 0.003” below the surface.

288
Q

When you seat an insert with a locking ring, how far below the parent material should you seat the insert? How far below the parent metal surface should you seat the locking ring?

A

The insert should be 0.010” to 0.020” below the surface, and the lockring should be 0.005” to .0010” below the surface.

289
Q

What type of insert gives the highest bolt pull out resistance with the least weight and space penalty of any thin walled inserts?

A

Rosan slimserts.

290
Q

From what material are Rosan slimserts made?

A

17–4PH stainless steel.

291
Q

What is the difference between SR slimserts and SRW slimserts?

A

SR series repair original design threads, SRW repair holes originally fitted with Heli-Coils. SRW are oversized inserts.

292
Q

What feature on a slimsert keeps it from rotating in the parent material?

A

The top external threads are serrated and are swaged into the parent material.

293
Q

What is the tensile strength of a Heli-Coil insert and from what material is it manufactured?

A

The tensile strength is 200,000 PSI; 18–8PH stainless steel.

294
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using a Heli-Coil?

A

They cannot seal air or liquid pressure.

295
Q

What item can you install in a hole if a standard size Heli-Coil is too small?

A

A Twinsert.

296
Q

Why should you remove the pins from the Heli-Coil insert before removing the insert from the parent part?

A

Pulling it straight out of the hole damages the parent threads.

297
Q

When you remove a pin insert, what is your first task?

A

Drill out the pins before you back the insert out of the hole.

298
Q

What is another name for a bushing?

A

Bush.

299
Q

What are the most common type of bushings?

A

Solid (sleeve and flanged), split, and clenched bushings.

300
Q

What is the fit when you install a plain bearing?

A

An interference fit.

301
Q

What features on both the parent material and the bearing keep the bearing aligned and keeps it from binding when you install it?

A

A chamfer.

302
Q

Which bearing has a longer service life, a plain bearing or an anti-friction bearing?

A

Anti-friction bearings.

303
Q

If you’re going to remove a bearing and reuse it, what precaution must you take?

A

Don’t put pressure on the inner race or roller when you press it out.

304
Q

What’s the limitation to roller staking bearings in aluminum housings?

A

One time.

305
Q

Describe the two methods of swaging bearings.

A

Double anvil swaging; both sides of the bearing outer race are swaged over the chamfer of the bearing housing. Roller swaging; the grooved outer race of the bearing is swaged over the chamfer of the bearing housing.