Volume 1 Flashcards by Vaughn Johnson

What IMDS subsystem allows their user to create, schedule, defer, reschedule, or cancel events?

A. Maintenance Personnel
B. Automated debriefing
C. Status and inventory
D. Maintenance events

D. Maintenance Events

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What work Center uses the IMDS to track in-progress work orders and record the work that has been completed?

A. Missile maintenance operations center
B. Plans and scheduling
C. Electronics laboratory
D. Resources flight

A. Missile maintenance operations center

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What duty does the material control section perform in the IMDS, thus ensuring accountability of all ordered parts and aiding in resources management?

A. Parts research
B. Job Following
C. Issuing and recovering
D. Updating workload requirement

C. Issuing and recovering

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What IMDS subsystem allows user to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?

A. Job Data Documentation/Debrief/Maintenance Supply
B. Automated Test Equipment Reporting System
C. Automated Debriefing
D. Operational Events

A. Job Data Documentation/Debrief/Maintenance Supply

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What section is the advisory agency for all IMDS functional areas in maintenance?

A. Material control
B. Maintenance Data
C. Briefing/Debriefing
D. Missile Maintenance Operations

B. Maintenance Data

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What IMDS screen allows work center supervisors to create and schedule work orders?

A. Scheduled report
B. Scheduled maintenance
C. Master equipment identification
D. Documented maintenance inquiry

B. Scheduled maintenance

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In what circumstance would a missile transfer to Vandenberg AFB NOT be recorded as a gain in status?

A. Force development evaluation launch
B. Programmed depot maintenance
C. Giant Ball testing
D. Olympic Play

A. Force development evaluation launch

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What is the condition status of an ICBM that is awaiting or undergoing scheduled or unscheduled maintenance?

A. Not mission capable supply
B. Partially mission capable supply
C. Not mission capable maintenance
D. Partially mission capable maintenance

C. Not mission capable maintenance

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What status code of a spacecraft system indicates DOD owns the system and it is operational?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Amber

C. Green

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When conducting an acceptance inspection, what defects can be submitted at the units discretion?

A. Urgent
B. Major
C. Critical
D. Minor

D. Minor

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A CAT 1 Emergency deficiency report would be submitted if an uncorrected deficiency could

A. Result in a work stoppage
B. Cause death or severe injury
C. Negatively impact safety or suitability
D. Adversely affect an essential capability

B. Cause death or severe injury

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If a substitute item DOES NOT meet the fit and function of the equipment it is substituting , what is submitted to identify it?

A. A Supply Discrepancy Report
B. A Category II Deficiency Report
C. An Unsatisfactory Material Report
D. A Product Quality Deficiency Report

C. An Unsatisfactory Material Report

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What tag is attached by the originator when an exhibit is tagged and segregated?

A. AF Form 979
B. DD Form 1575
C. DD Form 1574
D. AF Form 350

B. DD Form 1575

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The originating point reviews trend data and previous reports of the same deficiency to

A. Determine exhibit disposition instructions
B. Update the Joint Deficiency System
C. Add substantiating information in a current report.
D. To ensure reports are not sent if the defect was previously identified.

C. Add substantiating information in a current report.

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What options are available to the originator once they are notified of the closing actions on a DR?

A. They have 5 days to submit additional support for the DR
B. They have 15 days to review and challenge the closing actions.
C. They have 30 days to submit the exhibit for further investigation.
D. The notification is informational only; the closing actions are final

B. They have 15 days to review and challenge the closing actions

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Without a waiver from the Maintenance Group Commander, what person may serve as either the primary or alternate product improvement point-of-contact in the lead wing?

A. A SSgt in Team Training
B. A Capt in Security Forces
C. A TSgt in Quality assurance
D. A MSgt in Technical Engineering

D. A MSgt in Technical Engineering

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What avenue would NOT be used to identify reliability and maintainability issues?

A. WUC review
B. DR analysis
C. PIWG
D. MDD analysis

A. WUC review

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Who is responsible to build the PIWG agenda and transmit it to participants?

A. Program manager
B. Equipment specialist
C. Lead wing point-of-contact
D. Lead command executive agent

A. Program manager

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When a repair requirement exceeds an organization’s repair capability, what kind of assistance are they requesting with an OSTS System request?

A. Depot
B. Manufacturer
C. Quality Assurance
D. Technical Engineering

A. Depot

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What item would be classified as NWRM?

A. Weapon system software
B. Antennas that do not retain data
C. Components that generate reentry vehicle commands
D. COMSEC material

C. Components that generate reentry vehicle commands

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How often is the NWRM listing reviewed for changes in its entirety?

A. Monthly
B. Annually
C. Biennially
D. Quadrennially

C. Biennially

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What organization provides training and oversight for OTLs?

A. 20th Air Force
B. 341st missile wing
C. 576th flight test squadron
D. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center

C. 576th flight test squadron

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SELM evaluates selected ICBM from day-to-day operation, all the way up to

A. First-stage ignition
B. The launch sequence
C. Second-stage ignition
D. The preparatory command

A. First-stage ignition

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An established SELM squadron is composed of

A. 1 LCC and 10 LFs
B. 2 LCCs and 6 LFs
C. 5 LCCs and 50 LFs
D. 15 LCCs and 150 LFs

B. 2 LCCs and 6 LFs

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An example of a catagory I simulated electronic launch objective would be A. An accuracy assessment of the re-entry vehicle B. The testing of test evaluation teams response time C. To gather data on new material to be used on the propulsion system rocket engine D. The testing of the capability of the launch control center to process required commands

D. The testing of the capability of the launch center to process required commands

What test allows for testing of the ICBM in its deployed environment without having to install test equipment or instrumentation? A. Olympic Play test B. Operational test launch C. Simulated electronic launch D. Operational electronic test launch

A. Olympic Play test

Who must assess each launch facility tested during an Olympic Play test to determine how each one is scored? A. Quality Assurance B. Missile combat crew C. Technical Engineering D. Maintenance group commander

C. Technical Engineering

Electronic components in the weapon system that are upgraded must go through what kind of evaluation? A. Electromagnetic pulse test B. Software operational test C. Ultra-high frequency test D. Weapon system test

A. Electromagnetic pulse test

What is the purpose of the SELM test order? A. Identifies sequence of test preparation B. Directs a test and outlines specific objectives C. Contains step-by-step procedures to complete the test D. Establishes technical order review and change procedures

B. Directs a test and outlines specific objectives.

What test checks most functions that would prevent a launch prior to SELM test posturing? A. Alert readiness test B. Last-look inspection C. Quick-look inspection D. Terminal countdown test

A. Alert readiness test

What task would be performed during SELM test posturing? A. Replacing targeting codes with new codes B. Installation of the guidance and control test set C. Removing the re-entry system if ordinances will be fired D. Isolating the test launch control center from the test launch facility

C. Removing the re-entry system if ordinances will be fired

Once all SELM posturing tasks are complete, Quality Assurance personnel must again verify proper configuration prior to A. Starting up the missile guidance set B. Completing the alert readiness test C. Installing test codes in the missile D. Isolating the test launch facility.

A. Starting up the missile guidance set.

During SELM posturing, the launch tube opening and the interconnection box on the launch facility under test are sealed after A. The last-look inspection has been conducted B. The launcher closure is prepared for activation C. Retrieving the SELM control monitor printouts D. An anomaly analysis team is dispatched to the site.

A. The last-look inspection has been conducted

During a SELM test, command signals will come from a A. Wing command post and an ALCS aircraft B. Launch control center and ALCS aircraft C. Launch control center only D. Wing command post only

B. Launch control center and ALCS aircraft.

During a four-stroke diesel engine's compression stroke, what positions are the intake and exhaust valves in? A. Both valves are open B. Both valves are closed C. Intake valve is open; exhaust valve is closed D. Intake valve is closed ; exhaust valve is open

B. Both valves are closed

The strength of a four-stroke diesel engine's power stroke is referred to as the engines A. Torque B. Horsepower C. Displacement D. Volumetric efficiency

A. Torque

What is reduced by having a Diesel engines cylinders fire in a certain order A. Crankshaft wear B. Flooded cylinders C. Excessive vibrations D. Incomplete combustion

C. Excessive vibrations

In starting a diesel engine, the system must overcome the disadvantage of A. Insufficient rotational speed B. Hot metal in the combustion space C. Leakage resulting from loose fitting pistons/rings D. Combustion and ignition occurring in close sequence

C. Leakage resulting from loose fitting pistons/rings

With what are most Diesel engine starters equipped to prevent damage if the starter drive gear stays meshed with the flywheel after the engine starts? A. Magnetic pickup B. Overspeed switch C. Fuel governor rack D. Sprag over-running clutch drive

D. Sprag over-running clutch drive

What fuel system malfunction could cause a weak power stroke and low exhaust temperatures? A. Fuel injected into cylinder too early B. Fuel injected into cylinder too late C. Governor shuts off fuel D. Governor shuts off fuel too late

A. Fuel injected into cylinder too early

What must occur in the cylinder if the fuel is to mix thoroughly with air and burn efficiently? A. Low penetration B. Proper dispersion C. Low air turbulence D. High compression pressure

B. Proper dispersion

Of the total heat supplied by the burning fuel in the cylinder of an engine, how much of it is transformed into useful work? A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C. 1/3 D. 1/2

C. 1/3

What does the commercial and standby power contactors have to provide additional monitoring and control actions? A. Main solenoids B. Switching units C. Power processors D. Auxiliary contacts

D. Auxiliary contacts

Where does the signal to remotely switch the site from operating on commercial power to standby power come from? A. An electronic signal from the Wing Command Post B. An interrogation signal from the launch control center C. The interconnecting box in the launcher equipment room D. The site information network from the launch control center

D. The site information network from the launch control center

What must occur for the MPP to initiate a commercial power-on pulse? A. Standby power must be connected for at least five minutes B. Commercial power must meet proper limits for one minute C. Standby power must meet proper limits for at least five D. Commercial power must be connected to the site for one minute

B. Commercial power must meet proper limits for one minute

What must the MPP do in order to connect standby power to the site loads? A. Bias the base of transistor Q1 B. Bias the emitter of transistor Q2 C. Send a pulse signal through the K1 relay D. Send a 24-VDC signal to contractor C1TS

A. Bias the base of transistor Q1

What circuit must the MPP send power to in order to start the DEU? A. Crank cutout circuit B. Fuel solenoid circuit C. Diesel battery circuit D. Standby power on pulse

B. Fuel solenoid circuit

What condition would meet the operational connect limits for the MPP to connect standby power to site? A. 12 VAC phase B. 64 Hz on each phase C. 115 VAC on each phase D. A-B-C phase sequence

C. 115 VAC on each phase

What GMR usually recieves highest priority to a facilities maintenance technician? A. GMR 2 B. GMR 3 C. GMR 5 D. GMR 24

A. GMR 2

A GMR-5 would Report if the DEU A. Is operating and cannot shutdown B. Fails to start after 2 10-second cranking cycles C. Oil pressure falls to 16 psi during operation D. Battery voltage falls to 23 VDC during cranking

A. Is operating and cannot shutdown

What is the launch facility service disconnect breaker be used for? A. Isolate power from the DEU B. Remove power from the C2TS contactor for maintenance C. Isolate power from the PLPA D. Remove DC power from the motor-generator for maintenance

C. Isolate power from the PLPA

What in the launch facility power system protects the electrical equipment from lightning problems? A. Buck boost transformer B. Service disconnect breaker C. Commercial power contactor D. Power line protection assembly (PLPA)

D. Power line protection assembly (PLPA)

What is the purpose of the launch facility buck boost transformer? A. Raises the line voltage coming from the LDA panel 10 to 15 VAC B. Changes 120/208 VAC to pulsating 28 VDC C. Controls the amount of voltage from the automatic switching unit. D. Compensates for voltage drop across feeders and line filters.

D. Compensates for voltage drop across feeders and line filters.

The LDB distribution panel contains a 3-pole circuit breaker for the A. LDA panel B. Motor generator C. Diesel immersion heater D. Brine chilled compressor

B. Motor generator

What occurs with the launch facility storage batteries when primary power is available? A. They are charged from the battery charger/alarm set group B. They provide DC power to operate the air handler C. They distribute 28 VDC to the distribution box and missile D. They apply power to operate the AC motor on the motor-generator

A. They are charged from the battery charger/alarm set group

How does the launch facility motor-generator keep the DC motor from operating? A. Primary power keeps the brushes from contacting the motor B. Power supply group removes 28 VDC input C. 400- Hz generator shuts down to prevent motor operation D. DC interlock relay isolates battery power from the motor

A. Primary power keeps the brushes from contacting the motor

What component contains relays that provide power switching to the missile downstage electronics, ordnance, and safe and arm motors? A. Distribution box B. Programmer group C. Power supply group D. Battery charger/alarm set group

A. Distribution box

The missile alert facility LCDN distribution panel applies power to site loads such as the immersion heater, as long as A. Commercial power is available to site B. Emergency power is connected to site C. Standby power is disconnected from the site D. Primary power is disconnected from site

A. Commercial power is available to site

What is the main difference between the DEU at Wing 1 and Wings 3/5 MAFs? A. The wing 1 DEU powers the entire MAF B. The wing 3/5 DEU powers the entire MAF C. The wing 1 DEU powers the above ground portion only D. The wing 3/5 DEU powers the above ground portion only

A. The wing 1 DEU powers the entire MAF

When the primary power fails at a MAF, the DC motor of the motor-generator operates the A. AC motor B. 60-Hz generator only C. 400-Hz and 60-Hz generators D. 400-Hz generator only

C. 400-Hz and 60-Hz generators

The emergency storage batteries in the LCC supply power to the A. Survival lights B. Power supply group C. Shock isolator air compressor D. Power control distribution unit

A. Survival lights

What component on the LCC power system converts the 400-Hz motor-generator output to 28 VDC for use by loads in the LCC? A. Distribution box B. Programmer group C. LCPA power panel D. Power supply group

D. Power supply group

What does the legend on a schematic diagram show you? A. What different symbols mean B. Component reference numbers C. Which way to orient the schematic D. Where to start tracing the schematic

A. What different symbols mean

24 VDC is applied to the collectors of the transistors on the power system schematic when A. There is a path to ground B. Battery power is applied C. Standby power is connected to site D. Emergency battery power is applied

B. Battery power is applied

What reading should you get when testing a good AC transorb with a multimeter? A. .06 Ohms in both directions B. OL in both directions C. OL in one direction; 0.6 Ohms in the other D. 0 Ohms in one direction; 0.6 Ohms in the other

B. OL in both directions

If the MPP CANNOT remove 24 VDC from the fuel solenoid ouput line, what mode of operation does the MPP enter? A. DEU mode B. TEST mode C. AUTO mode D. MANUAL mode

B. TEST mode

When troubleshooting the MPP, which LED would indicate a failure to disconnect standby power? A. COML PWR ON B. NON REQD DEU RUN C. NON REQD STBY PWR D. Flashing STBY PWR FAIL

C. NON REQD STBY PWR

Which MPP LED would illuminate if there was an obstruction in the Diesel air intake system? A. FAIL TO START B. ENG OVERSPEED C. LOW LUBE OIL PRESS D. Flashing SYSTEM CHECK

A. FAIL TO START

What would be indicated when the DEU lubricating oil is diluted with fuel? A. Defective oil pump B. Defective fuel pump C. Defective fuel injectors D. Defective oil level regulator

B. Defective fuel pump

When liquid refrigerant begins to enter the evaporator, it A. Loses sensible heat to the ambient air B. Gains sensible heat from the ambient air C. Loses sensible heat to the cooling medium D. Gains sensible heat from the cooling medium

D. Gains sensible heat from the cooling medium

The refrigerant loses heat in the condenser because it is A. Hotter than the air B. Colder than the air C. Hotter than the brine D. Colder than the brine

A. Hotter than the air

There must be adequate ventilation when working on refrigerant systems, since it A. Is highly toxic B. Displaces oxygen C. Turns to vapor quickly D. Gases with open flames

B. Displaces oxygen

When applying heat to a refrigerant cylinder to increase the pressure, NEVER apply A. Warm water to it B. An insulated blanket to it C. A tank heater directly to it D. More than 75 degrees Fahrenheit

C. A tank heater directly to it

What refrigeration certification is required for this career field? A. Universal B. Type 1 only C. Type 1 and 2 D. Type 3 only

C. Type 1 and 2

The only situation a technician can perform a De minimis release of refrigerant is when A. Purging refrigerant diluted with nitrogen B. Opening a system to perform maintenance C. In a confined space where it cannot escape D. Connecting and disconnecting refrigerant hoses

D. Connecting and disconnecting refrigerant hoses

What is required to accompany recovery or recycling equipment being turned in for disposal? A. An AFTO Form 350 B. A certification that the system is vacuumed to 500 microns C. A signed statement from the technician that all refrigerant has been evacuated D. The technician turning the item in must provide proof of refrigeration certification.

C. A signed statement from the technician that all refrigerant has been evacuated

Return air in the LER is heat laden air from A. The electronic racks, make-up air system, and the launch tube B. The launch tube, air handler cooling coil, and the brine chiller condenser C. The launch tube, brine chiller condenser, and make-up air system D. The electronic racks, make-up air system, and brine chilled evaporator

A. The electronic racks, make-up air system, and the launch tube

If the temperature of the air in the support or equipment building gets too hot, the heat from the refrigerant will A. Be recirculated and reused B. Be exhausted out of the room C. Used to keep the engine warm D. Conditioned in the brine chiller

B. Be exhausted out of the room

When calculating superheat in a refrigerant system, a manifold and gauge assembly is installed to A. Obtain a thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb reading B. Obtain a suction pressure reading and convert it to temperature C. Determine if the suction pressure is sufficient across the evaporator D. Measure the temperature of the liquid refrigerant entering the evaporator

B. Obtain a suction pressure reading and convert it to temperature

You would find a semi hermetic compressor installed on the A. Portable air conditioner B. LF brine chiller C. Guidance and control chiller unit D. MAF brine chiller

A. Portable air conditioner

The hot gas bypass valve will allow refrigerant to bypass the condenser if A. The fan is not yet operating B. The cooling medium is too cold C. There is a shortage of refrigerant D. The discharge pressure is too high

B. The cooling medium is too cold

The panel display will operate off of A. 120 VAC as long as primary power is applied B. 24 VDC as long as diesel battery power is applied C. 24 VDC from a power supply in the ventilation control system D. 120 VAC as long as commercial power is applied

A. 120 VAC as long as primary power is applied

What is an important consideration when replacing the battery on the PLC? A. Always remember to disconnect the negative lead first and reconnect it last B. Ensure the PLC is disconnected from the DIN rail when opening the battery cover C. Never remove the battery unless 24 VDC power is attached D. Make sure the controlnet daughtercard has been programmed or PLC data will be erased

C. Never remove the battery unless 24 VDC power is attached

The temperature measured at a temperature sensor is converted by a fiber optic signal conditioner into a A. 0-10 VDC signal B. 4-20 mA signal C. 24-26 VDC output D. 0-24 mA signal

A. 0-10 VDC signal

When using a flow diagram with descriptions and schematics, you can tell a great deal about A. What the symbols on a flow and control schematic represent B. Why certain components might not be operating when they are supposed to C. How room temperature and pressure are controlled on the panel display D. How the PLC should respond at certain points

D. How the PLC should respond at certain points

With a spring-return damper actuator, when power is removed, it should always A. Return to a known state. B. Remain in its current position C. Cause the damper to fully open D. Cause the damper to fully close

A. Return to a known state.

In order to determine what happens when the PLC receives an input, you would need to reference a(n) A. Flow diagram B. Wiring diagram C. Electrical schematic D. Flow and control schematic

A. Flow diagram

The transformers in the LF ECS A. Step-down 120 VAC to 24 VAC for use by the damper actuators B. Converts 120 VAC to 24 VDC for use by the controlnet components C. Converts 120 VAC to 36 VDC for use by emergency control panel components D. Step-down 120 VAC to 10 VAC for use by the fiber optic signal conditioners

A. Step-down 120 VAC to 24 VAC for use by the damper actuators

When using the panel display for troubleshooting , you need to be operating in a TO when A. Checking to see what alarms indications are present B. Verifying if the refrigerant compressor is operating C. Pressing keys to check the firmware of the device D. Simulating conditioned airflow to the racks

D. Simulating conditioned airflow to the racks

What should be done first if the temperature at the emergency fan air inlet exceeds 85 degrees Fahrenheit? A. Contact the missile combat crew for alarm indications B. Immediately shutdown the electronic equipment racks C. If possible, restart the normal environmental control system D. Notify the Missile Maintenance Operations Center your work center

C. If possible, restart the normal environmental control system

The Atlas V CCB's aft transition structure provides A. Protection for the engine during flight B. Mounting for the booster's adapter skirt C. Mounting for up to 5 solid rocket boosters D. Environmental protection for the vehicles batteries

C. Mounting for up to 5 solid rocket boosters

When the Atlas V Centaur upper stage's propellant tanks are empty, they must be A. Removed and pressure tested B. Bonded in foam to minimize ice formation C. Pressurized to maintain structural integrity D. Wrapped in an insulation blanket to keep moisture out.

C. Pressurized to maintain structural integrity

The Atlas V 400-series payload fairing, separation is provided by A. Explosive bolts B. Solid rocket motors C. Linear shaped charges D. Fixed nozzle extensions

A. Explosive bolts

The Delta IV's second stage UHF antennas provide 95 percent antenna coverage by A. Mounting them on the payload fairing's nose cap B. Mounting them on opposite sides of the intertank skirt C. Using a radio frequency reradiator to retransmit signals D. Using ground signals to reposition them accordingly during flight

B. Mounting them on opposite sides of the intertank skirt

What is a satellite's structure designed to provide? A. Framework for uniform distribution of a satellite subsystem components B. Flexible but durable platform for payload instruments and subsystems C. Strong, stable platform for payload instruments and subsystems D. Secure anchor for attachment of the payload fairing

C. Strong, stable platform for payload instruments and subsystems

What is another name for the rechargeable chemical batteries used on a satellite? A. Secondary batteries B. Alternate batteries C. Primary batteries D. Unitary batteries

A. Secondary batteries

What is used on a satellite to transport heat energy from internal equipment to a remote radiator surface? A. Chemical fluids such as ammonia B. Chemical fluids such as hydrazine C. Conductive surfaces such as silver D. Conductive surfaces such as copper

A. Chemical fluids such as ammonia

Controlling a satellite's attitude is required to ensure A. Propulsion systems function properly B. Instruments are pointing in the right direction C. It remains in geosynchronous orbit around Earth D. It's solar panels are already facing away from the sun

B. Instruments are pointing in the right direction

Satellite attitude and spin adjustments are provided by using A. An on-board inertial upper stage booster B. Squib activated gas generators C. Linear solar array panels D. On-board thrusters

D. On-board thrusters

The Atlas V's telemetry transmitter antennas are mounted on the A. Common core booster's avionics pod B. Common core booster's cable raceway C. Centaur upper stage's forward adapter D. Centaur upper stage's interstate adapter

C. Centaur upper stage's forward adapter

Volume 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)