Volume 1: Civil Engineer & Common Core Subjects

Question 0

2. (001) What is the difference between an Aerospace Expeditionary Wing (AEW) and an Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)?
   a. AEF can rapidly mobilize to carry Air Force assets worldwide.
   b. AEF will establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world.
   c. AEW has a different amount and quality of the deployed personnel.
   d. AEW can quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world.

Answer 0

D. AEW can quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere around the world.

Question 1

1. (001) What Air Force document outlines the basis of the Civil Engineer organizations?
   a. Air Force Doctrine Document 2–4, Combat Support.
   b. Air Force Doctrine Document 2–4.1, Force Protection.
   c. Air Force Handbook10–222v1, Guide to Bare Base Development.
   d. Air Force Instruction 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.

Answer 1

A. AF Doctrine Document 2-4 Combat Support

Question 2

3. (001) What three types of support does the Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) mission provide to Air Force installations and civil engineers worldwide?

a. Contingency, operations, and training.
b. Deployment, operational, and training.
c. Contingency, operations, and technical.
d. Deployment, operational, and technical.

Answer 2

C. Contingency, operations, and technical.

Question 3

4. (002) Who does the flight commander report to?

a. Wing commander.
b. Group commander.
c. Base civil engineer.
d. Operations commander.

Answer 3

C. Base civil engineer.

Question 4

5. (002) Three of the Operations flight four elements are Material Acquisition, Facility Maintenance, Heavy Repair. What is the fourth element?

a. Housing.
b. Engineering.
c. Environmental.
d. Infrastructure Support.

Answer 4

D. Infrastructure Support.

Question 5

6. (003) When an Air National Guard (ANG) or Air Reserve Component (ARC) Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) unit mobilizes, who does the unit directly report to?

a. Area of Responsibility (AOR) commander.
b. Deployed base civil engineer (BCE).
c. Gaining major command.
d. In garrison commander.

Answer 5

C. Gaining major command.

Question 6

7. (004) What two units supplement active duty units to create a major force in worldwide deployments to meet mission requirements?

a. Air Force Reserve and Prime BEEF units.
b. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units.
c. Prime Readiness in Base Services (RIBS) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) units.
d. Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime BEEF units.

Answer 6

b. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units.

Question 7

8. (004) How often will AFCESA conduct a deployment workshop to coordinate requirements with Air National Guard (ANG) and Air Force Reserve Component (AFRC)?

a. Quarterly.
b. Semi annually.
c. Annually.
d. Bi annually.

Answer 7

C. Annually.

Question 8

9. (005) MAJCOMs establish Unit Type Codes (UTC) for the operations within the command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up what type of teams?

a. Prime RIBS.
b. Prime BEEF.
c. Expeditionary Aerospace Force.
d. Aerospace Expeditionary Force.

Answer 8

B. Prime BEEF.

Question 9

10. (005) What does the Air Force Contract Augmentation Program (AFCAP) provide to a Prime BEEF team?

a. Deployment materials.
b. Relief or augments forces.
c. Augments contracts pending for Prime BEEF units.
d. Creates a stable contract structure for the Air Force.

Answer 9

B. Relief or augments forces.

Question 10

11. (005) What is used to make Prime BEEF unit response times equal to or less than the response times for the aircraft units?

a. Prime BEEF unit type codes (UTC).
b. Operations Plan taskings.
c. Deliberate Planning.
d. Air mobility.

Answer 10

C. Deliberate Planning.

Question 11

12. (005) Being assigned to a Prime BEEF team, you must be ready to mobilize on a moments notice. What must you do to be ready in addition to your duty responsibilities and making sure that your personal affairs are in order?

a. Create family financial support objectives.
b. Let family members know where you are going.
c. Make sure that your family members are prepared.
d. Enroll family members with the Family Support Center.

Answer 11

C. Make sure that your family members are prepared.

Question 12

13. (006) Concerning contingency training tiers, what does tier 1 training represent?
    a. Special training.
    b. Category I training.
    c. Silver Flag training.
    d. Home station training.

Answer 12

D. Home station training

Question 13

14. (006) What do tier 2 training sites make available to units?
    a. War reserve supply kit (WRSK) augmentation.
    b. Commonly used deployable equipment.
    c. Specialized contingency equipment.
    d. Technical classroom training.

Answer 13

C. Specialized contingency equipment.

Question 14

15. (006) The primary purpose of Tier 3 training at a Silver Flag site is for students to show their ability to perform what tasks in a team environment?

a. Critical contingency.
b. Common core skills.
c. Routine wartime skills.
d. Peacetime responsibilities.

Answer 14

A. Critical contingency

Question 15

16. (007) What provides a Prime BEEF unit with a listing of items to deploy with?
    a. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency.
    b. AFI 32–1001, Operations Management.
    c. Equipment and Supplies Listing (ESL).
    d. Base Civil Engineer.

Answer 15

C. Equipment and Supplies Listing (ESL).

Question 16

17. (008) What establishes a systematic framework for decision-making with regard to the development of Air Force installations?

a. General planning.
b. Component planning.
c. Comprehensive planning.
d. Federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and policies.

Answer 16

C. Comprehensive planning.

Question 17

18. (008) What helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?

a. Plans.
b. Maps.
c. Pictures.
d. Information.

Answer 17

B. Maps.

Question 18

19. (009) What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase?

a. Mission data Sets.
b. GEO Reach process.
c. Common installation picture.
d. Expeditionary site mapping portal.

Answer 18

B. GEO Reach process.

Question 19

20. (009) What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific missions or processes called?

a. Planning guides.
b. Research programs.
c. Mission data sets (MDS).
d. Common installation pictures (CIP).

Answer 19

C. Mission data sets (MDS).

Question 20

21. (009) Who may designate a fused installation picture as classified depending on the potential threat visibility that arises when otherwise unclassified common installation picture (CIP) and mission data sets (MDS) layers are combined?

a. Functional communities.
b. Secretary of Defense.
c. Base Civil Engineer.
d. Wing commander.

Answer 20

A. Functional communities.

Question 21

22. (010) Which publication covers the classification of Air Force specialty codes (AFSC)?

a. Air Force Instruction 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted).
b. Air Force Instruction 36–2305, Education Classification and Coding Procedures.
c. Air Force Manual 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.
d. Air Force Manual 36–505, Skill Coding.

Answer 21

C. Air Force Manual 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.

Question 22

23. (010) Why does the Air Force use Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) prefixes like “T” in the example “T3E072?”

a. Designate an ability, skill, special qualification.
b. Identifies a special skill within a particular AFSC.
c. Controls the duty assignments of a particular skill.
d. Designate a position associated with a particular piece of equipment.

Answer 22

A. Designate an ability, skill, special qualification.

Question 23

24. (011) As a journeyman, you are expected to know assigned duties and perform them in a timely manner with

a. no supervision.
b. minimum supervision.
c. significant supervision.
d. maximum supervision.

Answer 23

B. minimum supervision.

Question 24

25. (011) What is the Chief Enlisted Manager code that identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt select as the top enlisted manager for Civil Engineers? a. 3E191. b. 3E090. c. 3ECEM. d. 3E000.

Answer 24

D. 3E000.

Question 25

26. (012) Who is responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end of course exam for CDC’s? a. Commander. b. Superintendent. c. Supervisor. d. You.

Answer 25

D. You.

Question 26

27. (013) What document identifies education and training requirements for every career field and serves as a road map for career progression? a. Air Force Specialty (AFS). b. Specialty Training Standard (STS). c. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS). d. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Answer 26

D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Question 27

28. (013) What is the forum to change the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)? a. CerTest question challenge. b. Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). c. MAJCOM Functional Manager career field workshop. d. Formal meetings with the Career Field Manager (CFM).

Answer 27

B. Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW).

Question 28

29. (014) Regarding proficiency codes, what part will never be used alone since knowledge is required with it? a. Task knowledge. b. Skill knowledge. c. Task Performance. d. Subject knowledge.

Answer 28

C. Task Performance.

Question 29

30. (015) What must a trainee do before completing a diamond task? a. Hands on training. b. Corresponding CDC material. c. Classroom lecture and study guide. d. AF qualification training package (QTP) and CerTest.

Answer 29

D. AF qualification training package (QTP) and CerTest.

Question 30

31. (015) Once you are able to complete a task on your own, without help, who will place a completion date in your Specialty Training Standard (STS)? a. Trainer. b. Supervisor. c. Unit training monitor. d. Qualified shop personnel.

Answer 30

A. Trainer.

Question 31

32. (016) Which screen in COVER Train contains basic information about you? a. Profile. b. 623 II. c. 623 III. d. 797.

Answer 31

A. Profile.

Question 32

33. (016) Which COVER Train screen allows your section to document training for one of a kind systems? a. 623 II. b. 623 III. c. 797. d. 1098.

Answer 32

C. 797.

Question 33

34. (016) Which screen will you supervisor will sign you off on as you complete the required Air Force Qualification Training Packages (AFQTP)? a. AFQTP. b. STS. c. JQS. d. 2096.

Answer 33

A. AFQTP.

Question 34

35. (016) Where will your supervisor document all of your on the job training in the COVER Train program? a. 623a. b. 1098. c. STS. d. JQS.

Answer 34

d. JQS.

Question 35

36. (016) Who does the Master Task Listing (MTL) identify specific training for in a section? a. Each individual. b. 3 level trainees. c. 5 level trainees. d. Individuals needing core task training.

Answer 35

A. Each individual.

Question 36

37. (016) Within how many days will your supervisor conduct a training needs review after your assignment to your new section? a. One month. b. 60 days. c. 90 days. d. Six months.

Answer 36

C. 90 days.

Question 37

38. (016) If the individual meets all of the training goals for your section, what training code will you assign to them? a. B. b. C. c. R. d. Q.

Answer 37

C. R.

Question 38

39. (016) What higher authorities drive certification in a job area? a. U.S national or state government. b. National or Department of Defense. c. Department of Defense or state government. d. U.S. national or foreign national governments.

Answer 38

B. National or Department of Defense.

Question 39

40. (017) CerTest is a powerful training management tool. What can it measure concerning training and experience? a. Individual capabilities. b. Strengths and weaknesses. c. Core items and war time training. d. Completed and incomplete training.

Answer 39

B. Strengths and weaknesses.

Question 40

41. (017) What will give your supervisor a good insight on where you need training the most? a. Specialty training standard. b. Trainer’s recommendation. c. CerTest pre test results. d. Trainee’s input.

Answer 40

C. CerTest pre test results.

Question 41

42. (018) What annual audit program was developed to ensure that the Air Force’s environmental program is operating efficiently? a. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). b. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH). c. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH). d. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP).

Answer 41

D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP).

Question 42

43. (018) What is the sixth different type of findings for Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) inspection after Carryover; Major; Minor; Positive; and Repeat? a. Outstanding. b. Excellent. c. Significant. d. Negative.

Answer 42

C. Significant.

Question 43

44. (018) Within how many days should an inspection team complete the Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) final reports? a. 120 days for internal and external. b. 180 days for internal and external. c. 180 days for external; 120 days for internal. d. 180 days for internal; 120 days for external.

Answer 43

C. 180 days for external; 120 days for internal.

Question 44

45. (019) What environmental act establishes a national environmental policy with goals for the protection, maintenance, and enhancement of the environment? a. Environmental Protection Agency. b. National Environmental Policy Act. c. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act. d. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program.

Answer 44

B. National Environmental Policy Act.

Question 45

46. (019) Who will be responsible for personal actions that have environmental consequences, according to Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality? a. Supervisors. b. Commanders. c. All personnel. d. Hazardous pharmacies.

Answer 45

C. All personnel.

Question 46

47. (019) When an environmental assessment is being prepared and no impacts were found, what may a decision maker mark on the findings? a. Finding of no significant impact (FONSI). b. Environmental Impact Statements (EIS). c. Satisfactory. d. Excellent.

Answer 46

A. Finding of no significant impact (FONSI).

Question 47

48. (019) With regards to the environmental analysis time frame, the Council on Environmental Quality sets what kind of time frame for the entire National Environmental Policy Act process? a. 120 days for completion. b. 180 days for completion. c. There is not a timeline. d. No strict timeline.

Answer 47

D. No strict timeline.

Question 48

49. (020) What does EPCRA section 302 require facilities to notify the state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee for? a. Locations of accumulation sites. b. Ordering of small chemical units. c. Presence of any “wasteful chemicals”. d. Presence of any “extremely hazardous substance”.

Answer 48

D. Presence of any “extremely hazardous substance”.

Question 49

50. (020) Who must you notify if you have hazardous chemicals requiring material safety data sheets? a. Local police department. b. Local fire department. c. Federal agencies. d. State agencies.

Answer 49

B. Local fire department.

Question 50

51. (021) Who appoints the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency? a. Secretary of Interior. b. Secretary of Defense. c. President of the United States. d. Chairman, Joint Chief of Staff.

Answer 50

C. President of the United States.

Question 51

52. (021) What agency leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts? a. Department of Defense. b. United States Air Force. c. United States Parks and Wildlife. d. Environmental Protection Agency.

Answer 51

D. Environmental Protection Agency.

Question 52

53. (022) What two inspections cover the hazardous waste program concerning hazardous waste activities? a. Scheduled and unscheduled. b. Federal and state funded. c. Internal and external. d. Major and minor.

Answer 52

A. Scheduled and unscheduled.

Question 53

54. (022) Who, besides the commander, signs the manifests that track off-base hazardous waste shipment and recycling? a. State Department of Transportation. b. Environmental Protection Agency. c. Shipping company representative. d. Designated individual.

Answer 53

D. Designated individual.

Question 54

55. (023) What should be the first action taken if you have created a new waste stream to determine if the waste is hazardous? a. Locate a similar hazardous waste process. b. Add it to the satellite accumulation Point. c. No action is needed for new waste. d. Create a hazardous waste profile.

Answer 54

D. Create a hazardous waste profile.

Question 55

56. (023) What exceptions are there concerning labeling of hazardous waste containers stored in a satellite accumulation point? a. Identified waste should be labeled. b. Only hazardous contents will be labeled. c. No exceptions; all containers will be labeled. d. Only containers exceeding their capacities will be labeled.

Answer 55

C. No exceptions; all containers will be labeled.

Question 56

57. (024) Who must develop, implement, and maintain a written hazard communication program for their workplaces? a. Employers. b. Supervisors. c. Local government. d. Department of Defense.

Answer 56

A. Employers.

Question 57

58. (024) When may you transfer a chemical into an unmarked container? a. If it will evaporate quickly. b. Only when it will pose a threat. c. When you will use it immediately. d. When the chemical will not contaminate the environment.

Answer 57

C. When you will use it immediately.

Question 58

59. (024) Material safety data sheets (MSDS) will be provided to all employees and will be written in what language? a. German. b. Spanish. c. English. d. French.

Answer 58

C. English.

Question 59

60. (024) Other than training for the reason of assignment to a new job, when must an employer provide training on hazardous materials? a. Annual requirements. b. Introduction to new hazards. c. Federally mandated training. d. Changes in the Environmental Protection Agency rules.

Answer 59

B. Introduction to new hazards.

Question 60

61. (024) What can the introduction of low lead levels do to a child besides learning disabilities, attention deficit disorders, behavioral problems, stunted growth, impaired hearing, and kidney damage? a. Blinding. b. Madness. c. Reduced IQ. d. Tooth decay.

Answer 60

C. Reduced IQ.

Question 61

62. (024) What material is naturally occurring fibrous material and has been around for thousands of years but is very hazardous to your health? a. Asbestos. b. Methane. c. Tobacco. d. Coffee.

Answer 61

A. Asbestos.

Question 62

63. (024) When does asbestos pose the greatest risk? | a. When it is wetted. b. When it is ingested. c. When it is compacted. d. When it released to the air.

Answer 62

D. When it released to the air.

Question 63

64. (024) What are the most common color (s) of asbestos floor tile? a. Blue. b. Green and White. c. Dark green, brown, and red. d. The colors are not a good indicator of possible presence.

Answer 63

C. Dark green, brown, and red.

Question 64

65. (025) What do your customers measure the services you provide them against? a. Air Force established standards. b. Their own personal standards. c. Civil Engineer standards. d. Work center standards.

Answer 64

a. Air Force established standards.

Question 65

66. (026) When must you responded to and complete an urgent work order within? a. 1 calendar day. b. 3 calendar days. c. 7 calendar days. d. 30 calendar days.

Answer 65

C. 7 calendar days.

Question 66

67. (026) How many methods are there if more than one shop needs to be assigned to complete a task? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

Answer 66

C. 3.

Question 67

68. (027) What provides you with a list of required maintenance actions, the reference to complete the tasks, the standard amount of time to complete each task, the crew size required to accomplish the task, and how often the task is complete? a. Maintenance action sheet. b. Recurring work program. c. Direct scheduled work. d. Collection work order.

Answer 67

A. Maintenance action sheet.

Question 68

69. (027) How often will your supervisor produce a recurring work program (RWP) schedule using Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS) or Automated Civil Engineer System (ACES)? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Annually.

Answer 68

B. Weekly.

Question 69

70. (027) What happens to a recurring work program (RWP) item that does not have a complete indicator? a. It closes out automatically. b. It remains open and never gets completed. c. It gets reported to the squadron commander. d. It remains on the next week’s schedule as working.

Answer 69

D. It remains on the next week’s schedule as working.

Question 70

71. (028) What do we call your supervisor accounting for all of your time throughout the day? a. Inputting jobs. b. Inputting labor. c. Recording plans. d. Recording schedules.

Answer 70

B. Inputting labor.

Question 71

72. (028) What is the first step to developing an automated report? a. Inputting all of the required data. b. Finding out the monthly requirements. c. Deciding how often to print the report. d. To determine what information you need to see.

Answer 71

D. To determine what information you need to see.

Question 72

73. (029) What contains a detailed description of the work, where to perform the work, and a point of contact (POC)? a. Schedule. b. RWP report. c. Work request. d. Material process.

Answer 72

C. Work request.

Question 73

74. (029) What refers to a method where a group of individuals simultaneously contribute ideas to solve a problem? a. Planning. b. Scheduling. c. Brainstorming. d. Troubleshooting.

Answer 73

C. Brainstorming.

Question 74

75. (030) What is the system that uses both the national stock number (NSN) and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work? a. Base supply system. b. Government purchase card (GPC). c. Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS). d. Government-Operated Civil Engineer Supply Store (GOCESS).

Answer 74

C. Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

Question 75

76. (030) If material for a job comes in as partial orders or before the work begins, where does material control store it? a. Holding area. b. Residue holding area. c. Issues it to the appropriate section. d. Government-Operated Civil Engineer Supply Store (GOCESS).

Answer 75

A. Holding area.

Question 76

77. (030) What is simply a material list required to complete a job? a. Planning worksheet. b. Bill of material (BOM). c. National stock number (NSN). d. Consolidated supply listing (CSL).

Answer 76

B. Bill of material (BOM).

Question 77

78. (030) What do we call material that your shop stores for use on the job? a. Shop stock. b. Bench stock. c. Excess material. d. Surplus material.

Answer 77

A. Shop stock.

Question 78

79. (031) Who is responsible for government property, including property issued, found, and used? a. Everyone. b. Property owner. c. Owning organization. d. Accountable individual.

Answer 78

A. Everyone.

Question 79

80. (031) Once an individual is found liable, how long does the responsible party have to make a lump sum payment? a. 3 days. b. 7 days. c. 30 days. d. 60 days.

Answer 79

C. 30 days.

Question 80

81. (032) What publications are orders of the Secretary of the Air Force, approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff, which are directive in nature? a. Air Force handbooks (AFH). b. Air Force instructions (AFI). c. Operating instructions (OI). d. Supplements.

Answer 80

B. Air Force instructions (AFI).

Question 81

82. (032) What publications are additional publications that extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters or agencies? a. Supplements. b. Operating instructions (OI). c. Air Force handbooks (AFH). d. Air Force pamphlets (AFPAM).

Answer 81

A. Supplements.

Question 82

83. (032) What series of publications cover policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing, including procuring, promoting, training, and funding? a. 10 series. b. 22 series. c. 32 series. d. 36 series.

Answer 82

D. 36 series.

Question 83

84. (032) What does the short title search use to find the publication you are looking for? a. Publication type. b. Publication number. c. Full publication title. d. Key words of the publication title.

Answer 83

B. Publication number.

Question 84

85. (032) Which publication should you follow when the guidance issued by a field unit conflicts with the guidance issued by a higher-level unit? a. The longer publication. b. The shorter publication. c. The field unit publication. d. The higher-level publication.

Answer 84

D. The higher-level publication.

Question 85

86. (033) What are the two categories that commercial publications fall into? a. Regulatory and technical. b. Informational and practical. c. Directive and non-directive. d. Substantial and unsubstantial.

Answer 85

A. Regulatory and technical.

Question 86

87. (033) Which commercial publications provide the “how to” aspect of a job? a. Technical. b. Procedural. c. Regulatory. d. Informational.

Answer 86

A. Technical.

Question 87

88. (034) What military service develops technical manuals for equipment they use? a. Navy. b. Marines. c. Air Force. d. Coast Guard.

Answer 87

B. Marines.

Question 88

89. (034) Which manual contains part numbers, nomenclatures, and other pertinent information necessary to support that piece of equipment? a. Overhaul instructions. b. Illustrated parts breakdown. c. Field maintenance instruction. d. Operation and maintenance instruction.

Answer 88

B. Illustrated parts breakdown.

Question 89

90. (034) Which manuals may include actions to modify equipment, perform special inspections, or change operating procedures? a. Time compliance technical orders. b. Abbreviated technical orders. c. Technical manuals. d. Joint Use manuals.

Answer 89

A. Time compliance technical orders.

Question 90

91. (034) Which type of TCTO can be identified by a border of red Xs around the page? a. Inspection. b. Urgent action. c. Routine action. d. Immediate action.

Answer 90

D. Immediate action.

Question 91

92. (034) Which type of TCTO can be identified by a border of alternating red Xs and /s around the page? a. Inspection. b. Urgent action. c. Routine action. d. Immediate action.

Answer 91

B. Urgent action.

Question 92

93. (035) What will the a-page have for a page that should be an original? a. 0. b. 3. c. 7. d. 9.

Answer 92

A. 0.

Question 93

94. (035) What will most dash 1s have at the back of the manual? a. Index. b. Groups. c. Numerical index. d. Table of contents.

Answer 93

A. Index.

Question 94

95. (035) What is the key piece of information supplied by the introduction that tells you who made the parts? a. Symbols. b. Vender codes. c. Use instructions. d. Group assembly listing.

Answer 94

B. Vender codes.

Question 95

96. (035) What do you do if you can not find a listing of the specific component you are looking for in a dash 4? a. Look in the introduction. b. Look in the numerical index. c. Look for the next high assembly. d. Look for the next smaller assembly.

Answer 95

C. Look for the next high assembly.

Question 96

97. (036) Why must you identify any problems you find in a TO? a. It shows that you read the TO. b. It shows that you always use the TO. c. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task differently. d. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task the same way.

Answer 96

D. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task the same way.

Question 97

98. (036) What method makes the best corrections to problems in a TO? a. A team effort of many airmen. b. Your effort researching the problem. c. A team effort of many knowledgeable individuals. d. Your effort experimenting with possible corrections.

Answer 97

C. A team effort of many knowledgeable individuals.

Question 98

99. (037) Once published, how long does an engineer technical letter remain in effect? a. Until a TCTO takes its place. b. As long as the information is current. c. Until the information is no longer valid. d. Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.

Answer 98

D. Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.

Question 99

100. (037) What are the two sources that you can get engineer technical letter from? a. Air Force publications web page and US Navy Seabee web page. b. Air Force publications web page and AFCESA publication web page. c. US Army Corps of Engineers web page and US Navy Seabee web page. d. AFCESA publication web page and the US Army Corps of Engineers web page.

Answer 99

D. AFCESA publication web page and the US Army Corps of Engineers web page.

Question 100

101. (001) What is the BCE unit’s primary mission?

Answer 100

To establish, sustain, and restore the base infrastructure.

Question 101

102. (001) What is your wartime mission in CE?

Answer 101

To provide the bases, infrastructure, and facilities necessary to support the global engagement of aerospace forces.

Question 102

103. (001) What is the concept for EAF?

Answer 102

EAF conducts military operations on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.

Question 103

104. (001) What is AFCESAs goal?

Answer 103

To field the best equipment, business practices, engineering standards, and professional training for mobility forces and facilities maintenance.

Question 104

105. (002) What is the squadron commander also referred to as?

Answer 104

The base civil engineer (BCE).

Question 105

106. (002) What does the operations flight do?

Answer 105

Operates, maintains, repairs, and constructs installation real property using in-house military and civilian work force and recurring and non-recurring service contracts.

Question 106

107. (002) What does the resources flight do?

Answer 106

Plans, develops, submits, and maintains the civil engineer financial programs and financial management systems.

Question 107

108. (002) What does the readiness flight do?

Answer 107

Provides contingency support services and prepares the squadron during natural disasters, major accidents, war, and other base emergencies.

Question 108

109. (003) What is the acronym RED HORSE mean?

Answer 108

Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer.

Question 109

110. (003) What is the mission of RED HORSE?

Answer 109

They provide air component commanders with a dedicated and flexible unit capable of airfield and base heavy construction and repair.

Question 110

111. (003) Who do reserve RED HORSE units report to?

Answer 110

When not mobilized, they report to HQ AFRC. When mobilized, they report directly to the gaining MAJCOM.

Question 111

112. (004) How do the ANG and AFRC help to meet mission requirements?

Answer 111

They have become a major force in worldwide deployments.

Question 112

113. (004) When does AFCESA conducts a deployment workshop for the ANG and AFRC?

Answer 112

2. When does AFCESA conducts a deployment workshop for the ANG and AFRC?