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Services Journeyman Study Guide > Volume 1. Services General > Flashcards

Volume 1. Services General Flashcards

1
Q

What are the decisions to train specific task and knowledge items in the initial skills course base upon?

A

A review of the occupational analysis report (OAR) and subject matters experts inputs.

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2
Q

Services Journeyman (5-level) training primarily consists of what kind of training?

A

OJT and CDCs.

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3
Q

How long do individuals in Journeyman (5-level) UGT have to complete their CDCs?

A

Within 15 months of enrollment.

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4
Q

What rank do you need to be awarded a superintendent (9-level)?

A

Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt).

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5
Q

List some duty positions Services journeymen and superintendents are encouraged to apply for.

A

AETC instructors, Services Academy instructors, protocol, honor guard, Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO), and Air Force Executive/Joint Chief of Staff Dining Facility.

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6
Q

What does the CFETP provide for training purposes?

A

A clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training.

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7
Q

The CFETP is made up of how many parts?

A

Two.

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8
Q

What do STAs provide?

A

Supervisors, trainers, and certifiers a user-friendly standardized tool for training and development of services personnel.

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9
Q

Who develops the STA?

A

AFSVA-training and development team.

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10
Q

How many core areas are personnel required to be qualified on prior to award of 7 level?

A

Two core areas.

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11
Q

For how many months should individuals remain in a core area?

A

18-24.

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12
Q

What is used to document all duty rotations?

A

AF IMT 623A, on-the-job Training Record, Continuation Sheet.

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13
Q

What are the advantages of an MTL?

A
  • Have a list of all work center task requirements in one place.
  • Don’t have to memorize work center task requirements.
  • Everyone knows what the work center requirements are.
  • Can break down list to show what tasks/skills levels are required for duty positions.
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14
Q

What does the MTP include?

A
  • MTL.
  • Current CFETP.
  • AF IMT 797, JQS continuation/command.
  • Milestones for tasks and CDC completion.
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15
Q

What is the objective of the force support awards and recognition programs?

A

To recognize truly deserving individuals, programs, and units and share benchmark programs and successful endeavors throughout the A1 community.

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16
Q

What form is used to nominate a person or program for an award?

A

AF Form 1206.

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17
Q

What award is intended for individuals whose scope of evaluation does not lend itself to a particular activity or function?

A

Individual Legacy Awards.

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18
Q

What FSS program award recognizes excellence in AF food service?

A

John L. Hennessy Trophy.

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19
Q

What force support program award program recognizes excellence in AF lodging?

A

AF Innkeeper Award.

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20
Q

What are the primary goals of the marketing program?

A

To recognize the needs and expectations of customers and potential customers, tailor marketing programs to meet these needs, and communicate the right message to the right market.

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21
Q

What benefits does marketing planning provide?

A

Encourages systematic thinking and enhance coordination of programs, flight, and squadron efforts to help ensure the operational success of the activity or program.

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22
Q

When determining the appropriate media mix to include the use of the web, what guidance should you follow?

A

Guidance in accordance with AFI- 33-115.

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23
Q

What is advertising?

A

Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods of services by an identified organization.

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24
Q

What are the two main restrictions when buying advertising space?

A
  • Don’t advertise tobacco/alcoholic products.
  • Don’t advertise in civilian general circulation newspapers, magazines, websites, or on commercial radio or television without the approval of your PA officer.
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25
Q

How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?

A

A review of the OAR data and subject matter experts’ inputs.

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26
Q

Training for the Services Journeyman 5 level primarily consists of…?

A

On-the-Job (OJT).

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27
Q

Which is not a mandatory 5-level skill level upgrade requirement?

A

Accomplishment of all Home Station Training Requirements.

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28
Q

What is the minimum rank airmen must attain before becoming a superintendent?

A

Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt).

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29
Q

The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following information except…?

A

A clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.

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30
Q

Qualification training is designed to qualify an Airman…

A

In all required tasks.

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31
Q

What does Part I, Section C, of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) describe?

A

Mandatory training requirements for each skill level.

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32
Q

What does Part II of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) not provide?

A

Resource constraints.

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33
Q

The specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

A

Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

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34
Q

Trainers are selected based on their…?

A

Experience.

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35
Q

We are required to rotate through at least two of the five core areas in Services prior to the award of the…?

A

7 level.

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36
Q

Individuals should remain in a core function during the rotation program for how many months?

A

18-24.

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37
Q

Which form do we use to document all rotations in a core area?

A

Air Force (AF) Information Management Tool (IMT) 623a, On-the-Job Training Record.

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38
Q

Which is not a duty or responsibility of a Services specialist?

A

Documenting FSS functions.

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39
Q

When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?

A

Supervisor.

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40
Q

Which is not an advantage of developing a master training listing (MTL)?

A

The task requirements have to be memorized.

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41
Q

How often are individual and program awards awarded?

A

Annually.

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42
Q

What Air Force (AF) form is used to nominate an individual, program, or installation for force support and A1 awards?

A

1206.

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43
Q

Which award’s scope does not lend itself to a particular function or activity?

A

A1 Community.

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44
Q

What force support recognition program recognizes excellence in Air Force (AF) food service?

A

John L. Hennessy Trophy.

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45
Q

Nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy consist of Air Force (AF) Form 1206, Nomination for Award, and AF Information Management Tool (IMT).

A

1038, Food Service Evaluation Record.

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46
Q

The services marketing program office supports force support squadron (FSS) commanders or directors, flight chiefs, and activity managers by adopting what kind of marketing practices?

A

Sound.

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47
Q

One of the primary goals of the marketing program is to…?

A

Recognize the needs and expectations of customers.

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48
Q

Activity managers require marketing information that is…?

A

Accurate, reliable, and timely.

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49
Q

Information pertaining to services, programs, and events can be posted on the Web or the Internet as allowed by the…?

A

Local base policy.

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50
Q

Direct mail advertising is sent to force support squadron (FSS) customers who…?

A

Have voluntarily signed up to receive direct mail information.

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51
Q

Which is not a general guideline for advertising using media other than direct mail?

A

Distribute advertising through formal base channels.

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52
Q

Which organization allocates appropriated funds?

A

Congress.

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53
Q

For what are O&M funds used?

A

For the day-to-day operations.

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54
Q

At what level are procurement funds controlled?

A

MAJCOM-level.

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55
Q

What are the sources of NAFs?

A
  • The AF’s share of dividends declared AAFEs.
  • Local fees/charges, membership dues, and proceeds from the sale of merchandise and services from force support activities.
  • Contributions/donations.
    -Income from other sources, including concessionaire-operated activities.
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56
Q

What are the activities that fall under support Cat-A?

A

Food services, fitness centers, libraries, and so forth.

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57
Q

What are the activities that fall under support Cat-B?

A

Skills development, youth centers, bowling centers. child development centers.

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58
Q

What are the activities that fall under support Cat-C?

A

Open-messes, golf courses, and bowling centers.

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59
Q

What does a well-planned budget identify?

A

Operational and financial requirements, also measures progress towards those requirements.

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60
Q

Along with an APF budget, what types of budgets are unique to our career field?

A

NAF requirements budget (NRB), NAF Income and Expense (I & E) budget, and NAF cash flow budget.

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61
Q

What should your budget be consistent with?

A

The commander’s vision for the organization as a whole.

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62
Q

What factors should be considered in setting goals?

A
  • Net earning objectives.
  • Amount of APF support authorized.
  • Desire for new or revised programs.
  • Desired changes in inventory levels.
  • Desired construction and facility altercations.
  • Need for new equipment or repair of existing equipment.
  • Higher headquarters financial goals where established.
  • Mission changes that will affect base population operations.
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63
Q

Who provides accounting support to the force support squadron?

A

Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO).

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64
Q

What items require internal control?

A

Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise, consumable supplies, and securities.

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65
Q

What is IMC?

A

A plan of organization and safeguard resources, assure accuracy and reliability of info, assure adherence to applicable laws, regulations, and policies, and promote operational economy and efficiency.

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66
Q

What are the reasons a loss can occur?

A
  • Simple negligence.
  • Gross negligence.
  • Joint and several liability.
  • Willful misconduct.
  • Proximate cause.
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67
Q

Who has the responsibility of preventing losses from happening?

A

All AF military and civilian personnel.

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68
Q

Who signs a receipt to establish accountability for cash and property transferred to his or her custody?

A

Individuals.

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69
Q

Who approves funds storage limits according to AFI 34-202?

A

The installation commander.

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70
Q

Who may not adjust an incorrectly rung sale on a subsequent sale?

A

Cashiers.

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71
Q

When may cashiers use marked money?

A

During the normal course of business to make change.

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72
Q

Who makes a surprise cash count at least once a quarter for receipts on hand, change funds, and imprest funds.

A

The activity manager or designated representative.

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73
Q

What do activity managers do to keep cash on hand to a minimum?

A

By making daily deposits to the central cashier or the financial institution.

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74
Q

What are imprest funds used for?

A

A designated purpose with special controls and limitations.

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75
Q

What AF form does the RM use to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times?

A

AF Form 2557.

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76
Q

Where are blank check stock, coupons, tokens, and gift certificates stored?

A

A locked room, locked container, or safe.

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77
Q

What is he primary consideration during a robbery?

A

Safeguarding of human life.

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78
Q

When it is safe, who should be telephoned and notified that a robbery has been committed?

A

Security Forces (SF).

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79
Q

Why should the scene of a robbery be secured?

A

To avoid disturbing any fingerprints left by the robber, unnecessary handling of evidence, and safeguarding evidence for the SF.

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80
Q

When should a replacement item be programmed into the long-range capital improvement plan?

A

When a new piece of equipment is purchased.

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81
Q

When does condemnation of an existing item occur?

A

When an item cannot be repaired or when the estimated cost of repair exceeds the max repair allowance for the item involved.

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82
Q

What does the cost of repair to an item include?

A

Labor, materials, expenses.

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83
Q

What can equipment replacement be based on in addition to its estimated useful life?

A

On the need to modernize or upgrade equipment to meet a significant change in operation of mission requirement.

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84
Q

Justification to replace an item must include how replacing the item will promote efficiency in what areas?

A

Time, manpower, money, and productivity.

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85
Q

What funding source category is used for fitness centers?

A

A-mission sustaining.

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86
Q

What funding source category is used for a golf course?

A

C-revenue generating.

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87
Q

Why is buying in bulk necessary for certain items?

A

Can save the AF money as goods/supplies normally increase in price driven by inflation.

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88
Q

Which organization allocates appropriated fund (APF) money?

A

Congress.

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89
Q

Operation and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to…?

A

Conduct day-to-day operations.

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90
Q

At what initial dollar amount are procurement funds reserved for?

A

$50,000.

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91
Q

What is not an additional source of nonappropriated funds (NAF)?

A

Surcharges.

92
Q

When establishing goals for the budget process, the activity manager considers all these factors except the…?

A

Amount of nonappropriated funds (NAF) available.

93
Q

At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201, Use of Nonappropriated Funds (NAFS)?

A

Resource Manage (RM).

94
Q

Who provides accounting support to the force support squadron (FSS)?

A

NAF Accounting Office (AO) personnel.

95
Q

When accounting for assets, which assets require internal controls?

A

Cash or cash equivalents, fixed assets, resale merchandise, consumable supplies, and securities.

96
Q

Who is responsible to prevent and report losses?

A

Military and civilian personnel.

97
Q

For losses up to and including $50, who conducts an informal review and files the documentation in the activity?

A

Activity manager.

98
Q

For losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the…?

A

Resource Manager (RM).

99
Q

For losses that exceed $1,000, who appoints an investigating officer?

A

Installation commander.

100
Q

Who signs receipts to establish accountability for cash and property transferred to his or her custody?

A

Each individual.

101
Q

According to AFI 34-202, Procedures for Protecting NAF Assets, who approves funds storage limits?

A

Installation Commander.

102
Q

Which form is used to account for errors on an incorrectly rung sale on the cash register?

A

AF Form 645, Cash Register Adjustment.

103
Q

How often do activity managers make deposits to the central cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum?

A

Daily.

104
Q

Who approves operating instructions (OI) establishing procedures for the use of imprest funds?

A

Resource Manager (RM).

105
Q

The primary consideration during a robbery is…?

A

Safeguarding of human life.

106
Q

When it is safe, who should you inform that a robbery has been committed?

A

Security Forces.

107
Q

As the person on duty, what action should you take concerning the witnesses of the robbery?

A

Record their names and addresses.

108
Q

When replacing equipment, condemnation occurs when…?

A

The cost of repair exceeds the maximum repair allowance.

109
Q

When replacing equipment to modernize, the justification must describe/promote efficiency in money, manpower…,

A

Time and productivity.

110
Q

Facility Category A funding for facility improvements are for mission-sustaining facilities such as fitness centers, community activity centers…,

A

Libraries, and intramural sports fields.

111
Q

What do the AF APF dining facilities provide for our personnel?

A

Provides subsistence entitlement to enlisted members living in the dorms, a training environment for food service personnel to meet our war-fighting mission, and the flight meal service in support of our daily operations.

112
Q

When are officers and federal civilians authorized to use the dining facility at the discounted meal rate?

A

When performing duty on a US govt vessel, on field duty, in a group status, included in ESM as defined in the JFTR; on a US govt aircraft on official duty either as a passenger or as a crew member engaged in flight operations or on an JTF operations other than training at temporary US installations, or using temporary APF facilities.

113
Q

When can youth groups use the dining facility?

A

When extended the privilege of visiting a military installation, or when residing at a military installation and permitted to eat in an APF dining facility.

114
Q

What are the two types of DOD meal rates?

A

Discount and standard.

115
Q

What is the purpose of the operational charge?

A

Used to help offset contract cost(s) and/or purchase operating supplies.

116
Q

Who can installation commanders allow to eat in dining facilities during emergencies?

A

Off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other DOD installations.

117
Q

What form is used to record signatures and collect cash?

A

AF Form 79.

118
Q

Where are the dining facility manager’s manual sales entry procedures for emergencies or disasters found?

A

CFS Handbook.

119
Q

If your unit has 300 ESM patrons, and is authorized to purchase and store MREs in support of major disasters and emergencies, how many MREs can your unit purchase?

A

300 ESM members x 3 meals per day x 2 days = 1,800 MREs.

120
Q

What is key to a successful food service operation?

A

Properly trained and effective supervisors.

121
Q

Why is communication an important principle of shift leader duties?

A

Because poor communication can strain food production and hamper good customer service.

122
Q

What checklist should you complete to start off your day as a shift leader?

A

Start with Department of Defense (DD) Form 2973, Food Operation Inspection Report.

123
Q

When should the shift leader check the serving lines against the Production Log?

A

At least 15-20 minutes before opening the facility.

124
Q

When should the shift leader check the cash register for accurate prices?

A

Before each meal.

125
Q

When should the shift leader review the waste logs?

A

Before it is processed at the end of the day.

126
Q

What are the sources the Production Logs are based on?

A

Based on the 14-day Corporate Food Service (CFS), 21-day Corporate Automated Food Enterprise (CAFE), and 28-day FTI menu.

127
Q

What items can be found on the production log?

A
  • Meal period.
  • Cycle week.
  • Cycle day.
  • Projected Headcounts - Projected, Actual, and Variance.
  • Menu items for a particular meal.
  • Person assigned to prepare the menu item.
  • Etc.
128
Q

Why is accurate information on the Production Log?

A

To ensure ordering and forecasting programs operate effectively.

129
Q

Who utilizes the Production Log?

A
  • Facility manager.
  • Storeroom personnel.
  • Shift leader and shift personnel.
130
Q

Who develops, publishes, and distributes the WWM?

A

AFSVA/SVOF?

131
Q

Why do we use the WWM?

A

For planning and serving a good quality variety of menus.

132
Q

List the operational advantages of the WWM.

A
  • Providing flexibility.
  • Forecasting requirements for logistics.
  • Production Planning.
  • Service efficiency.
  • Training, scheduling and consistency.
  • Menus configured within monetary targets by meal period.
133
Q

What are the three types of WWM templates?

A
  • 14-day menu template.
  • 21-day menu template.
  • 28-day menu template.
134
Q

What is the first step in menu planning?

A

To examine the WWM and determine its suitability for your facility.

135
Q

What is the basis for good food purchase and production?

A

Menu planning.

136
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility to make suitable selections as to what they will consume?

A

The patron.

137
Q

How many choices of fruit or vegetable juice are offered per meal period?

A

3 choices per meal.

138
Q

At a minimum, what pastries are offered for breakfast and midnight meal?

A

One for midnight meal and breakfast.

139
Q

Why is the dinner meal the most overlooked?

A

There is a tendency for food (leftovers) to be held over from lunch to reduce the number of items that must be prepared.

140
Q

What is the Grab-n-Go food service program designed for?

A

To provide a meal for guests who do not have time to dine in.

141
Q

What are the two categories of holiday meals?

A

Mandatory and optional.

142
Q

What are the approved holiday meal menus?

A

AF Bday, Thanksgiving day, and Christmas.

143
Q

Explain the first step in planning special events.

A

Determining when to serve these meals. Look at whether your planned event will be in conflict with another event.

144
Q

What is goal of the flight menu program?

A

To provide top quality, nutritious flight meals that are attractively packaged.

145
Q

What management tool is available for planning and serving flight and ground support meals?

A

The preface to the WWM.

146
Q

Under the WWM, list the menu patterns or pre-set selection for flight menus.

A
  • 9 large menus.
  • 11 small menus.
  • 7 breakfast menus.
  • 5 frozen meal menus.
  • 13 supplement packs.
147
Q

When are bite-size meals authorized?

A

When serving crew members wearing oxygen masks.

148
Q

What two feedback forms should be available to guests served flight meals?

A

Interactive Customer Evaluation (ICE) or AF IMT 27, Food Service Customer Survey.

149
Q

What is the definition of progressive cooking?

A

Cooking small batches of food on an-needed basis.

150
Q

What are the results of progressive cooking?

A

Improves the use of food, time, and personnel.

151
Q

How should leftovers be utilized from meal to meal?

A

Should be refrigerated until needed. Heat to internal temp of 165 degrees and held at 135 degrees or above before serving.

152
Q

List two procedures that can prevent waste of meats and seafood.

A
  • Cut meat in pieces of uniform size according to the recipe cards, so they all look uniformly.
  • Always use progressive cooking techniques.
153
Q

What can be done to prevent waste before storing fruits and vegetables?

A

Trim and pull out spoiled fruits and vegetables before storing them.

154
Q

What may excessive leftovers from a meal indicate?

A

Poor planning.

155
Q

What contributes to plate waste?

A

Poor portion control, unpopular dishes, and improper servings.

156
Q

List three reasons why food may be unacceptable.

A

Food served haphazardly, servers with poor attitudes, and dirty utensils.

157
Q

List four ways to conserve fuel in the dining facility.

A
  • Ensure exterior doors to the facility are closed.
  • Ensure refrigerator/freezer doors are closed and sealed properly.
  • Use appropriate temps when cooking food.
158
Q

The majority of food-borne illnesses can be traced to what five major risk factors?

A
  • Improper holding temps.
  • Inadequate cooking.
  • Contaminated equipment.
  • Lack of hygiene.
  • Food from unsafe sources.
159
Q

What foods most frequently provide the vehicle for transmission of food-borne illness.

A

Foods of animal origin (meat, eggs, milk, etc.).

160
Q

What microorganisms can be harmful to our health?

A

Bacteria, viruses, protozoan, and fungi.

161
Q

Into what groups are food-borne illnesses divided?

A
  • Natural or chemical poisons.
  • Food-borne intoxication.
  • Food-borne infection.
162
Q

How long does it take for the symptoms of food intoxication and food infection to occur in humans?

A

Food intoxication - 2-4 hours.
Food infection - 6-24 hours.

163
Q

What are the most commonly recognized microorganisms associated with food-borne infections?

A
  • Campylobacter.
  • E-coli.
  • Salmonella.
  • Norwalk virus.
164
Q

Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility…

A

As cash-paying customers.

165
Q

What are the two types of DOD meal rates.

A

Discount and standard.

166
Q

Which meal-type service has a set meal rate the operational charge?

A

Buffet.

167
Q

If it is not feasible to obtain signatures in the base dining facilities during emergencies, who certifies the number of meals furnished?

A

Mission support group commander.

168
Q

How many days of emergency rations (meals, MREs) are authorized units allowed to purchase?

A

Two.

169
Q

What is the key to a successful food service operation?

A

Properly trained and effective supervisors.

170
Q

What should shift leaders accomplish to start their day?

A

Complete the DD Form 2973, Food Operation Inspection Report.

171
Q

Who fills in the projected headcount on the Production Log?

A

Facility Manager.

172
Q

At least how many hours in advance should a shift leader review a Production Log?

A

72.

173
Q

The operational advantages of the cyclic menu in menu planning include…?

A

Providing flexibility in menu planning.

174
Q

Which is not a criterion for which managers can change core menu components?

A

Adjust stock levels to take advantages of vendor seasonal sales.

175
Q

A good menu must be…?

A

Practical and acceptable.

176
Q

According to the minimum meal standards, which is appropriate to serve on a night menu?

A

Fresh made entrees from the following lunch menu.

177
Q

According to the Preface to the WWM, what is mandatory for omelets and scrambled eggs?

A

Use liquid-style, reduced-cholesterol eggs.

178
Q

Holidays meals give the dining facility a chance to…?

A

Show off skills and pride.

179
Q

Which meal menu can you change to support the corresponding holiday?

A

4th of July.

180
Q

When planning special events, what should you look for?

A

To see if it is in conflict with another event.

181
Q

How many large menus are offered according to the WWM Preface?

A

9.

182
Q

When is a high-protein, low residue meal not available to aircrews?

A

For post-flight meals if the flight is resume within 48 hours.

183
Q

What are the benefits of progressive cooking?

A

Improves use of food, time, and personnel.

184
Q

What is a good tip to remember when applying progressive cooking?

A

Open canned items only as needed.

185
Q

How many hours does the onset of food-borne intoxication (food poisoning) illness occur?

A

2-4.

186
Q

Symptoms of food-borne infection usually occur within…?

A

6-24 hours.

187
Q

What storeroom procedures are covered in the Tri-Service Food Code, Receiving, and Storage Standards.

A

Storing foods and preventing, investigating and reporting food-borne illnesses.

188
Q

What is one of the most important functions of storeroom personnel?

A

Receiving, inspecting, and accounting for subsistence.

189
Q

Who does storeroom personnel contact when items or products are of questionable quality.

A

DLA account manager.

190
Q

When should you store the newly received food?

A

After inspecting it for quality and quantity.

191
Q

How can poor-quality raw materials affect the food service monetary account?

A

Negatively, to the point the level of service does not meet AF standards.

192
Q

On what form do you report all unsatisfactory food?

A

6 inches.

193
Q

How should you store perishable foods?

A

With enough space between items to allow for proper air circulation.

194
Q

What is FIFO?

A

First-in, First-out.

195
Q

What is major cause of overcooked, dry, tasteless entrees, which could lead to an outbreak for food-borne illnesses?

A

Improper thawing.

196
Q

Who designates, in writing, persons responsible for and having access to the storeroom?

A

FSO or FSSC.

197
Q

What plays a significant part in operation of any dining facility?

A

Storeroom operations.

198
Q

What is determined by conducting physical inventories?

A

Actual value of inventory on hand, accuracy of records, and effectiveness of internal controls.

199
Q

When do you usually take the internal physical inventory?

A

On the 15th and the last calendar day of each month.

200
Q

Who conducts the fiscal year inventory?

A

A disinterested person outside of the food service.

201
Q

List the procedures for conducting an inventory.

A
  • Store subsistence according to food groups or meals.
  • Arrange items on shelves in the same order as they appear on MPS.
  • Conduct weekly/monthly physical counts.
  • Conduct spot checks.
202
Q

What items are included in the inventory?

A

All food in storerooms, refrigerators/freezers and all unopened containers.

203
Q

How do we document transfers in non-automated facilities?

A

AF IMT 3516.

204
Q

When subsistence is transferred between automated facilities, where is the transfer conducted?

A

End-of-day runs.

205
Q

How do you transfer small amounts of medically condemned food?

A

By creating an inventory adjustment.

206
Q

Where do you transfer large amounts of medically condemned food?

A

To AFSVA/SVOFA.

207
Q

What are subsistence requirements?

A

The food you need for the menus you plan.

208
Q

How does forecasting benefit your customers?

A

By having advertised menus available.

209
Q

How do food service automated reports help you?

A

By taking away some of the tedious tasks you were responsible for under the manuel system.

210
Q

What is the ESM monthly report?

A

Monthly listing of a squadron’s valid ESM members.

211
Q

Who fully and accurately accounts for the meals served?

A

The FSO or FSSC and food service managers.

212
Q

What does AF Form 79 verify?

A

The daily amount of cash collected and the number of ESM personnel served.

213
Q

What does AF IMT 1119-1 account for?

A

All types of meals and record cash collected for them on AF Form 79.

214
Q

What does DD Form 1131 report?

A

Any cash overages or shortages.

215
Q

What is the purpose of AF IMT 1254?

A

Signatures recorded on the AF Form 79.

216
Q

How do you use the AF Form 1305?

A

To account for forms and cash issued to cashiers.

217
Q

What is the first step when manually adjusting a recipe yield?

A

To obtain a working factor by dividing the number of servings needed by 100.

218
Q

What is the difference between a weight and a measure?

A

Weight: Solid ingredient measured on a scale.
Measure: Any ingredient that is a liquid; measured with cup or spoon.

219
Q

How many quarts equal one gallon?

A

4.

220
Q

Besides playing a major role in communicating between a base’s food service operation and the PV, what other roles does the PV account representative perform?

A
  • Functions as a communications’ director and monitor.
  • Oversees the PV program, etc.
221
Q

What are the benefits of using a PV?

A
  • One stop shopping.
  • Inventory reduction.
  • Etc.
222
Q

When can customers expect to receive their food after placing an order?

A

48 hours.

223
Q

When was the frequency of vendors’ deliveries set?

A

During the initial set up of the PV.

224
Q

Name one of the selling points of the PV program.

A

The facilities can reduce their inventory levels because of frequent deliveries of items ordered.

225
Q

What does a PV enable us to do?

A

Take advantage of commercial vendors’ food distribution systems.

226
Q

What is one of the advantages of going to a local vendor for items in which your guests see the packaging?

A

The availability of commercial, brand-name products.

227
Q

Who should you contact first if you are having problems with the quality or timeliness of food deliveries?

A

The PV.

Services Journeyman Study Guide (1 decks)

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