Volume 2 Flashcards
(124 cards)
1
Q
What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A
Physical.
2
Q
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
A
Logical Link Control and Media Access Control
3
Q
At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A
Data Link
4
Q
At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
A
Network
5
Q
At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
A
Presentation
6
Q
What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?
A
Application
7
Q
What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
A
Protocol
8
Q
What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?
A
Physical
9
Q
What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A
Logical.
10
Q
What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
A
Bus
11
Q
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
A
Star
12
Q
What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
A
Hybrid
13
Q
Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
A
Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
14
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
A
Address Resolution Protocol
15
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
A
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
16
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A
Internet Control Message Protocol
17
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A
Transmission Control Protocol.
18
Q
What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?
A
File Transfer Protocol
19
Q
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
A
Local Area Network
Wide Area Network ?
20
Q
What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
A
Virtual Private Network
21
Q
Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?
A
Port 8080
22
Q
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A
32 bits
23
Q
Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A
Dotted Decimal Notation
24
Q
Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A
Class A
25
What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
Class C
26
What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
Class D
27
What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
127.0.0.1
28
What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
Subnet mask
29
What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
255.255.0.0.
30
What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
Classless Inter-Domain Routing
31
Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
Colon Hexadecimal Format
32
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234
33
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
10AB::3:0:1234:5678
34
What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
Link-local
35
What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?
Site-local
36
What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
Aggregatable Global
37
The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the
microprocessor
38
What two main components make up the central processing unit?
Control unit and arithmetic logic unit
39
What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
Nonvolatile
40
Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
Twisted pair cable
41
An optical communications system is comprised of a
transmitter, cable, and receiver.
42
Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
Safety
43
The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
mobility
44
Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
Direct Connections
45
Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
Employee
46
What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?
Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers
47
How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
127
48
How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?
63
49
What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
Voltage
50
What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
Bridge
51
What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
80/20 rule
52
This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another
Translational.
53
What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
Store-and-forward
54
What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
Fragment-free
55
What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
Layer 3
56
What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
. Routing tables
57
Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
Border Gateway Protocol
58
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
2
59
What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
. TSEC/KIV–7
60
What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
TSEC/KIV–19
61
What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
AN/CYZ–10 /DTD
62
The classification of a fill device is
classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key
63
A modem is a device that modulates
digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium
64
Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
20 Hz to 20 kHz
65
The main function of the Data Service Unit is to
. adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of
the telephone carrier equipment
66
Software is generally divided into
. systems software, operating systems software, and applications software
67
Which one is not a category of the operating system’s task categories?
Troubleshoot interface
68
The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer’s motherboard goes through a special program called a
driver
69
The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the
kernel
70
Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
specific
71
What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
Norton and McAfee
72
Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
Workgroup
73
Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?
Enterprise Edition
74
One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?
Datacenter Edition
75
What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
UNIX
76
What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
Bourne shell
77
What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the “a” partition?
root
78
Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
Relative
79
This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network
Warrior component
80
This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches
Common policy and standards
81
Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
The service that owns the installation.
82
Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
Deployed warfighter
83
What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network.
84
How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.
85
Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?
KG–84
86
What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
DISN backbone
87
What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?
Speed and reliability
| Security and Reliability ??
88
What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?
Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems
89
Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs
90
Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
Defense Information Systems Agency
91
How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
The DSN offers precedence access thresholding
92
The DSN offers precedence access thresholding
Flash Override
93
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network
(DRSN)?
19.2 Kbps
94
While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
Liquid crystal display
95
What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders
96
The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?
1 microsecond
97
Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
OPSEC
98
Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
OPSEC
99
Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
. Routine use
100
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
AF Form 3227
101
Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
AFI 33–129
102
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
AFI 31–501
103
Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as
sensitive but unclassified
104
What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
105
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
AFI 33–119
106
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
SF 153
107
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
. AF Form 1109
108
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
incident
109
Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
Air Force Communications Agency
110
Final reports of a communication security incident are due
30 days after the initial report is issued
111
The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in
AFI 33–200
112
Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
COMPUSEC
113
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
Emanation
114
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions
115
Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?
INFOCON 5
116
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
INFOCON 4
117
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
INFOCON 3
118
Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
INFOCON 2
119
At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
Tier 1
120
At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?
Tier 2
121
An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as
a full accreditation
122
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
“B”
123
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
“C”.
124
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing “confidential” information?
SF 708
