Volume 2 Flashcards
(300 cards)
0
Q
The IEEE divide the OSI data link layers into what two sublayers?
A
Logical link control and media access control
1
Q
What layer of the open system interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A
Physical
2
Q
At what OSI layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A
Data link
3
Q
At what OSI layer do routers operate?
A
Network
4
Q
At what OSI layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
A
Presentation
5
Q
What OSI layer is closest to the end user?
A
Application
6
Q
What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
A
Protocol
7
Q
What topology defines the layout of a networks devices and media?
A
Physical
8
Q
What topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A
Logical
9
Q
What topology consists of devices connected to a common shared cable?
A
Bus
10
Q
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
A
Star
11
Q
What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
A
Hybrid
12
Q
Which network protocol has the DoD chosen as it’s standard to govern the flow of information?
A
Transport Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
13
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a description device to a media access control address?
A
Address resolution protocol
14
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol / internet protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows it’s own MAC address?
A
Reverse address resolution protocol
15
Q
What Transmission Control Protocol / internet protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A
Internet control message protocol
16
Q
What TCP/IP transports layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A
Transmission Control Protocol TCP
17
Q
What application within TCP/IP is used to send and receive files via TCP?
A
File Transfer Protocol
18
Q
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
A
Wide area network
19
Q
What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public internet?
A
Virtual private network
20
Q
Which is a common port that contains HTTP servers and proxies?
A
Port 8080
21
Q
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A
32
22
Q
Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A
Dotted decimal notation
23
Q
Using a range of 1 - 126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A
Class a
24
What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
Class C
25
What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
Class D
26
What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
127.0.0.1
27
What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
Subnet mask
28
What is the default classful subnet mask on class b networks?
255.255.0.0
29
What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
Classless inter-domain routing
30
Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user friendly?
Colon hexidecimal format
31
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234
32
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
10AB::3:0:1234:5678
33
What unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
Site-local
34
What unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?
Link-local
35
What unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the network is portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
Aggregatable global
36
The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the...
Microprocessor
37
What two main components make up the central processing unit?
Control unit and arithmetic logic unit
38
What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
Nonvolatile
39
Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
Twisted pair cable
40
An optical communications system is comprised of a...
Transmitter, cable and receiver
41
Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
Safety
42
The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called...
Mobility
43
Which of the following is not one of the four security threats to wireless local area network?
Direct connections
44
Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
Employee
45
What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?
IEEE
46
How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
127
47
How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?
63
48
What do you apply across liquid crystal display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
Voltage
49
What is a data link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
Bridge
50
What rules establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
80/20 rule
51
This type of bridge is used to convert one data link layer protocol to another
Translational
52
What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
Store and forward
53
What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
Fragment free
54
What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
Layer 3
55
What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
Routing tables
56
Which of these is an example of an exterior gateway protocol?
Border gateway protocol
57
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
2
58
What encryption device may you rarely see due to it lower maximum data rate?
TSEC/KIV 7
59
What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels an categories and is able to encrypt trunk level high speed circuits?
TSEC/KIV 19
60
What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
AN/CYZ-10/DTD
61
The classification of a fill device is...
Classified as soon as a key is loaded and holds the classification of the loaded key
62
A modem is a device that modulates...
Digital data into a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium
63
Analog modems are used over voice band range of...
20 Hz - 20 kHz
64
The main function of the data service unit is to...
Adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment
65
Software is generally divided into...
System, operating system and applications software
66
The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computers motherboard goes through a special program called a...
Driver
67
The core operating system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the...
Kernel
68
Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
Specific
69
What are two anti virus program that the Air Force uses?
Norton
| McAfee
70
Window operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
Workgroup
71
Which Windows operating system provides support for features such as windows system resource manager and metadirectory services?
Enterprise edition
72
One of the windows server editions operating systems provides support for high end, high traffic applications servers. Which operating system is it?
Data center edition
73
What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
Unix
74
What is the name is the standard all purpose she'll most commonly used?
Bourne shell
75
What directory is alway identified by the slash symbol and is in the "a" partition?
Root
76
Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
Relative
77
This component of the GIG consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network
Warrior component
78
This characteristic of the GIG ensures seem less transmission of information between different service branches
Common policy and standards
79
Who ears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the defense information system network?
The service that owns the installation
80
Which segment of the defense information system network may be a person in the deployed area of responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
Deployed war fighter
81
What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
DISA asynchronous transfer mode
82
How are non internet protocols sent across the SIPR network?
Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across SIPRNET
83
Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to red local area networks?
KG 84
84
What provides conduit for JWICS data transmission from one location to another?
DISN backbone
85
What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology?
Security and reliability
86
What's the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?
Integrating traditional TDM switches with VOIP
87
Which organization is responsible for design, acquisition, and single systems management of the DSN?
Defense information systems agency
88
How is responsiveness provided in the defense switched network?
The DSN offers precedence access thresholding
89
What type of defense switched network precedence call cannot be preempted?
Flash overdrive
90
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the defense red switch network?
19.2
91
While you are using the red switch what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
Liquid crystal display
92
What's the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
To provide a foxhole to national command authority link for commanders
93
The GPS program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?
1 microsecond
94
Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701?
Opsec
95
Which security program is defined as a process of identifying critical info and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations am other activities?
Opsec
96
Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DoD best describes which mandatory ORM of a privacy act statement?
Routine use
97
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect privacy act material?
AF Form 3227
98
Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in...
AFI 33-129
99
Official guidance on individual security clearances an permitting access to classified information can be found in...
AFI 31-501
100
Disclosure if info that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as...
Sensitive but unclassified
101
What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
102
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
AFI 33-119
103
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
SF 153
104
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
AF form 1109
105
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC ...
Incident
106
Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
Air Force communications agency
107
Final reports of a communication security incident are due...
30 days after the initial report is issued
108
The AF IA Program is detailed in...
AFI 33-200
109
Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification or destruction?
COMPUSEC
110
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
Emanation
111
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as...
Telecommunications electronic material protected from emanating spurious transmissions
112
Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?
INFOCON 5
113
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
INFOCON 4
114
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected?
INFOCON 3
115
Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
INFOCON 2
116
At which NetOps level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
Tier 1
117
At what level do regional operation centers perform NetOps to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing systems and network management IA/NetID and information dissemination management?
Tier 2
118
An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as...
A full accreditation
119
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
B
120
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
C
121
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?
SF 708
122
Into what two categories can you divide the OSI model?
Application (upper) and data transport (lower)
123
What is the responsibility of the data transport layers of the OSI model?
Defining how data is sent across the physical media, through internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine
124
What is a physical topology?
It's a map of the layout of the network media that interconnects the devices on a network.
125
What's a logical topology?
Defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network
126
What's the rule of thumb to distinguish physical from logical topologies?
If you can see and touch it, it is physical; if you can't see it or touch it, it's logical
127
A topology affects the networks capabilities; whats the impact of choosing one topology over another?
Type of equipment the network needs; capabilities of the equipment; growth of the network; and way the network is managed
128
What are the advantages of a bus topology?
Inexpensive to install; easy to add more workstations; requires less cable than other; works well for small networks
129
What are the disadvantages of a bus topology?
It's no longer a recommended option for new installations; if the backbone breaks, the network is down, only a limited number of devices can be included; it's difficult to isolate where a problem may be; and sharing the same cable means slower access time
130
What are the advantages of a star topology?
It's easy to add more devices as your network expands; the failure of one cable or one cable break will not bring down the entire network; the hub provides centralized management; it's easy to find device and cable problems; a star network can be upgraded to faster network transmission speeds; and it's the most common topology, so many equipment options are available
131
What are the disadvantages of a star topology?
A star network requires more media than a ring or bus network; the failure of the central hub can bring down the entire network; and the costs of installation an equipment are higher than for most bus networks
132
What are the advantages of a ring topology?
Data packets can travel at greater speeds; there are no collisions; and it is easier to locate problems with devices and cable; and no terminators are needed
133
What are the disadvantages of ring topology?
A ring network requires more cable than a bus network; a break in the cable will bring many types of ring networks down when you add devices to the ring, all devices are suspended from using the network; and it's not as common as the bus topology; so there's not as much equipment available
134
What are the two most common hybrid topologies?
Star bus and star ring topologies
135
The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at what four layers?
The data link layer, the network layer, the transport layer, or the application layer
136
The protocols at the data link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the physical layer of the network. What standards are these protocols base on?
The standards that have been adopted by the IEEE as the project 802 standards
137
What are the four most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer?
Internet protocol, address resolution protocol, reverse address resolution protocol and internet control message protocol
138
What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment?
Source port, destination port, sequence number, acknowledgment number, TCP header length, reserved, flags, sliding-window size, checksum, urgent pointer, options, padding and data
139
What are some reasons for implementing DHCP?
To reduce time spent on IP address management, to reduce the potential for errors in assigning IP addresses, and to make IP addressing transparent for mobile users
140
What's a group of computers and device that share a common communication line and resources in a small geographical area?
LAN
141
A local area network may serve how many users?
As few as two or three users or as manat as thousands of users
142
What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines?
A metropolitan area network or campus network
143
What network provides a private tunnel through the internet?
VPN
144
What type of computer port specifies a service that is a process or application that runs on a server and provides some benefit to a network user?
Reply port
145
What is the port used when you do credit card transactions with e-commerce sites?
Port 443-SSL is the default port used when you do credit card transactions with an e-commerce site
146
What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address?
Network and host number
147
Who assigns network numbers?
IANA, ISP or OSP
148
What's the reserved address for loop back?
127.0.0.1
149
What's the reserved IPv4 address for a limited broadcast?
255.255.255.255
150
What's a subnet mask?
Mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number
151
What are the two methods of subnet masking?
Classful and classless
152
What's the difference between the two methods of subnet masking?
Classful is using the default mask to separate the network number, classless borrows bits from the host field
153
What are some benefits to subnetting?
Ease of administration, improve network performance and security
154
How long is an IPv6 address?
It is 128 bits or 16 octets long
155
How is an IPv6 address expressed?
16 byte fields, in colon hexidecimal format
156
What are two ways to gotten the expression of an IPv6 address?
Leading zero compression and zero compression
157
What is a unicast address?
Address identity to a single interface
158
What is a multicast address?
An address used to identify a group of interfaces belonging to different nodes starting with an address of FF00:/8
159
What is an anycast address?
An address used to identify a set of interfaces; but the packets are sent and accepted by the interface that is closest
160
What are the three types of unicast address?
Link, site and global
161
What is the IPv6 loop back address?
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1
162
What are some tools available to transition from IPv4 to IPv6?
Dual IP layer / Dual stack, configured tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4, IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses, and automatic tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4
163
What does the acronym RAM mean?
Random access memory
164
What's the difference between ROM and RAM?
ROM is usually only read, RAM is read and write. ROM data is retained without power, RAM data is retained only with power on
165
Name the special type of memory used to store the BIOS setting in a pc.
Complementary metal oxide semiconductor memory
166
What speed enhancement is a small amount of memory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the main memory computer?
Cache
167
What device converts the wall outlets AC into DC to provide power to all internal circuitry in a computer?
Power supply
168
Explain the term input/output
The term can describe anything communicating to/from a computer
169
Why is the trade name that refers to the 40 pin interface and drive controller architecture designed to implement the ATA standard?
IDE (integrated drive electronics controller)
170
List five external computer connections
PS/2, serial, parallel, Universal Serial Bus, fire wire.
171
Name four integrated/internal peripheral devices.
Hard disk, cd/DVD rom, sound card and graphics/video card
172
How much data can a CD-ROM store? CD-R? DVD-ROM?
650MB, 700MB, 4GB
173
Most high volume printers can connect to a network directly using what internal device?
Integrated NIC
174
What's the primary use for a bridge?
To decrease network congestion
175
What two basic issues must be considered before implementing a bridge?
The 80/20 rule and the elimination of bridging loops
176
Name the type of bridging used on Ethernet networks.
Transparent bridging
177
Name the five functions that must occur for transparent bridging.
Learning, flooding, forwarding, filtering, aging
178
What do LAN switches provide between network devices?
Collision-free, high-speed communication
179
Can a switch connect LANs of different bandwidths? If so, give example.
Yes, a switch can connect 10Mbps LAN and a 100Mbps LAN
180
What type of switching is required when a frame must be moved from a low-speed LAN to a high-speed LAN?
Store and forward switching
181
Routers operate at what layer of the OSI model?
Network layer, Layer 3
182
What does a typical router contain?
A typical router has an internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output Jack's for different types of network connectors and usually a management console interface
183
Name three metrics that routers use to determine the best route
Path length, reliability, routing delay, bandwidth, load and communication cost
184
What are the routing protocols that manage traffic within an autonomous system?
Interior gateway protocols
185
Name two methods for directing data on the network
Static or dynamic routing
186
What is static routing?
A technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes
187
What is dynamic routing?
A router automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and complies this info in a routing table
188
What are two types of encryption?
Data and voice encryption
189
What are two devices used for data encryption?
TSEC KIV-7 and the TSEC KIV-19
190
What two telephone devices are used for voice encryption?
Secure telephone and secure terminal equipment
191
What are two types of data encryption fill devices?
AN/CYZ-10/DTD and the Secure DTD 2000 System
192
How can encryption be applied?
Link by link basis, end to end basis or bulk encryption
193
What are two types if modems used?
Dial up or dedicated
194
What is one of the principal functions of a CSU?
Provide a barrier for electrical interference from either side of the unit
195
What's the main function of a DSU?
To adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment, and vice versa
196
State the two things done by an operating system?
It manages the hardware and software resources of the computer system.
It provides a stable, consistent way for applications to deal with the hardware without having to know all the details of the hardware
197
Name the six categories of an operating systems tasks
Processor management, memory management, device management, storage management, application interface and user interface
198
Applications are called what type of programs?
End user
199
How is Microsoft access used?
Microsoft access is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database
200
What program is free to download from adobes website that allows you to open PDF files?
Acrobat reader
201
Name Microsoft windows family of operating systems.
Windows 98, NT, 2000, XP, Vista and 7
202
What is a domain?
A collection of computers defined by the administrator of a windows server network that share a common directory/database
203
When did bell labs develop the unix operating system?
Early 1970s
204
What's the program called that you interact with directly from your terminal or workstation?
Shell
205
Name four common shells in unix
Bourne shell, korn shell, c shell, restricted shell
206
Define partitions
Partitions are physical areas of a disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems
207
When are partitions established?
During system configuration
208
In which directory are application programs contained?
The usr (user) directory
209
What is the firmware prompt called on sun machines?
ok (often called the OK prompt)
210
What are the seven components of the GIG?
Warrior component, global application, computing, communications, foundation, information management
211
What organization has the mission of directing and operating the GIG?
USSTRATCOM
212
What characteristic of the GIG ensures that users across the DoD can seamlessly connect to the systems and services offered by the GIG?
Joint infrastructure
213
What three networks make up the data component of DISN?
NIPRNET, SIPRNET, JWICS
215
Why does the DoD need to have its own voice communications networks?
Because of the nature of the military's mission requirements and security concerns
216
What is the purpose of the long haul transport infrastructure segment of the DISN?
It is the pipeline through which all DISN information will travel
217
Explain how the NIPRNET connects LANs and users
Through the use of routers and ATM switches, which are interconnected using high-speed digital trunks
218
What is the purpose of NIPRNET?
The NIPRNET is the way a local base LAN connects to other base LANs to support medical, finance, supply, personnel and other unclassified base data communication requirements
219
How is it possible for NIPRNET to carry non-internet porotcol services?
Subscriber systems can use the NIPRNET to carry non-IP services if they have been encapsulated or converted to IP before being presented to a NIPRNET router
220
Who manages SIPRNET hub routers and premise routers?
Hub routers are managed by DISA. Premise routers are managed as a base communications asset
221
How does SIPRNET function like unclassified IP networks?
It can use Ethernet, router, FDDI, ATM data link protocols
222
What network is JWICS the Top Secret equivalent?
JWICS is the Top Secret equivalent to SIPRNET
223
What system is the primary means of operator interface for JWICS?
The primary means of operator interface for JWICS is the Joint Deployable Intelligence Support System
224
How does CITS manage the life cycle of the Air Force's communications and information systems?
By providing standardized infrastructure and network protection tools for all voice, video and data services that traverse base networks
225
What are the four segments of the CITS transport component?
Information Transport System, 2nd generation wireless LAN, voice switching system, C4ISR infrastructure planning system
226
What CITS NM/ND component is the most recent stride towards in-depth security for Air Force networks?
Limiting our connections to the GIG
227
What are the two categories of DAN users?
Command and control and operational support
228
Which user category is assigned flash or flash-override precedence?
Command an control users
229
What are the five key objectives of DSN?
Survivability, responsiveness, security, cost effectiveness, interoperability
230
What device makes end-to-end encryption available on DSN users?
Secure terminal equipment
231
What are the major subsystems of DSN?
Switching; transmission; timing and synchronization, administration; administration, operations and maintenance/network management (AO&M/NM)
232
What is the system high level of security for operation of the Red Switch?
Secret
233
What standard data rates will the red switch offer direct switching?
Up to 64 Kbps for synchronous and 19.2 Kbps for asynchronous
234
How many station lines can the multi line phone accommodate?
Up to 48
235
Briefly describe the purpose of standardized tactical entry point.
To allow tactical DSCS terminals to access the Defense Communication System
236
Why are tactical terminal considered at a disadvantage?
Tactical terminals are generally considered "disadvantaged" because they require much more of the satellite's downlink power to receive the signals
237
What four services are provided via the stadardized tactical entry point?
Seven T1 DSN access circuits, Three Red Switch accesses, up to 10 Mbps data access, and multiple video circuits from 128 Kbps to 1.544 Mbps per circuit
238
Why was Teleport developed?
Teleport was developed to expand multi-media RF access to multiple military and commercial communications systems, while taking advantage and expanding the baseband equipment and DISN services the STEP program has installed
239
What is the Navstar Global Positioning System (Navstar GPS)?
Navstar GPS is a constellation of earth orbiting satellites designed to provide authorized and appropriately equipped users with worldwide three-dimensional positioning and navigation information
240
What are the two primary missions of the Global Positioning System?
Navigation and nuclear detection
241
How is OPSEC defined?
OPSEC is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities
242
What is the goal of OPSEC?
The goal of OPSEC is to identify information and observable activities relating to mission capabilities
243
Which security programs does OPSEC encompass?
OPSEC encompasses all AF security program
244
Who established the INFOSEC program?
The president
245
What is the definition and goal of the INFOSEC program?
The goal of INFOSEC is to efficiently and effectively protect AF info by delegating authority to the lowest levels possible; encouraging and advocating use of risk management principles, focusing on identifying and protecting only that information that requires protection, integrating security procedures into our business processes so that they become transparent, and ensuring everyone understands their security roles and responsibilities
246
What does the Privacy Act of 1974 protect?
The Privacy Act of 1974 is the legal statute protecting individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy
247
What AFI contains information on the Privacy Act?
AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program, contaqins the AF policy on Privacy Act information
248
Name the four parts of the Privacy Act statement.
Authority, purpose, routine uses and disclosures
249
How are PA protected records disposed?
Records protected by the Privacy Act are disposed of according to the records retention schedule on the file plan. The method of destruction depends on the composition of the material
250
What are the categories of classified information?
Top Secret, Secret and Confidential
251
What document covers FOUO and FOIA?
The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), covered in DoD 5400.7-R, DoD Freedom of Information Act Program, provides information on the FOUO designation
252
What is the definition of COMSEC?
COMSEC is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from information systems of the US Government related to national security and to make sure the authenticity of such information systems
253
How does TRANSEC relate to COMSEC?
TRANSEC is the component to COMSEC resulting from the application of measures designed to protect information systems traffic from the interception and exploitation by means other than crypto-analysis
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What is critical information?
Critical Information is information about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitation that an adversary seeks in order to gain a military, political, diplomatic, economic or technological advantage
255
Explain the two-person integrity system.
Two person integrity is a storage and handling system that prohibits access to COMSEC keying material to lone or unaccompanied individuals. TPI procedures require the presence of at least two authorized persons, both who know TPI procedures and who can detect incorrect or unauthorized security procedures for the performed task
256
What is AFCOMSEC Form 16 used for?
AFCOMSEC Form 16, Account Daily Shift Inventory is used to account for COMSEC material using both Defence Courier Service and the AF Electronic Key Management System
257
What should you look for before you open a COMSEC package?
Make sure there is no evidence of tampering or forced entry. If you suspect tampering or forced entry from a previous custodian, do not open the package until advised to do so by the appropriate COMSEC authority or CRO
258
What is AF Form 1109 used for?
AF Form 1109 is used to document visitor access to restricted areas where classified is being processed
259
What is a COMSEC deviation?
A COMSEC deviation is an occurrence involving a failure to follow established COMSEC instructions, procedures, or standards
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What is a COMSEC insecurity?
A COMSEC insecurity is an investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information
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What is a COMSEC incident?
Any un-investigated occurrence that jeopardized the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information
262
Name the three COMSEC incidents
Physical, Personnel and Crytpographic incidents
263
How does a practice dangerous to security (PDS) differ from a COMSEC incident?
Practice dangerous to security (PDS) is defined as a procedure that has the potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material if allowed to continue. A PDS is not a COMSEC incident and is not assigned as AF COMSEC Incident case number
264
What document is used to label unsecured phones?
DD Form 2056 is used to label unsecured phones
265
When are the COMSEC final reports due?
Final reports are due 30 days after the initial report is issued
266
Define COMPUSEC?
COMPUSEC is the applied discipline that results from measures and controls that protect data in a computer against unauthorized disclosure, modification or destruction
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What are the objectives of COMPUSEC?
COMPUSEC objectives are to protect and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, availability, authentication, and non repudiation of information system resources and information processed throughout the systems life cycle
268
What are three sources that threaten information systems?
Threats are caused from natural, environmental, human and viruses
269
Define the COMPUSEC and IA vulnerabilities?
COMPUSEC and IA vulnerabilities are physical, environmental, personnel, hardware, software, media, network communications and procedural
270
How can you protect an unattended computer system?
You can protect a system by removing your CAC form reader when unattended
271
What type of network is used to process unclassified information?
Non-secure NIPRNET
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What type of network is used to process classified information?
SIPRNET
273
What is spyware?
Spyware is computer software that is designated to collect personal information about users without their informed consent
274
Define EMSEC.
EMSEC is the protection resulting from all measures taken to deny unauthorized personnel information of value that might e derived from communications systems and cryptographic equipment intercepts and the interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment, information systems, and telecommunications sytems
275
Whats the objective of EMSEC?
The objective of EMSEC is to deny access to classified and, in some instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanations within an inspectable space
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What are compromising emanations?
Unintentional signal that, in intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transferred, received, handled, or otherwise processed by any information processing equipment
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What does an EMSEC assessment determine?
A desktop analysis to determine the fact an EMSEC countermeasures review is required or not. There are separate EMSEC assessments for information systems, communications systems, and cryptographic equipment
278
What does an EMSEC countermeasure provide?
A technical evaluation of a facility where classified information will be processed that identifies the EMSEC vulnerabilities and threats, specifies the required inspectable space, determines the required EMSEC countermeasures, and ascertains the most cost effective way to apply required countermeasures
279
What does the user identify before applying EMSEC countermeasures?
The user identifies the information systems that will process classified information; the volume, relative sensitivity, and perishability of the information; the physical control measures in effect around the area that will process classified information; and applies identified IA and EMSEC countermeasures
280
What do INFOCONs help us with?
INFOCONs help units take the proper protective measures to protect against threats
281
What measures are in place when there is an increased risk of attach in INFOCON 4?
Increased monitoring of all network activities is mandated, and all DoD end users must make sure their systems are secure. Internet usage may be restricted to government sites only, and backing up files to removable media is ideal
282
Describe the actions taken in INFOCON 2.
Non-essential networks may be taken offline, and alternate methods of communications my be implemented
283
What disciplines does IA integrate?
Information awareness is an integrated communications awareness program covering COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and emissions security (EMSEC) disciplines
284
What actions must personnel take to meet the goals of the IA program?
Personnel must understand the necessity and practice of safeguarding information processed, stored or transmitted on information systems and the various concepts of IA countermeasures to protect systems and information from sabotage, tampering, denial of service, espionage, fraud, misappropriation, misuse or access by unauthorized persons
285
What equipment does the AF-GIG encompass?
The AF-GIG includes any AF provisioned system, equipment, software or service residing on the NIPRNET, SIPRNET, or Constellation Net
286
What is the GIG?
The GIG is an all-encompassing communications project of the DoD. It is defined as the globally interconnected, end to end set of information capabilities, associated processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policymakers, and support personnel
287
What are the three NETOPS Levels?
Global, Regional and Local
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What is the responsibility of GNOSC?
Global NOSC is responsible for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the Defense Information Infrastructure
289
Where do FACs exist and what are their purposes?
Functional Awareness Cells are regional level entities that exist at the same NETOPS management tier as the Base NCC. The report to and take direction from the Base and supporting NOSC. FACs require smaller amounts of equipment and performs situational awareness for a functional system or mission
290
What does an accreditation and certification constitute?
Accreditation and Certification constitutes a set of procedures and judgments which lead to a determination of the suitability of an IAS to operate in a targeted operational environment
291
Who makes accreditation decisions and what types can be made?
Accreditation decision is made by the DAA. This accreditation can be a full accreditation which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended or interim accreditation which permits an IAS to operate until identified steps can be completed prior to receiving full accreditation
292
Define physical security.
Physical security results from using all physical measures necessary to safeguard COMSEC material from access of unauthorized personnel. Theses measures include the application of control procedures and physical barriers
293
List the markings required for classified material.
The overall classification of the document; the agency of origin and date of the document' the office or source document that classified the information
294
What items cannot be placed in security container used to store classified material? Why?
Funds, weapons, medical items, controlled drugs, precious metals, money or other non-mission related items susceptible to theft are not, as a rule, stored in any security container that's used to store classified material. Storing these items together could result in the compromise of classified material
295
What is the purpose of SF 700?
The purpose of the SF 700 is to record the container's location, the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of people who know the combination. It is also used to list contact personnel when the security of the material in the container is compromised
296
On what days are Secret packages typically shipped?
Packages containing Secret material are typically shipped n Monday through Thursday only
297
When should hand carrying classified material during a TDY assignment be allowed?
Hand carrying classified material during TDY poses a risk and should be done as a last resort in critical situations
298
What provides guidance on how to properly dispose of classified material?
WebRims Records Disposition Schedule
299
What are the three types of secured facility deviations?
Temporary, permanent and technical
300
Which is not a category of the operating systems task categories?
Troubleshoot interface
