Volume 2

Question 1

What is our mission and number one priority is to deliver the best customer service possible?

Answer 1

Treat all customers with respect, kindness, patience and consideration.

Deal with the customer’s situation as an urgent event, from the time we know about it until it is over.

Identify and act on opportunities for added value.

Provide exceptional customer service, whenever possible. Create and sustain a positive public image

Question 2

Company Officers and Command Officers are responsible for the following

Answer 2

1. Provide a work environment in which exceptional customer service and added value are the result of a
   refined system where members are empowered to operate between the lines to provide caring service with
   both quality and value.
2. Basic organizational behavior must be customer oriented.
3. Invest in human resources by keeping customer service a part of an ongoing development process.
4. Take responsibility for themselves and their subordinates and expand authority in others.
5. Sustain and enhance regional commitment and consistency in the execution of professional services and
   customer satisfaction.

Question 3

Command Procedures are designed to:

Answer 3

• Fix the responsibility for Command on a certain individual through a standard identification
system, depending on the arrival sequence of members, companies, and Command officers.

• Ensure that a strong, direct, and visible Command will be established from the onset of the
incident.
• Establish an effective incident organization defining the activities and responsibilities assigned
to the Incident Commander (IC) and the other individuals operating within the Incident
Command System.
• Provide a system to process information to support incident management, planning, and
decision-making.
• Provide a system for the orderly transfer of Command to subsequent arriving officers.
• Ensure a seamless transition from a Type 5/4 incident to a Type 3/2/1 (NIMS).

Question 4

Roles and Responsibilities within the Incident Command System:

Company Officers (Captains)

Answer 4

• Occupy the position of IC when appropriate.
• Occupy the position of Sector Officer when appropriate.
• Manage task level activities and supervise firefighters.

Question 5

The Tactical

Objectives (listed in order of priority) are:

Answer 5

A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.
C. Conserve property.
D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout
the incident.

Question 6

The Functions of Command include:

Answer 6

1. Assume and announce Command and establish an effective initial command position
   (Command Post).
2. Rapidly evaluate the situation (size up).
3. Initiate, maintain, and control effective incident communications.
4. Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources.
5. Identify the incident strategy, develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and assign companies and
   personnel consistent with plans and standard operating procedures.
6. Develop an effective incident organization using Sectors/Divisions/Groups to decentralize and
   delegate geographic and functional responsibility.
7. Review, and revise (as needed) the strategy to keep the IAP current.
8. Provide for the continuity, transfer, and termination of Command.

Question 7

What are your command options when you’re on scene?

Answer 7

Investigative
Fast Attack
Stationary command

Question 8

What is the Transfer of Command process?

Answer 8

A. The first fire department member arriving on the scene will automatically assume Command.
This will normally be a Company Officer, but could be any fire department member up to and
including the Fire Chief.
B. The first arriving Company Officer will assume Command after the Transfer of Command
procedures have been completed (assuming an equal or higher ranking officer has not already
assumed Command). IC #1 is usually a Company Officer.
C. The first arriving Command Officer should assume Command of the incident following Transfer
of Command procedures and becomes IC #2.
D. Subsequent arriving Command Officers should report their location to the IC, and wait for an
assignment. The first arriving Shift Commander ( preferably from the appropriate city that the
incident is located in if available) will assume the roll of Senior Advisor and assist the IC. The
second arriving Shift Commander sets up the Command Van (CV) and manages the movement
of Command to the CV. The Senior Advisor, IC and Support Officer become the Command
Team (Incident Advisory Team). The Command Team may assign additional staff such as a
Safety Officer (relieves the Support Officer’s ISO responsibility) and a Staging Officer.
E. Assumption of Command is discretionary for Assistant Chiefs and the Fire Chief.

Question 9

Within the chain of Command, the actual transfer of Command will be regulated by the following
procedure:

Answer 9

A. The officer assuming Command (IC #2) will communicate with the person being relieved (IC #1)
by radio or face-to-face. Face-to-face is the preferred method to transfer Command.
B. The person being relieved will brief the officer assuming Command indicating at least the
following:
1. General situation status:
a. Incident conditions (fire location and extent, Hazmat spill or release, number of
patients, etc.)
b. Incident Management Plan.
c. Completion of the Tactical Objectives.
d. Safety considerations.
2. Deployment and assignments of operating companies and personnel.
3. Appraisals of need for additional resources.
C. When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested,
Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I/III) unless a formal written Delegation of Authority has
been signed by both the JHA and the IMT.

Question 10

Command Team (Incident Advisory Team) is comprised of who?

Answer 10

The Command Team consists of the Incident

Commander (IC), Support Officer, and Senior Advisor

Question 11

Who are the first and second members of the command team?

Answer 11

The IC and the Support Officer are the first and second members of the Command Team

Question 12

What are the Roles and Responsibilities of the Support Officer?

Answer 12

• Define, evaluate, and recommend changes to the incident action plan.
• Provide direction relating to tactical priorities and specific critical fireground factors.
• Become the Incident Safety Officer
• Evaluate the need for additional resources.
• Assign logistics responsibilities.
• Assist with the tactical worksheet for control and accountability.
• Evaluate the fireground organization and span of control.
• Other duties as necessary.

Question 13

Who is the third member of the Command Team?

Answer 13

Senior Advisor

Question 14

What are the Role and Responsibilities of the Senior Advisor?

Answer 14

• Review and evaluate the incident action plan, and initiate any needed changes.
• Provide on-going review of the overall incident (THE BIG PICTURE).
• Review the organizational structure, initiate change or expansion to meet incident needs.
• Initiate Section and Branch functions as required.
• Provide a liaison with other city agencies and officials, outside agencies, property owners and/or
tenants.
• Forecast and react to the effect this incident will have on surrounding neighborhoods, Public
Officials, and city staffing.
• Prepare to transition to long-term operations by establishing operational periods and advising
the Assistant Chief of Operations as to the need for an All Hazards Incident Management Team
(AHIMT), state or federal assistance.
• Provide a transitional briefing to the incoming IMT if one has been assigned to the incident.

Question 15

What is done on the strategic level of an incident?

Answer 15

Strategic – This organizational level is designed around the IC and Command Team, operating in the
Command Mode, and working out of a stationary command post. The strategic level involves the
activities necessary for overall operational control, considering critical fireground factors and risk
management plan to determine the strategy and develop an IAP, establishing objectives, managing the
strategy, setting priorities, allocating resources, and thinking ahead. Strategic Level responsibilities
include:
• Determining the appropriate strategy: OFFENSIVE OR DEFENSIVE
• Establishing a strategic plan for the incident.
• Setting priorities.
• Obtaining and allocating resources.
• Predicting outcomes and planning.
• Assigning specific objectives to tactical level units.

Question 16

What is done on the tactical level of an incident?

Answer 16

Tactical - The first management “subdivision” of incident scene organization is accomplished by
assigning Sector (Division or Group) responsibilities. Sector officers are responsible for the tactical
deployment of assigned resources, evaluation, and communication with the IC. They are assigned by
the IC and supervise directly at the site of the assigned activity in order to meet the operational
objectives given to them by the IC.

Question 17

What is done on the task level of an incident?

Answer 17

Task – The level of the organization where the work is performed by assigned companies and other
resources. The Strategic and Tactical levels are in place to support the task level. Task level activities
are routinely supervised by Company Officers. The accumulated achievements of Task Level activities
accomplish Tactical Objectives.

Question 18

When should the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to a sector?

Answer 18

Whenever there are three or

more companies operating in a sector.

Question 19

What is the maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage?

Answer 19

The

span of control is usually five sectors and should never exceed seven sectors.

Question 20

When the number of Sectors exceeds the span of control that the Incident Commander can effectively
manage, the Incident Organization should be divided into what?

Answer 20

Branches

Question 21

Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages:

Answer 21

• Reduces the IC’s span of control – divides the incident scene into more manageable units.
• Creates more effective incident scene communications – permits the IC to exchange
information with a limited number of individuals (Sector Officers) who directly supervise teams of
firefighters. This reduces overall radio traffic by allowing firefighters and sector officers to
communicate face to face instead of by radio.
• Provides a standard and logical system to divide large geographical incidents into
effectively sized units – allows the IC to concentrate on strategy from one standard command
post location.
• Provides an array major support functions – these are to be selected and assigned
according to the particular needs of each situation. The execution and details of these specific
operations becomes the responsibility of the sector officer, not command.
• Improves firefighter safety – allows each sector officer to maintain more direct control of the
position and function of the companies assigned to their sectors at all times. Sector officers
concentrate on their assigned areas and are in a position to move personnel based on incident
conditions and the IC’s decisions.

Question 22

Command Should Assign Sectors Based on the Following Factors:

Answer 22

• When the number of assigned and operating companies threatens to overload the IC’s ability to
command. Direct tactical-level control should be delegated (earlier than later) to sector officers
before the IC’s ability to manage is exceeded.
• When the IC forecasts that the situation will become a major operation, soon exceeding his/her
span of control.
• When companies are involved in complex operations (Large interior or geographic area,
hazardous materials, technical rescues, etc.)
• When companies are operating from tactical positions which Command has little or no direct
control over (i.e. out of sight).
• When the situation presents specials hazards and close control is required over operating
companies (i.e., unstable structural conditions, hazardous materials, heavy fire load, marginal
offensive situations, etc.).
• Name the sector according to its function or geographical location.

Question 23

When establishing a Sector, the IC will assign each Sector Officer:

Answer 23

A. Tactical Objectives.
B. A radio designation (Roof Sector, East Sector, etc.)
C. The identity of resources assigned to the Sector.

Question 24

When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities, what does his FIT become?

Answer 24

Sector safety officer

Question 25

The following types of incidents are | examples where Branch Officers should be utilized:

Answer 25

• A Haz mat incident that requires a major evacuation. • A large-scale incident spread over a wide geographic area. • An incident with mass casualties and a significant hazard (for example: fire, Haz mat, plane crash, floods, etc.) • Campaign high-rise fires • Any incident where the number of Sectors exceed the span of control that can be effectively managed by the incident commander.

Question 26

The Fire Department's involvement and needs at the incident scene can be divided into four sections. They are:

Answer 26

LOGISTICS SECTION PLANNING SECTION OPERATIONS SECTION ADMINISTRATIVE SECTION

Question 27

The Logistics Section roles and responsibilities:

Answer 27

Roles and Responsibilities: • Provide rehab. • Manage staging • Provide and manage any needed supplies or equipment. • Forecast and obtain future resource needs (coordinate with the Planning Section). • Provide any needed communications equipment. • Provide fuel and needed repairs for equipment. • Obtain specialized equipment or expertise per Command. • Provide food and associated supplies. • Secure any needed fixed or portable facilities. • Provide any other logistical needs as requested by Command. • Collect and provide information for an After Action Review. • Supervise assigned personnel

Question 28

The Planning Section is responsible for:

Answer 28

Roles and Responsibilities • Evaluate current strategy and plan with the Incident Commander. • Refine and recommend any needed changes to plan. • Evaluate Incident Organization and span of control. • Forecast possible outcome(s). • Evaluate future resource requirements. • Utilize technical assistance as needed. • Evaluate tactical priorities, specific critical factors, and safety. • Gather, update, improve, and manage information with a standard systematic approach. • Facilitate an After Action Review and After Action Report. • Liaison with any needed outside agencies for planning needs.

Question 29

The Operations Section is responsible for:

Answer 29

Roles and Responsibilities: • Coordinate activities with the Incident Commander. • Implement the Incident Management Plan. • Assign units to Sectors/Branches based on Tactical Objectives and priorities. • Build an effective organizational structure through the use of Branches and Sectors. • Provide Branches and Sectors Tactical Objectives. • Manage Operation Section activities. • Personnel Accountability. • Provide for life safety. • Determine needs and request additional resources. • Consult with and inform other sections and the Incident Command Staff as needed. • Collect and provide information for an After Action Review.

Question 30

The Administration Section is responsible for:

Answer 30

Roles and Responsibilities: • Procurement of services and/or supplies from sources within and outside the Fire Department or City as requested by Command (coordinates with Logistics). • Documenting all financial costs of the incident. • Documenting for possible cost recovery for services and/or supplies. • Analyzing and managing legal risk for incidents such as, hazardous materials clean up. • Serves as the Incident Commander's liaison with: City officials, Litigators (and other lawyer types). Regulatory agencies (EPA, OSHA, DOT, FBI, etc.). • Monitors and coordinates emergency service delivery to the rest of the community during major incidents to ensure adequate coverage.

Question 31

“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order. It often varies due to:

Answer 31

* Distance between staging and the incident * Size of the incident perimeter * Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble

Question 32

“On Deck” is defined as;

Answer 32

a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector. On Deck crews will be supervised either by the Sector Officer or Company Officer and they will remain On Deck until assigned by the IC or Sector Officer.

Question 33

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:

Answer 33

* Reinforce a position within an assigned sector * Crew relief within an assigned sector * Any other tactical position assigned by the IC * Rapid intervention crew REINFORCE RELIEVE RIC ANYTHING ELSE COMMAND WANTS

Question 34

On | deck crews must also size up the area that they are assigned to, this size up should include:

Answer 34

* Locating the structures entrance/exit points in their assigned area * Interior and exterior conditions * Unit ID of crews operating inside the structure * Approximate location of interior crews * Identify which crews are operating each hose line

Question 35

When an on deck crew is used as a relief crew, the Company Officer should do a face to face and transfer information with the officer exiting the structure. The information transferred should include:

Answer 35

* Interior conditions * Routing instructions to the work area * Interior obstructions * Additional tools/resources required * Sector objectives

Question 36

Recycling is defined as:

Answer 36

a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment. If conditions permit, a companies work cycle could be up to 2 to 3 air cylinders.

Question 37

Definition of a Mayday Situation:

Answer 37

Any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by that individual within 30 seconds

Question 38

A Mayday is initiated by any member communicating:

Answer 38

“Mayday, Mayday, Mayday” via portable radio

Question 39

Additionally, the NFPA 1500 Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to

Answer 39

“don, | doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves.”

Question 40

In order to establish effective Mayday readiness, it is necessary to recognize that Mayday readiness has 2 components.

Answer 40

These components are Prevention and Response.

Question 41

Company Officer responsibility for Mayday preventions include:

Answer 41

 Integrating a daily SCBA check into the crew routine  Practicing crew communication in the hazard zone  Rover integration into crew o Individual rovers are responsible to ask if not explicitly discussed at the beginning of a shift  Maintaining knowledge of portable radios and practicing their use  Ensuring Company Officer responsibilities and expectations are clear to the entire crew  Practicing and maintaining crew integrity/accountability  Instilling the standard that firefighters should always stay on a hoseline

Question 42

Once the Mayday situation is recognized and reported, each firefighter should remember BOA:

Answer 42

B.O.A. = Breath, Organize and Act

Question 43

GRAB LIVES stands for:

Answer 43

```  G = Check Air Gauge  R = Radio for Assistance  A = Activate PASS Device  B = Control Breathing, Conserve Air  L = Stay Low  I = Illuminate, Turn Flashlight On  V = Make Loud Noises (Volume)  E = Find An Exit  S = Shield Your Airway (last ditch effort) ```

Question 44

In the event of a Mayday situation, who will take responsibility of the resolution of the Mayday situation?

Answer 44

The sector officer

Question 45

Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the prevention and response to a Mayday situation

Answer 45

The incident command team.

Question 46

Does the Incident and Mayday always remain on the same tactical channel?

Answer 46

Yes. (as long as the mayday wasn't done on a different channel)

Question 47

What is The tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday?

Answer 47

Mayday resolved

Question 48

The critical points that have to be | confirmed prior to giving the benchmark of “Mayday resolved” is:

Answer 48

 The individual(s) that are experiencing the Mayday situation are removed from the hazard zone  All members involved in the rescue are accounted for and are out of the hazard zone  All members working in all other sectors are accounted for  The Incident Commander can give a PAR for the entire hazard zone

Question 49

Upon initiation of a Mayday, the tactical radio operator shall:

Answer 49

o Transmit the emergency traffic tone o Voice on the tactical channel: “We have a Mayday on the scene, all units hold your traffic” o Repeats the Mayday message using the standard radio order model o Allows for the Incident Commander to speak to the Mayday initiator

Question 50

All members, at all levels of the incident involving a Mayday should remember B.O.A.

Answer 50

Breathe, Organize and Act!

Question 51

all members are expected to operate under the following Risk Management System.

Answer 51

* We Will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, to save SAVABLE lives. * We Will risk our lives a Little, in a calculated manner, to save SAVABLE property. * We Will Not risk our lives at all for lives or property that are already Lost.

Question 52

“Actions in a calculated manner” require the following:

Answer 52

* Incident Command established * Proper personal protective equipment * Accountability system established * Safety procedures in place * Continuous risk assessment by all members

Question 53

The hot zone will be defined as:

Answer 53

any area | that requires the use of an SCBA.

Question 54

Company Officer / Task level responsibilities of accountability include:

Answer 54

Company Officer / Task - address the task level of accountability and must know where each firefighter is located, and what each firefighter is doing. • Company officers shall maintain a current PASSPORT of personnel responding on the apparatus at all times. • Company officers shall maintain a current MCT roster of personnel responding on the apparatus at all times. • Company officers must ensure that all crewmembers have proper helmet company ID and nametags on scba face piece and helmet. • Company officers must obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all members assigned to his/her crew are accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply. • Company officers must keep crew intact and maintain an awareness of the crews exit air supply. • Company officer must ensure that passport is delivered to their accountability location prior to entering the hot zone and retrieved upon exiting the hot zone.

Question 55

Engineer responsibilities of accountability:

Answer 55

• Engineer – accountability officer who tracks crews and crewmembers who take handlines from his/her apparatus. • Collects passports from crews prior to entering the hot zone • Places passport/pouch on discharge gate when hoseline is charged. • Places hoseline ID tags on each hoseline.

Question 56

FF responsibilities of accountability:

Answer 56

* Firefighter – must have proper company ID on his/her helmet. * Ensure that nametag is placed on passport and roster is updated. * Stay with his/her crew at all times. * Maintain a constant awareness of his/her exit air supply.

Question 57

Accountability responsibilities of all members include:

Answer 57

• All members – immediately update the company passport as they arrive for duty. • Ensure that helmet IDs are accurate. • Ensure that nametags are on scba face piece and helmet. • All crews work for command or sectors/division/groups no free lancing. • Crews arriving on the scene should remain intact. A minimum crew size will be considered two or more members. • Each member must have a radio. • All crews entering the hot zone must have a supervisor. • All crews will go in together, stay together, and come out together. • Reduced visibility and increased risk will require close supervision by the company officer. • The entire crew will exit if a scba, radio, or any equipment that could compromise safety fails while in the hot zone.

Question 58

Accountability | equipment for each piece of apparatus and shift consists of:

Answer 58

a passport with a pouch, small company id tag, helmet ID stickers, and hose ID tag. Passports are bright yellow tags, which measure approximately 3 by 4 inches that are marked with company identification and shift.

Question 59

When entering the hot zone with a partial crew, such as | when an engineer remains at the engine to pump lines, the Company officer must:

Answer 59

remove the nametags of those members not entering the hot zone. The nametags of these members may be returned to the member, placed on the Company officer's helmet Velcro strip or placed in his/her coat pocket.

Question 60

Implementation of the passport system will occur at any incident:

Answer 60

that requires the use of an SCBA. | The use of the accountability system will commence as the first unit arrives on the scene.

Question 61

What do ladder companies do with their passports?

Answer 61

Ladder crews will leave their passport on the apparatus dash when going to the roof to perform ventilation. When going to the interior of the structure, each ladder crew will deliver their passport to the engine closest to their point of entry.

Question 62

Who is responsible for retrieving the passport once the company has exited the hot zone?

Answer 62

Upon exit, the Company Officer must retrieve their passport. Both the Company Officer and Accountability Officer will be responsible to see the passports are retrieved. Crews exiting at a different location other than the original point of entry must immediately notify their original Sector Officer Division/Group Supervisor and/or Accountability Officer of their changed status. The passport must be retrieved.

Question 63

Each back up kit is kept in a blue nylon bag that contains the following equipment:

Answer 63

• One passport pouch • One blank passport – to mark crew member IDs with grease pencil • One blank passport with Velcro – to attach crew member nametags from underside of helmet • One grease pencil

Question 64

If a sector officer takes over accountability from the pump engineer, where do the passports and tags go?

Answer 64

The Battalion Chief and FIT would collect the passports/pouches from the initial engine accountability locations. The small company ID tag is removed from the back of the passport pouch and replaces the passport/pouch on the discharge gate at the pump panel. Accountability is now established and tracked closer to the building. IE, Mayday situation.

Question 65

What are some PASSPORT RULES?

Answer 65

• Passports will be delivered to the assigned accountability location prior to entering the hot zone. • Passports will be maintained at the point of entry to the hot zone. • Passports never enter the hot zone. • Passports will be retrieved by crews upon exiting the hot zone. • Passport accountability location is the engine where crew deployed hoseline.

Question 66

A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:

Answer 66

* Any report of a missing or trapped fire fighter * Any change from offensive to defensive * Any sudden hazardous event at the incident - flash over, back draft, collapse, May Day, etc. * As companies report an all clear. * As companies report under control. * At every 30 minutes of elapsed time. * Any time Command feels it is necessary.

Question 67

How do passports and the accountability system work in high-rise fires?

Answer 67

All crews reporting to the building will deliver their passports to the building lobby. The hoseline ID tag will be taken by each crew to mark their hose line in the stairwell at the standpipe. Lobby Sector/Division/Group will utilize the passports to track all crews and crewmembers in the building. Crews will leave their passports with fire personnel in the fire control room if Lobby/Sector Officer/Division/Group has not been established. The lobby sector/division/group will be responsible for collecting the passports of the initial companies as soon as possible.

Question 68

The 2 in / 2 out procedure should be used when

Answer 68

when the initial arriving Company Officer is operating in the fast attack mode as the Incident Commander on an interior attack with another crew member. The plug person assumes the primary 2 in / 2 out position and the engineer assumes the secondary 2 in / 2 out position.

Question 69

What are the Standard Exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out Requirement at Structure Fires?

Answer 69

1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life. 2. When the fire is in an incipient stage as defined above.

Question 70

When does the 2 in / 2 out rule apply on fires?

Answer 70

The 2 in / 2 out procedure will be established anytime firefighters are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived onscene. In the event the initial company arrives onscene of a fire in the incipient stages the 2 in / 2 out procedure is not required. OSHA further defines an incipient stage fire in 29 CFR 1910.155(c)(26) as a “fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.”

Question 71

What is the incident safety system?

Answer 71

The incident safety function begins with the first arriving unit, typically the company officer/IC as part of the initial size up and continues until the incident is terminated.

Question 72

For incidents such as a still assignment or car fire, and one or two company response to an EMS call, who maintains the role of IC and ISO?

Answer 72

The company officer

Question 73

``` Companies assigned to On-Deck must prepare themselves to function as rescue crews by performing the following tasks/actions: ```

Answer 73

* Monitor tactical radio channel; * Retrieve RIC Bag and confirm contents; * Confirm TIC is in a ready state; * Determine which line each interior company is on—(hose tags); * Coordinate the opening of doors and windows; * Illuminate entrance/exits; * Develop and discuss a possible search and rescue plan.

Question 74

On-Deck Company Actions for Rescue include:

Answer 74

* Confirm May-Day information; * Determine resource and equipment needs based upon May-Day report; * Determine last known location of firefighter/crew in trouble; * Communicate plan with crew; * Implement Plan; * Utilize information and technology (radio reports, TIC, flashlights, etc.); * Monitor air supply; * Provide C.A.N. report to Command.

Question 75

What are the 3 safety intervention approaches?

Answer 75

First Approach- life threatening conditions: Any LIFE THREATENING conditions will be corrected immediately and directly. Where time permits, Command must be notified. Corrective action will be initiated by Command immediately. Second approach- non life threatening conditions: The second approach is for non-life threatening situations and involves a more "one on one" correction of safety problems with individual firefighters, company officers, and/or sector officers (i.e. require SCBA, correct ladder position) and often does not affect incident strategy. This approach is the most frequent type of interaction. Third approach- on going incident planning: The third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process. Upon the implementation of the Safety Sector/Section, Command must provide the Safety Sector/Section an overview of the incident action plan and specific details of the safety plan

Question 76

The Resource Sector is a part of our Incident Command System and may be assigned under what section officer?

Answer 76

Logistics section officer

Question 77

What is the Lobby sector officer responsible for?

Answer 77

1. Identified all entrance/exit points 2. Control all access points when alternate entrances are present 3. Identify suitable entrance/exit point or location 4. Maintain full accountability 5. Record names, times and assignment of personnel 6. Collect all accountability tags 7. For High-rise buildings, normally Lobby Sector is the ground floor lobby area 8. Special Ops Incident: Define perimeter with HAZARD ZONE tape * **Limit entry to authorized personnel with appropriate PPE***

Question 78

Where is lobby sector located in a high-rise incident?

Answer 78

Usually the ground floor

Question 79

In the case of a technical operation, e.g., hazardous materials incident, trench rescue, or confined space, the perimeter shall be defined by:

Answer 79

Hazard Zone tape with an entrance and exit point id'd

Question 80

What does lobby sector have to record?

Answer 80

The Lobby Sector will record the names, times, and assignments of all personnel entering and exiting the controlled area. Accountability tags will be collected from all personnel entering and should be retrieved on departure.

Question 81

How should lobby sector be established in a high-rise incident?

Answer 81

When beginning operations at these incidents, at least one firefighter from the initial arriving companies should be left to establish a Lobby Sector. A company should be assigned to establish Lobby Sector as quickly as possible and additional resources may be needed in major situations.

Question 82

A plan for evacuation should address the following factors:

Answer 82

1. A Command structure 2. Determine the need for evacuation versus in-place sheltering 3. Early notification of the Police Department 4. Identification of an area to be evacuated, perimeters, etc. 5. Required resources 6. Evacuation time frame 7. Identification of shelter sites and preparation of these sites 8. Duration of the evacuation 9. Re-entry of those evacuated 10. Information about the hazard and evacuation presented to evacuees (multi-lingual) 11. Follow-up with evacuees upon re-entry 12. Security of the area evacuated

Question 83

Who defines the area of evacuation?

Answer 83

The area of initial evacuation should be identified by the Incident Commander. The Planning Section will re-evaluate the evacuation area and recommend any necessary adjustments. The evacuation boundaries should follow streets and established roadways. A map should be utilized and distributed to all officers and agencies involved. Maps need to be provided to the Evacuation Branch and the Police Department.

Question 84

When can in place sheltering be utilized?

Answer 84

1. The hazardous material has been identified as having a low or moderate level of health risk 2. The material has been released from its container and is now dissipating 3. Leaks can be controlled rapidly and before evacuation can be completed 4. Exposure to the product is expected to be short-term and of low health risk 5. The public can be adequately protected by staying indoors

Question 85

What are the 3 levels of evacuation?

Answer 85

1. SITE EVACUATION Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes workers at the site and people from adjacent occupancies or areas. 2. INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION The Intermediate Level involves larger numbers of citizens and/or affects a larger area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 people. People may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more. 3. LARGE-SCALE EVACUATION A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large scale evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Rapid initiation of the evacuation process may be required. Evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.

Question 86

Who is responsible for planning an evacuation, and who manages the evacuation itself?

Answer 86

The Planning Section is responsible for all planning associated with the evacuation. The evacuation plan is communicated to the Incident Commander for approval or modification. The actual evacuation process would normally be managed in the Operations Section as an Evacuation Branch or Sector.

Question 87

If you need to make an evacuation branch, should a separate radio channel be used?

Answer 87

A separate radio frequency should be used for the Evacuation Branch. This should be assigned as early in the incident as possible.

Question 88

In what order do you evacuate people?

Answer 88

1. those at greatest risk | 2. Greatest concentrated areas

Question 89

When doing door to door evacuations, what should you do?

Answer 89

``` When making door-to-door evacuations: 1. Be in uniform 2. Wear your helmet Face-to-face notification should include the following instructions: 1. There is an emergency 2. You are in danger 3. Leave immediately 4. Go to shelter (location) 5. Take ( ) route out of area 6. Do you need transportation? 7. Consider multi-lingual needs ```

Question 90

In other situations, where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:

Answer 90

1. Use three (3) five-second blasts of the siren while on the "YELP" setting 2. Follow with the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above) 3. Use maximum volume on PA system 4. Proceed slowly to maximize notification 5. Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that

Question 91

If citizens are refusing to leave when an evacuation is in progress, what should you do?

Answer 91

Write the address down (or if radio traffic permits, radio the address to the Evacuation Branch). A few methods of persuasion include: 1. Be in uniform 2. Wear your helmet 3. Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may not need to be connected) when advising the citizen to leave 4. Ask for next of kin and a phone number 5. Write the next of kin information down 6. Refusals should be noted and reported to the Branch Officer by radio

Question 92

What additional sector may need to be established within evacuation sector to help get people out of the evacuation zone?

Answer 92

TRANSPORTATION BRANCH/SECTOR 1. Obtain buses (start with a minimum of two) and other vehicles that can be used for transportation 2. Stage all transportation resources 3. Put one firefighter (or police officer) on each vehicle equipped with a fire or police department radio 4. Coordinate the Evacuation Sector (or Evacuation Branch) pick-up points or addresses of those citizens needing transportation

Question 93

Who determines the level of critique for an incident?

Answer 93

The Assistant Chief of Operations, or | designee, will determine the level at which the incident will be critiqued

Question 94

What are the 5 levels of critique?

Answer 94

Individual -Conducted within the individual company by the company officer. May include other companies. Usually self initiated by the company officer. No documentation of the critique required. Company level- Level--Post-incident critique conducted on site, prior to departing the scene. Initiated by Command or battalion chief. Informal and brief. Battalion level-Initiated and organized by the battalion chief. Scheduled assembly of the necessary companies as soon as possible after the incident. Structured critique format. Operations level-Level--Conducted within the battalion by the battalion chief or Shift Commander. This may be a first alarm or multiple-alarm incident, or other significant incident whose site operations were uncomplicated, and generally did not involve a large response of fire department resource or outside agencies Department level-Utilized for critiquing large-scale or complex incidents that involved a large response of fire department resources and several outside agencies or incidents that were unusual or tactically significant occurrences

Question 95

How many days do you have to submit needed information for a critique?

Answer 95

10 calendar days

Question 96

When should you summon additional resources?

Answer 96

An actual or potential fire situation exists and the life hazard exceeds the rescue EMS capabilities of initial alarm companies. The number, location and condition of actual victims exceeds the rescue/removal/treatment capabilities of companies. An actual or potential fire situation exists and the property protection demand (both internal and external) exceeds the fire control capabilities of initial alarm companies. Fire conditions become more severe or the situation deteriorates significantly. All companies have been committed and the fire is not controlled.

Question 97

What departments have the ability to put brush fighting helicopters in service?

Answer 97

Phoenix can put 2 bambi bucket in service, and Mesa can put 1 in service

Question 98

How much water can a bambi bucket hold

Answer 98

67-96 gallons

Question 99

How much water can a buoy wall tank hold?

Answer 99

3,000 or 4,000 gal

Question 100

Where can helicopters carrying water NOT fly?

Answer 100

Helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from flying over occupied structures or traffic. Roadways must be closed or structures evacuated if no other flight path can be used.

Question 101

How is a buoy wall tank set up?

Answer 101

Set up in a large flat area, free of overhead obstructions. Place one or two salvage covers underneath for protection. Tanks fill from the bottom

Question 102

How far away do apparatus need to be from helos dipping into tanks?

Answer 102

150'

Question 103

What is the average fuel running time for a helo?

Answer 103

1.5-2 hours

Question 104

How do you approach a helo?

Answer 104

From 45 degrees from the front and make sure you make eye contact with pilot.

Question 105

What are special use helo operations?

Answer 105

1. External load (slingloads, longlines, water bucket, etc.) 2. Hover sites (low-level hovering) 3. Helicopter rappelling (insertions and extraction’s) 4. Flights conducted below 500 feet above ground level (AGL) 5. Helicopter operations around a fire perimeter 6. Single skid landings 7. Any takeoff or landing requiring special pilot technique due to terrain, obstacles, or surface condition.

Question 106

How big does a helo LZ need to be?

Answer 106

100' x 100' with 60 x 60 touch down area in the center

Question 107

What safety person must be put into place once a helo has landed, whether it's running or not.

Answer 107

Tail guard, 50-100' from the tail rotor.

Question 108

How far away are PTs to be staged from a helo?

Answer 108

150'

Question 109

All fire personnel and crew members will wear the following PPE when operating in or on the helicopter:

Answer 109

The assigned personnel shall have a portable radio, eye protection, ear protection, high-visibility safety vests. All personnel assigned to the landing zone operation shall be on the designated landing zone radio frequency. Engine companies are more suitable for this assignment.

Question 110

How far should the LZ be from other activities?

Answer 110

100 yards

Question 111

What is the order for the best surface for an LZ?

Answer 111

1. Concrete 2. Asphalt 3. Grass 4. Compacted dirt (lightly moistened to control dust) 5. Dry, loose dirt/sand (heavily moistened to control dust)

Question 112

Engine Company Functions:

Answer 112

1. Search, rescue, and treatment 2. Stretch hoselines 3. Operate nozzles 4. Pump hoselines 5. Loss control

Question 113

Ladder Company/Tender Functions:

Answer 113

1. Search, rescue, and treatment 2. Ventilate 3. Forcible entry 4. Raise ladders 5. Provide access/check fire extension 6. Utility control 7. Provide lighting 8. Operate ladder pipes (aerials and platforms only) 9. Perform overhaul 10. Extrication 11. Loss control

Question 114

Rescue Company Functions:

Answer 114

1. Transportation of sick and injured to hospitals 2. Search, rescue, and treatment--Rescue companies should communicate commitment and location to Command and maintain a retrievable status for victim treatment and transportation 3. General firefighting duties as assigned by Command

Question 115

In the absence (or delay) of Ladder company response, who should Command should assign ladder functions?

Answer 115

Engines

Question 116

What is the basic "checklist" of the items that are involved in size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground?

Answer 116

Fireground factors

Question 117

Are all the fireground factors are not critical in any one tactical situation?

Answer 117

NO

Question 118

What are the 3 basic information factors command uses along with the fireground factors?

Answer 118

Visual factors Reconnaissance factors Pre plan factors

Question 119

What are the 7 fireground factors?

Answer 119

Building Arrangement Resources Fire Occupancy Other factors/conditions Life hazards

Question 120

What are your tactical priorities?

Answer 120

Rescue Fire Control Property Conservation

Question 121

What are your tactical priorities benchmarks?

Answer 121

``` #1 - Rescue - primary search (all clear) #2 - Fire Control - under control #3 - Property Conservation - loss stopped ```

Question 122

What is the umbrella of service made up of?

Answer 122

fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control.

Question 123

The fireground strategy can change with conditions or because certain benchmark (i.e., ALL CLEAR) are obtained. The fireground strategy is also based on:

Answer 123

1. The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc) 2. Structural integrity of the building (contents vs. structural involvement) 3. The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what's left to burn) 4. The fire and/or smoke conditions (extent, location, etc.) 5. The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)

Question 124

By controlling the fireground strategy, who is | providing overall incident scene safety?

Answer 124

The IC

Question 125

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate fireground strategy?

Answer 125

The Incident Commander

Question 126

What is an offensive fire attack centered around?

Answer 126

Rescue

Question 127

The following are | guidelines for offensive fire attacks:

Answer 127

1. Address 2 in / 2 out decision prior to entry. 2. Initial attack efforts must be directed toward supporting a primary search -- the first attack line must go between the victims and the fire to protect avenues of rescue and escape. 3. Determine fire conditions and extent before starting fire operations (as far as possible). 4. Offensive fires should be fought from the INTERIOR-UNBURNED SIDE (interior capability is the principal offensive strategy factor). 5. Avoid exterior application of water during offensive operation, this is usually the very worst application point. 6. Avoid fire attack from the burning side of the building.

Question 128

What must command consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as they affect:

Answer 128

· Rescue activities · Level of risk to firefighters · Confinement efforts · Exposure protection

Question 129

Fires cannot be considered under control until what has been addressed?

Answer 129

``` seven sides (or sectors) of the fire: front, rear, both sides, top, bottom, and interior. ```

Question 130

What are the basic variables relating to attack operations?

Answer 130

· Location/position of attack · Size of attack · Support functions

Question 131

What is THE ONLY REASON TO OPERATE IN MARGINAL SITUATIONS?

Answer 131

Rescue

Question 132

Command should abandon marginal attacks when:

Answer 132

1. A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal. 2. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed attic spaces. 3. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. 4. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.

Question 133

It is imperative that Command assign a Roof Sector when?

Answer 133

As early as possible

Question 134

What needs to happen when the strategy changes from offensive to defensive?

Answer 134

Emergency traffic All personnel withdraw Stay a safe distance from the structure PARs will be obtained

Question 135

What are the priorities in defensive operations?

Answer 135

personnel safety; the second is exposure protection; the third is knocking down the fire

Question 136

What is the standard guideline for master stream GPM on defensive fires?

Answer 136

750 GPM

Question 137

When the exposure is severe and water is limited, what is the most effective tactic?

Answer 137

most effective tactic is to put water on the exposure and, | if need be, from the interior of the exposure.

Question 138

What does fire under control mean?

Answer 138

It means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped, and the remaining fire can be put out with units onscene. A PAR must be given from all sectors and crews

Question 139

If defensive operations are conducted from the onset of the incident, Command will notify Alarm that, what?

Answer 139

there will | not be a primary search completed for the affected structure(s).

Question 140

The Incident Commander shall direct a primary search in what areas?

Answer 140

all involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered.

Question 141

The Incident Commander must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up:

Answer 141

* Number, location and condition of victims * Affect the fire has on the victims * Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire

Question 142

Command must make the basic rescue decision:

Answer 142

* Do we remove the victims from the fire? OR | * Do we remove the fire from the victims?

Question 143

Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:

Answer 143

* Most severely threatened * The largest number (groups) * The remainder of the fire area * The exposed areas

Question 144

What is the critical factor in the primary search process?

Answer 144

Time

Question 145

What is the critical factor in a secondary search?

Answer 145

Thoroughness; rather than time

Question 146

What mode is the FG operation in until a primary search is completed?

Answer 146

Rescue

Question 147

When primary search companies encounter and remove victims, Command must assign other companies to, what?

Answer 147

continue to cover the interior positions vacated by those companies.

Question 148

When might it be necessary to operate in a manner that writes off the structure?

Answer 148

in order to buy rescue time.

Question 149

What is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?

Answer 149

for the purpose of covering life safety

Question 150

Command must define Offensive/Defensive Strategy based upon the Risk Management System. In addition, Command will consider the following when Fire Control is the principle objective:

Answer 150

1. Fire extent 2. Structural conditions 3. Entry capability 4. Ventilation profile 5. Rescue profile of occupants 6. Resources profile

Question 151

Personnel must use caution when placed in the following positions:

Answer 151

* Above the fire (floors/roof) * Where fire can move in behind them * Where sector cannot control position/retreat * When involved with opposing fire streams * Combining interior and exterior attack * With limited access--one way in/out * Operating under involved roof structures * In areas containing hazardous materials * Below ground fires (basements, etc.) * In areas where a backdraft potential exists * Above/below ground rescue

Question 152

When operating in a defensive strategy, where should operating positions be?

Answer 152

as far from the involved area as | possible while still remaining effective.

Question 153

Due to the inherent hazards of the fire or incident scene, efforts must be made by Command to limit the number of personnel on the fireground to:

Answer 153

those assigned to a necessary function.

Question 154

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend how far above the roof line?

Answer 154

2-3 feet

Question 155

If possible, when laddering buildings under fire conditions, place ladders near:

Answer 155

building corners or fire | walls as these areas are generally more stable in the event of structural failure.

Question 156

What is the hot zone defined as?

Answer 156

The Hot Zone will be defined as any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or in which Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

Question 157

What is the warm zone defined as?

Answer 157

The Warm Zone will be defined as just outside of the Hot Zone where the fire fighters start their operations on the fireground. This zone is where the fire fighter is not at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

Question 158

What goes on in the hot zone?

Answer 158

* Entering a structure reported to be on fire * Operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations * Confined Space * Trench Rescues * Operating close to crane operations or close to swift water operations * Building collapse * Operating close to helicopter operations * Extrication

Question 159

What goes on in the warm zone?

Answer 159

* Forward fire apparatus working the incident (i.e.; engines, ladders) * Laying lines * HMRT and TRT developing strategies & tactics * Utility trucks * Special equipment needs * Accountability Officer * FIRE Investigations

Question 160

What is the cold zone defined as?

Answer 160

The Cold Zone will be defined as outside of the Warm Zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.

Question 161

What goes on in the cold zone?

Answer 161

* Command * Level I & Level II staging * Support and Staff personnel * Canteen * Rehab * Media * P.D. Liaison * INTERVIEWING THE RESPONSIBLE PARTY

Question 162

ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:

Answer 162

• WEAR FULL TURNOUTS • HAVE CREW INTACT • BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR ALL OTHERS STAY OUTSIDE.

Question 163

What is a major reason for FG sectorization?

Answer 163

The safety of FF personnel

Question 164

Who has the responsibility to recognize situations involving a high risk to personnel and to initiate appropriate safety measures?

Answer 164

Command

Question 165

Command shall establish a Safety Sector at incidents involving:

Answer 165

an inordinate danger to personnel.

Question 166

A 100' length of steel will expand how much when heated to 100 degrees?

Answer 166

9"

Question 167

In the typical fire involved building, what is the most likely candidate for failure?

Answer 167

The roof, however failure of the | roof may very likely trigger a collapse of one or more wall sections.

Question 168

Signs of building collapse may include:

Answer 168

* Cracks in exterior walls. * Bulges in exterior walls. * Sounds of structural movement--creaking, groaning, snapping, etc. * Smoke or water leaking through walls. * Flexible movement of any floor or roof where fire fighters walk. * Interior or exterior bearing walls or columns--leaning, twisting or flexing. * Sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines. * Time of fire involvement.

Question 169

The following construction features or conditions have been known to fail prematurely or to contribute to early structural failure when affected by fire.

Answer 169

• Parapet walls. • Large open (unsupported) areas--supermarkets, warehouses, etc. • Large signs or marquees--which may pull away from weakened walls. • Cantilevered canopies--which usually depend on the roof for support and may collapse as the roof fails. • Ornamental or secondary front or sidewalls--which may pull away and collapse. • Buildings with light weight truss, bar joist, or bow string truss, roofs. • Buildings supported by unprotected metal--beams, columns, etc.

Question 170

After how many minutes of interior operations and heavy fire conditions, should command consider a change in strategy?

Answer 170

10-15 min

Question 171

If a working fire is suspected in a high-rise building, what rules should be adhered to as far as stairs and elevators go?

Answer 171

Utilize the stairs

Question 172

If you are going to use the elevators during a high-rise fire, what precautions have to be taken?

Answer 172

A. The elevator shaft must be checked to insure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism, etc. This can be done by checking the space between the door frame and the elevator car and shining a light up the shaft. If smoke or fire are visible in the shaft, DO NOT USE THE ELEVATOR. B. Before using an elevator, the nearest enclosed stairway should be identified. Should the elevator stop at a floor with heavy SMOKE or intense heat, fire fighters can then head directly for the stairs without losing time searching for them. C. You must verify that the floor you are going to is uninvolved.

Question 173

What are the steps for using an elevator during a high-rise fire?

Answer 173

• Engage the Emergency Operations. • Take elevator to the floor two floors below the suspected fire floor. • Be prepared to close the elevator door immediately, usually by removing your finger from the door control button, if fire or smoke are visible on the floor. Elevators without the Emergency Operations shall not be used if a working fire is indicated.

Question 174

What is the perimeter that should be enforced during a HR fire?

Answer 174

200'

Question 175

What does using a TIC do for you?

Answer 175

may enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere, thus increasing fire fighter safety and survival, as well as improving the survival potential of our customers.

Question 176

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus shall be used by all personnel operating:

Answer 176

• in a contaminated atmosphere • in an atmosphere which may suddenly become contaminated • in an atmosphere which is oxygen deficient • in an atmosphere which is suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient This includes all personnel operating: • in an active fire area. • directly above an active fire area. • in a potential explosion or fire area, including gas leaks and fuel spills.

Question 177

What is the max distance a crew is to go into a structure?

Answer 177

150'

Question 178

What is the first 75% of your SCBA bottle for?

Answer 178

Working and exiting air

Question 179

What is the last 25% of your SCBA air for?

Answer 179

Emergency reserve only to be used during an emergency encountered while exiting the structure.

Question 180

Who is responsible for managing their air supply on the fire ground?

Answer 180

Each individual

Question 181

An air emergency is defined as:

Answer 181

"anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot deliver air to the user as designed; whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has consumed the air supply beyond the designed work cycle, or an individual becomes lost or trapped within an IDHL environment regardless of air supply".

Question 182

If a member's remaining air supply in the SCBA cylinder reaches the 18% to 15% range and they cannot exit within 5 minutes, what needs to be done?

Answer 182

A may-day needs to be called

Question 183

Roof sector companies must enter the roof from an established safe area, and have what in place to exit?

Answer 183

must have a secondary means to escape the roof, or to a safe refuge on an unexposed and structurally sound roof surface.

Question 184

The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

Answer 184

a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.) b. Structural conditions c. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof d. Locations of fire walls e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions f. Ventilation plan

Question 185

The objectives for Roof Sector operations include:

Answer 185

a. Determining a safe working surface. b. Complete adequate size ventilation hole(s) and achieve effective ventilation. c. Coordinate roof ventilation with interior crews. d. Coordinate roof fire control operations as directed by Command. e. Maintain roof-top monitoring of roof structure and fire conditions. f. Communicate with Interior Sector g. Provide progress reports to Command.

Question 186

What amount of the roof surface should be ventilated as a rule of thumb?

Answer 186

10%

Question 187

If more than one hole is needed to be cut on a roof, what is working against you?

Answer 187

Time and changing fire conditions

Question 188

For high-rise operations, the Resource Sector is normally established how many floors below the on-deck floor or any other safe, uncontaminated environment below the fire?

Answer 188

5

Question 189

Who is responsible for the accountability of crews assigned to Rehab Sector?

Answer 189

The rehab sector officer

Question 190

A Rehab Team concept will be used wherever possible to establish and manage the Rehab Sector. This team shall consist of:

Answer 190

1. Rehab Truck 2. Utility Truck 3. Rescue 4. ALS Company 5. Designated Sector Officer 6. C959, as needed 7. Health Center officer, as needed

Question 191

When will a rehab truck be dispatched?

Answer 191

A Rehab truck will be dispatched on all First Alarm and greater incidents, or when heat stress advisory is in effect

Question 192

Rehab sector will have only one entry point and be divided into what 4 functions?

Answer 192

``` Assessment Hydration and replenishment Medical treatment and xport Documentation Reassignment ```

Question 193

What must your vital signs be below in order to be reassigned to the FG?

Answer 193

Heart rate below 100, not irregular BP below 160/100 Respirations 12-20 Pulse Ox above 92%

Question 194

We lose most often because of a lack of _____, not a lack of _____.

Answer 194

Support, water

Question 195

What are the two reasons you vent a building?

Answer 195

* To prevent mushrooming | * To gain (and maintain) entry

Question 196

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, what should Command should consider?

Answer 196

A marginal situation

Question 197

For bowstring/arched roofs the policy is:

Answer 197

1. When fire is in the attic/truss space, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy. 2. When crews are unable to locate the fire, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy. 3. When fire involves a room and contents with no evidence of extension to the attic/truss space—implement a quick, aggressive, offensive strategy.

Question 198

What is an attack team made up of? What "positions" do these trucks fill?

Answer 198

2 engines and 1 ladder. | Elevated stream, forward pumper, key pumper.

Question 199

What is a high-rise defined as?

Answer 199

6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.

Question 200

High rise plans: Will PFD ever use elevators as a means of rescue in smoke or fire conditions?

Answer 200

NO

Question 201

What are the two kinds of stairwells you need to secure during a high-rise incident?

Answer 201

· Evacuation stairwell = stairwell dedicated to the removal of occupants from the building · Fire attack stairwell = stairwell dedicated to the fire attack operations ideally with roof access with no evacuation traffic to impede the fire attack operations

Question 202

What should the first arriving engine company do on a high-rise fire?

Answer 202

Spot apparatus as close to interior access as possible Proceed directly to the building lobby and gain access to the Fire Control Room or building alarm panel if a dedicated control room does not exist Establish Building Systems Sector with 1 member from the initial Engine Company Crew should initiate a lobby level size up

Question 203

What should the first arriving ladder company do on a high-rise fire?

Answer 203

Spot in position to utilize aerial device for rescue or defensive firefight if necessary Proceed directly to the building lobby Captain should proceed to the Fire Control Room or alarm panel and meet with first arriving Engine Company Captain Crew should begin elevator assessment for possible use

Question 204

What should the second arriving engine company do on a high-rise fire?

Answer 204

Company should establish water connection to building standpipe system Engineer should remain with the pumper Captain should proceed to the Fire Control Room or alarm panel to meet with first arriving Engine Company and Ladder Company Captains

Question 205

What should all first and second alarm companies do on a high-rise fire?

Answer 205

After a declaration of a “working fire”, once on scene, all 1st and 2nd Alarm companies should proceed directly to the building and report to Lobby Sector Purpose of this is to decrease transit time once assignment is made Lobby Sector will be operating on the Staging radio channel as per the standard Phoenix Fire Department staging procedures (See Lobby Sector, Phoenix Fire Department High-rise Firefighting Manual)

Question 206

What is building system sector responsible for during a high-rise fire?

Answer 206

· Manage distribution of building keys, fire phones and floor maps · Necessary for managing all building systems including personnel to access all remote building systems o Fire pump o Ventilation and pressurization systems o Emergency generators · Elevator operator reports to Building Systems Sector

Question 207

What are the responsibilities of lobby sector during a high-rise fire?

Answer 207

· Works directly with Staging Sector on the staging radio channel to direct fire companies in Lobby Sector to tactical assignments · All companies on first 2 alarms should proceed directly to Lobby. Limit staging from outside of building. Need resources immediately available from lobby. · Crew accountability tracked based on assignment o All crews ultimately should be tracked by Command · Create lobby staging area for crews · Manage lobby level elevator access · Assist with safe egress of evacuating occupants · Work with PD to prevent re-entry of evacuated occupants

Question 208

What is resource sector responsible for during a high-rise fire?

Answer 208

Resource · Establish equipment pool in building · Needs to be well below the “on-deck” floor o Decrease likelihood of becoming contaminated with smoke

Question 209

What are your Battalion Chief assignment priorities during a high-rise fire?

Answer 209

``` Depend on conditions and actions in the building · Fire Floor · Building Systems · Ventilation · Lobby ```

Question 210

When ascending to the fire floor during a high-rise fire, how often do you need to check your air?

Answer 210

every 5 floors, managed by the captain

Question 211

Skills like forcible entry and ventilation should be done with what in mind?

Answer 211

Loss control

Question 212

What should be used to prevent further damage to carpeting and flooring?

Answer 212

Hall runner and carry alls

Question 213

What is the preferred size hole to check for extension in the celing?

Answer 213

6"x6"

Question 214

What may have to be suspended due to fire investigation needs?

Answer 214

Loss control measures

Question 215

Salvage objectives are:

Answer 215

* Stop or reduce the source of damage | * Protect or remove contents

Question 216

The following items should be considered when addressing salvage:

Answer 216

* Type, value and location of contents * The extent and location of the fire * Recognition of existing and potential damage sources * Estimate of required resource

Question 217

Where should salvage efforts begin?

Answer 217

in areas most severely threatened by damage

Question 218

The key to successful salvage is:

Answer 218

to distinguish between excessive damage, and damage that is required to reduce potential fire damage.

Question 219

The goal of _______ is to reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing for firefighter safety in doing so.

Answer 219

Overhaul

Question 220

Preventing secondary fires and finding hidden fires is done during this process.

Answer 220

Overhaul

Question 221

As well as preventing secondary fires, what are two additional objectives of overhaul?

Answer 221

Preserving evidence | Securing the fire scene

Question 222

When are overhaul activities done on a defensive fire?

Answer 222

They are not done traditionally from the interior. Water will only be applied from the exterior.

Question 223

Securing the fire scene is a function of what?

Answer 223

Overhaul

Question 224

What organization is typically used after a fire to help find people shelter?

Answer 224

American Red Cross

Question 225

What are some benefits to PPV?

Answer 225

1. PPV rapidly removes heat and smoke from the building, thus reducing the fires ability to propagate and advance. 2. PPV causes an improving atmosphere--thus improving patient survivability profiles. 3. Rapid removal of smoke improves fire fighters ability to conduct search and rescue operations as well as effective loss control operations. 4. The improved atmosphere and visibility increases the fire fighters ability to conduct the attack/extinguishment operations. 5. The improved atmosphere reduces fire fighter heat stress. 6. PPV reduces loss caused by smoke and fire damage to the structure. 7. PPV can reduce the need and risk of roof ventilation at many fires.

Question 226

Where are fans placed when using them for PPV?

Answer 226

Positive pressure fans should be placed at the point of entry(s) from the unburned side of the fire. Fans should be positioned 12-15 feet back from the entry point. The objective is to create a pressure "cone" effect around the door. This position will also allow access for crews to enter the building. Where additional fans are required, placing two or more fans in "tandem"--one behind the other is more effective than side by side.

Question 227

What two major items are required for PPV to be effective? Whos responsibility is it to make sure these two requirements are met?

Answer 227

1. An "exit" for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the fire area. This is generally a window, door or other opening. 2. Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the unburned side of the fire. Ladder company officer

Question 228

Can PPV be used on attic fires?

Answer 228

Yes. Still must have an exit in place

Question 229

How is PPV used for exposure control?

Answer 229

By over pressurizing the exposure, forcing the fire away from it.

Question 230

First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include:

Answer 230

* Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew * Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex * Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire

Question 231

Staging key pumpers on | hydrants enhances fire ground safety in several ways:

Answer 231

• Ensures an uninterrupted water supply • Provides volume when needed (extremely long supply lines i.e.: Apartments re-cycle facilities, junk yards or limited water mains & hydrants). • Ability to pump water through the forward pumper in the event of mechanical failure

Question 232

A non-pumped 500 foot 4” supply line can flow how many GPM?

Answer 232

800

Question 233

When does the need for pumped water occur?

Answer 233

Late in the 1st alarm, or early in the 2nd.

Question 234

When provided an adequate water supply how much water can a ladder pipe flow?

Answer 234

2000 GPM with two guns

Question 235

What is the objective of the attack hose line?

Answer 235

The objective of the attack hose line choice is to provide enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of fire being produced, or an adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures.

Question 236

Where should the first hose line be placed?

Answer 236

• The first stream should be placed between the fire and persons endangered by it. • When no life is endangered, the first stream should be placed between the fire and the most severe exposure or unburned areas.

Question 237

Where should a second hose line be placed?

Answer 237

• A second hose line should be deployed to protect a secondary means of egress (always bear in mind the presence of Fire personnel operating in opposing positions). • Additional hose lines should cover other critical areas or when covered, back up in place hose lines. • Whenever possible, crews should position hose lines in a manner and direction that supports rescue activities, begins confinement, protects exposures, and controls loss.

Question 238

What kind of stream pattern should not be used in a basement fire?

Answer 238

Fog Stream. The steam production will be extensive

Question 239

What is the exception to using master streams on structures while crews are still interior?

Answer 239

When crews interior are protecting exposures

Question 240

When is a fire investigator dispatched?

Answer 240

* Fire deaths or serious fire injuries * All working first alarm or greater structure fires * Fires for which the cause cannot be determined by Command on the scene * Explosions and bombings * Requested by Phoenix Police Department to respond to known arson fires * Car, field, or dumpster fires that have an identified lead or suspect in custody * Attempted arsons

Question 241

A Fire Investigator is not needed for the following situations. The company officer is responsible for completing an accurate Field Incident Report to document the fire cause:

Answer 241

• Minor fires where cause is determined to be accidental • Scalding burns, electrical accidents, and minor accidental burn injuries • Car fires originating in the engine area during vehicle operation, abandoned autos, or vehicle arsons with no identified suspects • Minor grass, fence, or trash fires with no witnesses or suspects • Traffic accident fatalities involving fire subsequent to collision (investigated by Phoenix Police Department) • To hold the scene until another agency or service responds • When requested to make contact with homeowner for the purpose of insurance matters • Minor fires caused by juveniles playing with fire, matches, etc. These incidents are referred to the Youth Firesetter Program.

Question 242

When a fire investigator is responding to the scene, what should fire crews do?

Answer 242

Companies will delay non-essential | overhaul and secure the fire scene until the Fire Investigator arrives

Question 243

Does the Fire | Department have the legal authority to close the scene entirely, even to the property owner?

Answer 243

Yes, for the purpose of investigation.

Question 244

What NFPA standard is associated with training fires?

Answer 244

1403

Question 245

Any WORKING FIRST ALARM BRUSH assignment or greater will be deemed a ______________ and receive appropriate additional resources.

Answer 245

Wildland fire

Question 246

What resources do you get on a still brush assignment?

Answer 246

Engine | Brush

Question 247

What resources do you get on a brush assignment

Answer 247

* 2 – Engines * 2 – Brush Trucks * 1 – Water tender * 1 – Command Officer

Question 248

What resources do you get on a 1st alarm brush?

Answer 248

* 5 - Engines * 4 - Brush Trucks * 2 - Water tenders * 3 – Command Officers * 1 – Shift Commander * 1 – Command Van * 1 – Safety Officer * Rehab Unit * Canteen Unit

Question 249

What resources do you get on a greater alarm brush?

Answer 249

* 5 – Engines * 4 - Brush Trucks * 2 - Water tenders * Staff and Command Officer Response * Port-A-Potties * Refueling Truck * Mechanics * Radio Technician * Multiple Spare Radios * Weather Reports

Question 250

What does a proper brush/wildland fire protective ensemble will consist of?

Answer 250

A helmet, fire resistive brush shirt/jacket, fire resistive brush pants, eye and hearing protection, work gloves and leather ankle high boots. Nylon hiking boots are inappropriate because of the melting and sticking potential of nylon.

Question 251

Durring brush fires, Captains must maintain LCES:

Answer 251

(Lookouts, Communication, Escape Routes, and Safety | Zones)

Question 252

What factors effect wildfires?

Answer 252

WEATHER, FUEL, and TOPOGRAPHY.

Question 253

What is the objective of mop up during a brush fire?

Answer 253

The objective of | mop up is to put out all fire embers or sparks to prevent them from crossing the fire line.

Question 254

What is the minimum hose line used for car fires?

Answer 254

1.5"

Question 255

Where should the apparatus be placed on car fires?

Answer 255

uphill and upwind

Question 256

There are two kinds of aircraft crashes:

Answer 256

High impact | Low impact

Question 257

Fatalities in survivable aircraft | crashes are usually due to:

Answer 257

Smoke inhelation

Question 258

High piled outside combustible storage fires are defined as outside fire incidents including but not limited to:

Answer 258

* Pallet Storage * Metal Recycling * Tire Storage (See Tire Fires MP 202.18A) * Paper Stock * Mulching Operations * Wrecking Yards * Lumber Yards * Large unfinished construction projects (stick cities) * Any other fires incident involving outside combustible storage

Question 259

For high piled outside combustible storage fires the tactical objectives are:

Answer 259

1. Firefighter Safety 2. Exposure Protection 3. Environmental Protection (including public health) 4. Fire Control

Question 260

First alarm resources during high piled outside combustible storage fires will cover how many geographical sectors?

Answer 260

2, so consider more resources

Question 261

Critical factors of high piled outside combustible storage fires are:

Answer 261

* Incident location * Type and amount of material burning * Fire growth potential * Exposures * Water supply (hydrants, drafting, tankers) * Fire apparatus access * Hazards (hazardous materials storage tanks, power lines, underground gas, railroad tracks, rail cars, etc) * Environmental impact * Resources required for incident mitigation

Question 262

The average car tire contains how many gallons of oil?

Answer 262

2.5 gal

Question 263

What are the 3 strategies for tire fires?

Answer 263

Burn it Bury it Drown it

Question 264

What is the best practice to extinguish mulch/compost fires?

Answer 264

Isolate the burning material by removing the | surrounding uninvolved material, spread out the burning material and then apply water to only that material.

Question 265

What are the two ways mulch/compost fires start?

Answer 265

Internal combustion | External ignition

Question 266

What is a multi patient incident considered? Mass casualty? Disaster?

Answer 266

Fewer than 25 pts 25-100 more than 100

Question 267

What are the general tactical objectives of an EMS incident?

Answer 267

1. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured. 2. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety. 3. Ensure the functions of triage, extrication, treatment and transportation are established as needed and performed appropriately. 4. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims. 5. Conserve property.

Question 268

What are the two tactical benchmarks for an EMS incident?

Answer 268

1. Completion of a “Triage Report” | 2. Declaration of “All IMMEDIATES Transported”

Question 269

When possible, patients should be treated and transported in the following priority order:

Answer 269

1. IMMEDIATE 2. DELAYED patients upgraded to IMMEDIATE 3. DELAYED 4. MINOR

Question 270

When should triage tags be used?

Answer 270

Triage tags should be used any time there are three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients.

Question 271

Most multiple-patient incidents require what basic sectors?

Answer 271

patient triage, extrication, treatment, and transportation

Question 272

MINOR patients who were directed earlier in the incident by triage teams to an Assembly Area will be assessed by __________.

Answer 272

Extrication and delivered to the treatment area if further medical care is warranted

Question 273

The purpose of _________ is to determine, in close coordination with Extrication, the location, number and condition of patients and whether triage should be performed before or after patients are extricated from the site.

Answer 273

Triage sector

Question 274

The purpose of __________ is to determine, in conjunction with Triage, the location, number and condition of patients and whether triage will be performed before or after patients are extricated from the impact area.

Answer 274

Extrication sector

Question 275

Command should assign Safety Sector as soon as __________.

Answer 275

the basic sectors have been established.

Question 276

What sector will treatment typically absorb, once their job is complete?

Answer 276

Extrication

Question 277

What are some Triage Sector Responsibilities?

Answer 277

1. Determine the location, number and condition of patients. 2. Determine, in close coordination with Extrication Sector, if triage will be performed in place or at the entrance to the treatment area. 3. Determine resources. 4. Assign and supervise triage teams.

Question 278

How is triage handled at an incident with less than 10 patients? More than 10 Patients?

Answer 278

Less than 10, triage can be handled by first arriving company. More than 10, first company takes command, and assigns next company triage sector.

Question 279

What are some extrication sector responsibilities?

Answer 279

1. Determine the location, number and condition of all patients (coordinate with Triage). 2. Determine if triage will be performed in place or at the entrance to the treatment area (see “Triage Sector”). 3. Determine resources. 4. Assign and supervise extrication teams. 5. Extricate and deliver patients to the treatment area(s) or to a casualty collection point.

Question 280

During extrication activities, a | reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ___ victims.

Answer 280

5

Question 281

The objective | of the treatment sector is to ____________.

Answer 281

rapidly treat and transport all patients.

Question 282

What are some Treatment Sector Responsibilities?

Answer 282

1. Identify whether patient treatment will occur “in place” or in a designated treatment area. Coordinate with Triage and Extrication Sectors. 2. Determine resources. 3. Identify and establish a large treatment area. If incident is large, establish separate “Immediate” and “Delayed” treatment areas. 4. Assign and supervise treatment teams. 5. Ensure that all patients have been triaged, assessed and re-triaged as needed. 6. Aggressive treatment and rapid packaging of patients.

Question 283

Of all the sectors, the _________ Sector typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel.

Answer 283

Treatment

Question 284

During | major incidents, one company per _____ patients should be the initial objective

Answer 284

4

Question 285

Once a treatment area is established, what "team" should be placed at the treatment area entrance in case of more patients walking up?

Answer 285

A triage team

Question 286

The Treatment Sector must cause aggressive treatment and packaging of patients with an emphasis on:

Answer 286

Rapid transport

Question 287

The only time extended treatment should be | considered is when:

Answer 287

immediate transportation is not available

Question 288

When transportation is immediately available, __________ of the patient becomes a priority over extended on-site treatment

Answer 288

transportation

Question 289

What are some Transportation Sector Responsibilities?

Answer 289

1. Determine/request resources. 2. Determine (with Command) the rescue loading area and helicopter landing zone as needed. 3. Determine hospital availability status by contacting Dispatch on Med-9. 4. Coordinate patient allocation and destination with Treatment Sector. 5. Aggressively supervise the movement of patients from the treatment area to the ambulance loading area or helicopter landing zone. 6. Maintain an accounting of all patients and patient destinations. 7. Provide progress reports, allocations, ETA’s, to receiving hospitals.

Question 290

When all IMMEDIATE patients have been transported from the scene, who should notify Command?

Answer 290

Transportation

Question 291

When will a medical supply sector be established?

Answer 291

During all 3 alarm or greater medical incidents. Mass casualty incidents (MCI)

Question 292

When you're the first arriving unit on a haz mat call, what could you consider doing with your incoming companies?

Answer 292

Establish level 2 staging

Question 293

The action plan for a haz mat incident must provide for:

Answer 293

1. Safety of all fire personnel 2. Evacuation of endangered area, if necessary 3. Control of situation 4. Stabilization of hazardous materials, and/or 5. Disposal or removal of hazardous material

Question 294

As a general policy, will the Hazardous Materials Team respond to a situation where a private contractor is required to clean-up hazardous materials?

Answer 294

Yes

Question 295

What are the two initial zones associated with a haz mat call?

Answer 295

Limited access zone | Evacuation zone

Question 296

The __________ is the area in which personnel are potentially in immediate danger from the hazardous condition. This is established by Command and controlled by the Fire Department. Access to this area will be rigidly controlled and only personnel with proper protective equipment and an assigned activity will enter.

Answer 296

Limited access zone

Question 297

The __________ is the larger area surrounding the LAZ in which a lesser degree of risk to personnel exists. All civilians would be removed from this area. The limits of this zone will be enforced by the Police Department based on distances and directions established in consultation with Command.

Answer 297

Evacuation zone

Question 298

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SAFETY OF ALL PERSONNEL | INVOLVED IN ANY INCIDENT?

Answer 298

Command

Question 299

What are the 3 levels of haz mat evacuation?

Answer 299

Site Intermediate Large scale

Question 300

What is site evacuation?

Answer 300

Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes the workers at the site, and persons from adjacent occupancies or areas. The citizens are easily evacuated and collected upwind at the perimeter area. Evacuation holding times are typically short, generally less than an hour or two, and citizens are permitted to return to their businesses or homes.

Question 301

What is intermediate level evacuation?

Answer 301

Intermediate level involves larger numbers of citizens and/or affects a larger area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 persons. Persons may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more.

Question 302

What is large scale evacuation?

Answer 302

A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large off-site evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Rapid initiation of the evacuation process may be required. Evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.

Question 303

where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:

Answer 303

* Use 3 five-second blasts of the siren while on the "YELP" setting. * Followed by the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above) * Use maximum volume on PA system. * Proceed slowly to maximize notification. * Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that.

Question 304

The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the _________.

Answer 304

IC

Question 305

Who is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process?

Answer 305

Decon sector officer

Question 306

The Decontamination Area should be established within the:

Answer 306

Hot Zone perimeter adjacent to the Entrance/Exit (Lobby Control). Personnel, equipment, and apparatus shall not be permitted to leave the Hot Zone without approval from the Decontamination Sector Officer.

Question 307

Should the Transporting of Level I patients be delayed for complete decontamination?

Answer 307

NO

Question 308

D.O.T. hazardous materials marking systems are inadequate because some hazardous materials in quantities up to _____ lbs., do not require a placard

Answer 308

1,000

Question 309

Do you apply water to chlorine containers that are leaking?

Answer 309

No, it will make the leak worse.

Question 310

What are the 3 types of mercury?

Answer 310

Elemental mercury: Used in BP cuffs and thermometers Inorganic mercury: Scientific equipment and electrical equipment. Organic mercury: Mining and smelting

Question 311

What kind of symptoms will show from toxic exposure to mercury?

Answer 311

Symptoms of initial toxic exposure to elemental mercury include fever, chills, dyspnea, and headache within several hours. Emergency care is supportive with transport to a hospital.

Question 312

What are FD responsibilities at a mercury release at a commercial area?

Answer 312

A. Contact the on-site responsible party; B. Determine the amount of mercury released; C. Determine the mercury source and, if possible, secure the source to prevent further mercury loss. D. Determine the size of affected area; A. EVACUATE the affected area; B. ISOLATE the affected area utilizing hazard line tape; C. DENY ENTRY. D. Request, through Dispatch, that the Fire Prevention Haz Mat specialist and the on-duty Special Operations personnel respond.

Question 313

During a mercury spill FD members shall not:

Answer 313

A. SHALL NOT ENTER THE REPORTED SPILL AREA, UNLESS FOR RESCUE OR TREATMENT. Shoes, carpet, etc., are easily contaminated. Not entering the reported spill area will reduce the potential spreading of the mercury. B. SHALL NOT ATTEMPT TO CLEAN UP EVEN THE SMALLEST AMOUNT OF MERCURY RELEASED OR ANY OTHER HAZARDOUS MATERIALS RELEASE.

Question 314

When can a FD member take possession of mercury?

Answer 314

1. When a resident brings mercury to the fire station, personnel may take possession of the mercury. 2. Fire Department members shall not take possession of mercury generated from a commercial business. D. SHALL NOT TRANSPORT ANY QUANTITY OF MERCURY, OR ANY OTHER HAZARDOUS MATERIALS.

Question 315

A mercury release in a residence is considered what?

Answer 315

A household hazardous waste.

Question 316

A mercury release in common public areas such as pool-side or exit corridors at apartment complexes, condominiums, etc. would require:

Answer 316

compliance with the commercial facility section of this management procedure.

Question 317

On radiological incidents Hazard Zone tape shall be stretched to define an area where readings of ______ are detectable.

Answer 317

2MR/hr

Question 318

During a radiological incident, should the field treatment of injured patients be delayed?

Answer 318

No, Radiological contamination, itself, is not a medical emergency.

Question 319

When treating radiological contaminated patients, what kind of PPE should be used?

Answer 319

* All treatment personnel should use SCBA or dust-filtering type masks, long sleeve shirts or coats, gloves and nomex hoods. * A mask or other airway filtering means should be used on the patient to limit Inhalation/ingestion of airborne contamination.

Question 320

What is the preferred agent for flammable liquid fire fighting?

Answer 320

AFFF/Class B Foam (Aqueous Film Forming | Foam).

Question 321

``` One 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every ____ square feet of spill area. ```

Answer 321

600

Question 322

If you don't have enough Class B foam on site to begin an attack, is it better to begin the attack or wait until you have enough foam on scene?

Answer 322

Wait until you have enough on scene.

Question 323

How long will the foam seal last on flammable liquids?

Answer 323

10-15 minutes

Question 324

What are the flammable limits of natural gas?

Answer 324

approximately 4% to 15% in air.

Question 325

Is natural gas toxic?

Answer 325

No, however, it | displaces oxygen and can result in asphyxiation if in a confined space.

Question 326

If gas company personnel must excavate to shut off a leak, provide stand-by protection with ___________

Answer 326

a charged 1-1/2-inch line and two firefighters in full protective equipment and SCBA.

Question 327

What kind of atmospheres must be monitored?

Answer 327

* contaminated atmospheres * atmospheres which may suddenly become contaminated * atmospheres where there is suspected oxygen deficiency * atmospheres which are suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient

Question 328

Will FD members participate in entry operations into clandestine drug labs?

Answer 328

No

Question 329

A confined space is defined as:

Answer 329

* A space large enough for personnel to physically enter. * A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy. * An area with limited entry and egress.

Question 330

On a TRT call the First arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be assigned __________.

Answer 330

Rescue sector

Question 331

Rescue Sector responsibilities include:

Answer 331

Assuming technical rescue operations control. • Identifying hazards and critical factors. • Developing a rescue plan and back-up plan. • Communicating with and directing TRT resources assigned to Rescue Sector. • Informing Command of conditions, actions, and needs during all phases of the rescue operation.

Question 332

On a TRT call, a _________ should be established prior to the implementation of any rescue plan proposed by rescue sector. Conciderations for this position include:

Answer 332

Safety officer * One of the Regional Special Operations qualified Safety Officers. * A Special Operations qualified Battalion Chief and/or FIT. * Any experienced TRT Company Officer assigned to the incident.

Question 333

What two positions within the Command Team should be filled prior to the implementation of any rescue plan proposed by Rescue Sector?

Answer 333

Safety officer | Technical advisor

Question 334

What is done during the size up of a TRT incident?

Answer 334

A. Secure a witness or responsible party to assist in gathering information to determine exactly what happened. If no witnesses are present, Command may have to look for clues on the scene to determine what happened. B. Assess the immediate and potential hazards to the rescuers. C. Isolate immediate hazard area, secure the scene, and deny entry for all non-rescue personnel. D. Establish communications with victim(s) and determine if non-entry retrieval can be made. E. Assess on-scene capabilities and determine the need for additional resources.

Question 335

What is done during the secondary assessment on a TRT call?

Answer 335

A. Secure the entry permit and any other information about the confined space including diagrams showing entry and egress locations. B. Determine what products may be stored in the confined space and conduct a HazMat assessment. C. Determine known hazards present in the confined space; atmospheric, mechanical, electrical, etc. D. Assess the structural stability of the confined space.

Question 336

During which phase of a TRT call is it determined whether the operation will be a rescue or a recovery?

Answer 336

Pre-entry operations

Question 337

A confined space permit is required if the space has one or more of the following hazards:

Answer 337

Atmospheric hazards Configuration hazard | Engulfment Hazard Any other recognized hazard

Question 338

Pre-entry operations shall be conducted under the direction of _________.

Answer 338

Rescue sector

Question 339

Entry operations shall be conducted under the direction of _________.

Answer 339

Rescue sector

Question 340

During a confined space call, Atmospheric monitoring shall be done continuously and readings shall be communicated to Rescue Sector at least every _____ minutes.

Answer 340

5

Question 341

What is the breathing apparatus of choice during a confined space call?

Answer 341

Supplied Air Breathing Apparatus (SABA) SCBA is second best

Question 342

Rescuers __________ administer pure oxygen to a victim(s) in a confined space that has a potentially flammable atmosphere

Answer 342

shall not

Question 343

Rescuers should not allow the victim between the rescuer and the point of egress except in situations where ____________________.

Answer 343

it is necessary for one rescuer to pull the victim while | another rescuer pushes the victim.

Question 344

At a TRT call, A Command Team shall be assembled to include, at a minimum, a

Answer 344

Chief Officer and a Technical Advisor.

Question 345

Rescue teams, Lobby, Ventilation, Air monitoring, Shoring, Cut teams, and any other such functional team operating in the hazard zone shall be under the direction of ____________.

Answer 345

Rescue sector

Question 346

It shall be the policy of the Phoenix Fire Department | that ___________ shall be allowed into an unsafe trench or excavation

Answer 346

NO personnel

Question 347

For the purpose of emergency response, an excavation shall be defined by:

Answer 347

any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, of four feet or greater.

Question 348

Trench collapses generally occur due to

Answer 348

unstable soil conditions combined with improper or | inadequate shoring.

Question 349

During a trench rescue call, command shall begin an immediate sizeup of the situation while ensuring that apparatus remains at least _______ from the location of the trench failure.

Answer 349

50'

Question 350

Command shall announce that Level 1 staging should | take place at least __________ from the trench failure.

Answer 350

150 feet

Question 351

How far away is your hazard zone perimeter on a trench rescue call?

Answer 351

50'

Question 352

On a trench rescue call, all non essential civilian personnel shal be at least ________ from the collapse area

Answer 352

150'

Question 353

On a trench rescue call, all apparatus shall be staged ________ away.

Answer 353

150'

Question 354

On a trench rescue call, all non essential traffic and heavy equipment within ___________ shall be shut down.

Answer 354

300'

Question 355

When approaching a trench on a TRT call, how should you approach the trench?

Answer 355

From the ends

Question 356

During a trench rescue call, how many ladders should be placed into the trench and how far appart?

Answer 356

2 ladders | no more than 50' appart

Question 357

What is considered a non-technical rescue?

Answer 357

rescues with angles of inclination less than 40º

Question 358

What is considered a technical rescue?

Answer 358

rescues with angles of inclination from 40º to 90º

Question 359

What is the NFPA Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search & Rescue Incidents?

Answer 359

NFPA 1670

Question 360

What shall the First arriving company officer do on a mountain rescue call?

Answer 360

Assume Command and begin an immediate sizeup of the situation while ascending the mountain with medical equipment to provide treatment for any victim(s) in need of medical care.

Question 361

The __________ will have the final say on if and how the helicopter will be used in the rescue operation.

Answer 361

Pilot in command

Question 362

When using a helo for a mountain rescue, in addition to the responsibilities described for rope rescue, Rescue Sector shall also be responsible for the following:

Answer 362

A. Establish a Base LZ in an appropriate location. • Assign this function to a TRT response unit. B. Establish a Mountain LZ in designated mountain locations. • Assign this function to TRT personnel on the mountain. Call for additional resources if necessary.

Question 363

Rescue teams, Base LZ, Mountain LZ, and any other such | functional team operating on the mountain shall be under the direction of:

Answer 363

Rescue sector

Question 364

During a mountain rescue, rescuers shall be ______ and ______ when operating near an edge.

Answer 364

On rope | Tied in

Question 365

What is the minimum PPE for all personnel operating at or near a water rescue?

Answer 365

PFD, approved water rescue helmet and footwear.

Question 366

Hazards present at a water rescue call include, but are not limited to:

Answer 366

* The volume of water. * The velocity of the water. * Debris in the water. * Hydraulics. * Depth of the water – rising / falling.

Question 367

Why should personnel be assigned upstream at a water rescue incident?

Answer 367

To advise of any debris coming their way

Question 368

Why should personnel be assigned downstream at a water rescue incident?

Answer 368

To use throw bags to capture rescue personnel or victoms

Question 369

What is the order of rescue operations that should be used in a water rescue?

Answer 369

``` Talk Reach Throw Row Go Helo ```

Question 370

Rescue teams, Upstream, Downstream, and any other | such functional team operating near the water shall be under the direction of ___________.

Answer 370

Rescue sector

Question 371

On a structural collapse rescue operation it is important to spot apparatus outside of any __________.

Answer 371

potential secondary collapse zone.

Question 372

Hazards associated | with structural collapse include:

Answer 372

* Secondary collapse. * Explosion and fire. * Broken gas and water lines. * Energized electrical lines. * Falling debris.

Question 373

During a structural collapse call, you shall remove all non essential civilian personnel at least ______ away from the _________.

Answer 373

150' | hazard zone parimeter

Question 374

A _____________ team should be established on structural collapse calls to assess the building and should consist of Technical Rescue Technician trained and knowledgeable in structural collapse shoring techniques, a structural engineer, and a Hazardous Materials Technician.

Answer 374

Building triage team

Question 375

Who is in charge of looking for victims during a structural collapse?

Answer 375

A search team, directed by rescue sector

Question 376

During a structural collapse call _________ should be assigned to remove surface victims and the “walking wounded” from the surface of the collapse area.

Answer 376

First responders

Question 377

Once surface victims and the “walking wounded” have been removed from the surface of the collapse area, who takes over the rescue operation?

Answer 377

TRT units under rescue sector

Question 378

How large is the hazard zone around a tree rescue operation?

Answer 378

50'

Question 379

How far are you to keep all non-essential civilian personnel from the tree on a tree rescue call?

Answer 379

150'

Question 380

What are the 3 best options for a tree rescue?

Answer 380

1. Self rescue 2. Aerial platform ladder 3. Ground ladders 4. Climb the tree

Question 381

When using ground ladders in a tree rescue operation what is to be done with the ladders?

Answer 381

The first ladder should go under the victim; the second ladder should go along side and slightly above the victim. Both ladders should be secured to the tree. A piece of webbing or small piece of rope works well for securing the ladder to the tree.

Question 382

What personnel are to climb the tree during a tree rescue operation?

Answer 382

Tree climbing with approved equipment shall only be performed by trained TRT members. Rescue Sector shall assign two rescuers the task of climbing the tree and affecting the rescue. Consider that it may be necessary to remove fronds or branches from the tree to reach the victim and that tree climbing is a high-risk operation.

Question 383

PFDRDC has one (1) way Automatic Aid onto Luke Air Force Base (LAFB). CAD has been programmed to select LAFB units for any calls that fall within a _________ radius of the base.

Answer 383

5 mile

Question 384

When formulating a recommendation for a Greater Alarm, ________________ is given to the units already assigned to the incident

Answer 384

No consideration

Question 385

Can you go directly from a still assignment to a second alarm fire?

Answer 385

No, you have to first get the balance of a working 1st alarm fire, then strike out a second alarm.

Question 386

What are the codes for greater alarms?

Answer 386

``` BRUSH BRUSH ASSIGNMENT HAZMAT HAZARDOUS MATERIALS ASSIGNMENT HIRISE HIRISE ASSIGNMENT MED MEDICAL ASSIGNMENT REHAB REHAB ASSIGNMENT RESCUE RESCUE ASSIGNMENT STRUCT STRUCTURAL ASSIGNMENT STRMED STRUCTURAL/MED ```

Question 387

How many greater alarms does our system go to?

Answer 387

9

Question 388

Deployment will sound the ALL CALL tone and make a general announcement over Dispatch Channel 1 of the following incidents:

Answer 388

* Working First Alarm fires * Greater Alarms * At the discretion of the on-duty Deployment BC and/or Supervisor

Question 389

The need for move-up companies will be evaluated whenever:

Answer 389

* A working fire is declared. * Three (3) or more units are committed to an incident in an outlying area. * Greater Alarms are dispatched. * Simultaneous working incidents occur in one area of the City. * Coverage in an area is compromised. * Two (2) or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes.

Question 390

How long will dispatch wait for you to respond before sending a cover unit?

Answer 390

2 min

Question 391

After being on an AOI call for how long will dispatch put you on the incident?

Answer 391

10 min

Question 392

What is included in a follow up report?

Answer 392

1. Any immediate safety concerns 2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location) 3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return) 4. IRIC - in place and identify

Question 393

What does the term working fire mean?

Answer 393

The term Working Fire indicates a situation that will require the commitment of all responding companies.

Question 394

When should your first progress report be given?

Answer 394

The first progress report should be given after initial action has been implemented and should include the correct address and an improved description of the building and fire conditions if the arrival report was incomplete

Question 395

When notified of a Working 3-1, Deployment will:

Answer 395

1. Dispatch a Working Fire assignment (WF) 2. Address the need for a Fire Investigator. 3. Dispatch PD for traffic and crowd control. 4. Dispatch appropriate gas and electric companies. 5. Change the status to a Working Fire, which starts elapsed time notifications. 6. Make move-ups to affected area 7. Document progress reports, sectors, assignments, emergency traffic, and elapsed time notifications and append additional information provided from Deployment members in the Incident History.

Question 396

When notified of a Working First Alarm, Deployment will:

Answer 396

1. Dispatch a Working Fire assignment (WF1A) 2. Isolate tactical channel 3. Dispatch a Fire Investigator 4. Dispatch PD for traffic and crowd control 5. Dispatch gas and electric companies 6. Make move-ups to affected area 7. Document progress reports, Sectors/Divisions/Groups, assignments, emergency traffic, and elapsed time notifications and append additional information provided from Deployment members in the Incident History. 8. Be prepared to assign a TRO to monitor/work Staging and Safety Sectors/Divisions channels. 9. Be prepared to dispatch further assistance. 10. Be prepared to dispatch any special agencies or equipment when the need is indicated. 11. Make notifications to pertinent personnel.

Question 397

What needs to happen at any fire at a school?

Answer 397

Any fire at a school facility requires the State Fire Marshall to be contacted. The on-duty State Fire Marshall will use his/her discretion as to response.

Question 398

When 2nd alarm companies are responding, where does their radio traffic go to?

Answer 398

Staging sector, on the staging radio channel

Question 399

The following are the different incident status changes that need to be indicated:

Answer 399

Working Fire (WF), Working Haz Mat (WHZ), Working Technical Rescue (WTR), Code (CO), or Major Medical (MM). When one (1) of these incidents are identified by command, the TRO will enter a specific command.

Question 400

When the TRO enters the WF code or WHZ code, what now gets attached to the incident?

Answer 400

ETN every 5 minutes until the incident is placed under control

Question 401

Who is the only person that can release companies assigned to an incident?

Answer 401

Command

Question 402

The term _____________ will be utilized by any unit encountering an immediately perilous situation and will receive the highest communications priority from Deployment, Command and all operating units.

Answer 402

‘Emergency Traffic’

Question 403

What is the code for 'Need PD assistance immediately' and 'rape'?

Answer 403

906 | 261

Question 404

How will the activation of a Type 1 Emergency Deployment model through the alarm room change dispatches?

Answer 404

1. All 3-1 response assignments will be modified to 2-1-1 (ENG/LAD/BC) response assignments. 2. All First Alarm response assignments will be modified to 3-1-1 (ENG/LAD/BC) response assignments. 3. All TRT2 response assignments will be modified to TRT1 response assignments. 4. All HAZ2 response assignment will be modified to HAZ1 response assignments.

Question 405

What does activation of a type 2 emergency deployment model in the alarm room do?

Answer 405

Activation of a Type 2 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief to call off-duty personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

Question 406

What does activation of a type 3 emergency deployment model in the alarm room do?

Answer 406

Activation of a Type 3 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief or designee to call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

Question 407

The objective of _____________ is to provide a standard system of initial placement for responding apparatus, personnel, and equipment prior to assignment at tactical incidents.

Answer 407

Staging procedures

Question 408

Effective utilization of staging procedures will:

Answer 408

• Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene. • Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies. • Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to facilitate more effective assignment by Command. • Reduces radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident. • Allow Command to formulate and implement a plan without undue confusion and pressure. • Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure.

Question 409

Who shall announce their | approach to the scene so that Command may commit them to an assignment?

Answer 409

The first arriving ladder co

Question 410

How shall units stage that are responding to a fire or HM scene?

Answer 410

All other units will stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene until assigned by Command.

Question 411

Do utility trucks stage the same as everyone else?

Answer 411

All utility trucks will assume Level I staging. If Level II staging has been implemented, utility trucks will go to the Level II staging location.

Question 412

Does the first rescue on scene of a fire go directly to the scene? EMS scene?

Answer 412

No they go to level one staging on a fire. | On an EMS scene the first one goes directly to the scene.

Question 413

How far away should companies stage from an incident?

Answer 413

In there direction of travel, one block

Question 414

If staged companies observe critical tactical needs, what should they do?

Answer 414

advise Command of such critical conditions and their actions.

Question 415

When Command desires to maintain a reserve of resources on-scene, and when the need to centralize resources is required, what should command implement?

Answer 415

Level 2 staging

Question 416

Who becomes the staging sector officer?

Answer 416

The first arriving CO or chief. Unless that CO is a ladder company, they will transfer it to an engine or BC

Question 417

The staging officer will also be responsible for the following functions:

Answer 417

1. Locate an area of adequate size for all apparatus, including apparatus that may respond with additional alarms. 2. Transmit the staging area location to Command and Dispatch, indicating access and routing as needed. 3. Coordinate with the Police Department to block streets, intersections, and other access required for the staging area. 4. Ensure that all apparatus is parked in an appropriate manner for quick exit. 5. Maintain a log of companies available in the staging area and inventory all specialized equipment that might be required at the scene. 6. Maintain crews in a ready state with their apparatus. 7. Provide progress reports to Command indicating number and type of units available. 8. Assume a position that is visible and accessible to incoming and staged companies. This will be accomplished by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officers apparatus and by wearing a sector vest. 9. Assign staged companies to incident duty per Command’s direction.

Question 418

When assigned from staging, what does the CO need to do on their MCT?

Answer 418

Press On Scene

Question 419

What kind of dialogue needs to happen over the radio when companies are assigned from staging to the incident?

Answer 419

When directed by Command, the Staging Officer will verbally assign companies to report to specific sectors, telling them where and to whom to report. Staging will then advise Command of the specific unit assigned. Command will advise each sector officer the companies being assigned to the sector. The receiving Sector Officer may then communicate directly with the company by radio.

Question 420

During major incidents where a "Logistics" Section is implemented, the Staging Sector will be working under the direction of the _____________.

Answer 420

Logistics Officer

Question 421

What kind of placement to you want to avoid on the FG?

Answer 421

Belly to butt

Question 422

The officer must regard apparatus on the fireground in two categories:

Answer 422

Apparatus that is working | Apparatus that is parked

Question 423

How far away should apparatus be placed from involved buildings, even with nothing showing?

Answer 423

30'

Question 424

How should ladder trucks be spotted on the FG?

Answer 424

When the aerial apparatus is not needed for upper level access or Rescue, spot apparatus in a position that would provide an effective position for elevated stream operation if the fire goes to a defensive mode

Question 425

IT SHALL BE THE POLICY OF THE REGIONAL FIRE DEPARTMENT TO POSITION APPARATUS AT THE SCENE OF EMERGENCIES IN A MANNER THAT:

Answer 425

BEST PROTECTS THE WORK AREA AND PERSONNEL FROM VEHICLE TRAFFIC AND OTHER HAZARDS.

Question 426

How should apparatus be parked on MVA scenes?

Answer 426

Where possible, angle apparatus at 45 degrees away from curbside. This will direct motorist around the scene

Question 427

For first arriving engine companies where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine so that the pump panel is:

Answer 427

"down stream," on the opposite side of on-coming traffic

Question 428

When your apparatus is parked on a emergency scene at night, what needs to be done with your headlights?

Answer 428

For NIGHTTIME operations, turn OFF fire apparatus headlights. This will help reduce the blinding effect to approaching vehicle traffic.

Question 429

What must be established for rescues responding to incidents on the freeway?

Answer 429

A safe loading area

Question 430

What is the max speed we can go when responding code 3?

Answer 430

10 MPH. Only with light traffic, good roads, good visibility and dry pavement.

Question 431

When going into oncoming traffic, how fast can we drive?

Answer 431

Max 20 MPH

Question 432

How fast can we drive code 3 through intersections?

Answer 432

Only as fast as the posted speed limit.

Question 433

Where you don't have a backer available, what should be done?

Answer 433

the driver shall dismount and walk completely around apparatus to determine if obstructions are present before backing.

Question 434

Are you allowed to pass slower responding emergency vehicles?

Answer 434

fire vehicles should avoid passing other emergency vehicles. If passing is necessary, permission must be obtained through radio communications, using the communications order model.

Question 435

Where is the primary spotter located when backing a truck?

Answer 435

Off the left rear corner

Question 436

Who is responsible for compliance with safe backing procedures?

Answer 436

The CO

Question 437

When PD uses the term code 4, what do you need to do before committing your crew?

Answer 437

Verify the | parameters of PD’s “code 4” prior to commitment of personnel.

Question 438

“Actions in a calculated manner” on violent incidents, require the following:

Answer 438

1. Incident Command established (where applicable, refer to M.P. 201.01) 2. Scene secured or safe zones in place and confirmed by law enforcement 3. Accountability system established (where applicable, refer to M.P. 201.03) 4. Safety procedures in place 5. Continuous risk assessment by all members

Question 439

Where should units stage on violent incidents?

Answer 439

The first-in company/unit should either stage in quarters or out of sight until the scene is confirmed safe

Question 440

If you are within 1 mile of a violent incident requiring staging, what can you do?

Answer 440

Stage in quarters, but on your truck ready to go

Question 441

When arriving on scene of a violent incident, who do you need to notify that you're on scene?

Answer 441

Announce arrival on both FD and PD tactical channels

Question 442

Fire personnel _________ become directly involved in law enforcement assault operations. Fire personnel _________ enter an area that is not secure and/or safe to enter.

Answer 442

will not

Question 443

What are the 3 aircraft emergencies?

Answer 443

Alert 1: Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties Alert 2: Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties Alert 3: Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability

Question 444

What do the 3 responses to the airport consist of?

Answer 444

Alert 1: Response consists of one (1) Engine Company. Alert 2: Response consists of two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.), one (1) ladder company, and one (1) brush truck and one (1) Battalion Chief. Alert 3: Response consists of two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.), one (1) ladder company, one (1) brush truck, one (1) utility truck, one (1) foam capability (1) Battalion Chief, and a Glendale shift commander. Should the incident involve a larger aircraft, Command should request additional resources.

Question 445

Where do companies stage at for alert 1 & 2 emergencies at the airport?

Answer 445

Alert 1 and Alert 2 incidents all companies shall respond to the Glendale Control Tower at gate #9 and stage until the aircraft has landed. Gate #9 has preemption / opticom light and a Knox box lock is located on the fence. The Glendale Control Tower has a Fire Department radio and can communicate with fire department personnel on all hazard channels

Question 446

If you have to travel on the runway at the airport, what has to be done first?

Answer 446

If traveling on the runway is necessary, do so only after confirming with the Glendale Control Tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft.

Question 447

Where do companies respond to for Alert 3 incidents at the airport?

Answer 447

For Alert 3 incidents, all companies shall respond directly to the crash site. If traveling on the runway is necessary, do so only after confirming with the Glendale Control Tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft.

Question 448

If you are canceled en-rout to an accident on the freeway, should you continue to the scene anyways?

Answer 448

If fire units are canceled en-route, they should not proceed into the scene unless re-dispatched. This creates unnecessary congestion and other traffic problems at the scene.

Question 449

Are fire units to travel code 3 on freeways?

Answer 449

Units responding to calls on the Freeway will respond Code 2 while on the Freeway mainline. However, alternating headlights and rear flashers may be used. Units should attempt to reach the scene in the direction of the reported incident unless otherwise instructed by D.P.S.

Question 450

What is the minimum response to a mutual aid request?

Answer 450

Minimum dispatch to a mutual aid request will be a 3-1 assignment, plus a rescue. The assignment will include a battalion chief and one utility company, shift commander, safety officer, and a rehab company.

Question 451

On mutual aid calls, who is to refill our SCBAs and transport sick or injured FFs?

Answer 451

Only automatic aid partners

Question 452

What do you always consider downed power lines?

Answer 452

Energized

Question 453

Power line tends to have _________ and may curl back or roll on itself when down.

Answer 453

“Reel Memory”

Question 454

Do we operate hose streams onto power lines?

Answer 454

Use caution when spraying water on or around energized electrical equipment. Hose streams conduct current!

Question 455

Durring a transformer fire on a pole, do we spray water on the pole?

Answer 455

No, Use a fog spray at the base of the pole. Your primary responsibility is to protect the surrounding area. Short bursts of water are preferred methods to avoid being grounded. Never spray water onto electrical equipment until a utility rep has confirmed that the equipment is de-energized or “dead.”

Question 456

What is electrical equipment classified as?

Answer 456

* Energized * De-energized (cannot be 100% guaranteed) * Dead (confirmed by utility representatives after grounding the lines(s).

Question 457

Can you tell l the voltage of a power line by the size of the conductor?

Answer 457

No

Question 458

What are the hazards involved with PBCs in transformers?

Answer 458

PCB hazards: Smoke potentially fatal; avoid and contain pools of oil around transformers.

Question 459

In the event of multiple lines/poles down over a large area, what should be done?

Answer 459

Request additional resources

Question 460

What do we do when power lines are down on a vehicle?

Answer 460

• Request utility company to respond. • Do not touch vehicle • Have occupants remain inside the vehicle • Place apparatus a safe distance away from down lines. • If occupants must leave the vehicle (fire or other threat to life) instruct them to open the door, not step-out! They should jump free of the vehicle without touching vehicle and ground at the same time; they should walk away from the vehicle with very small steps.

Question 461

What do we do on SUB-STATION, TRANSFORMER, ELECTRICAL VAULT AND MANHOLE FIRES?

Answer 461

• Request utility company to respond. • Clear the area. • Be aware of explosion potential. • Place apparatus in a safe location away from overhead power lines. • Protect exposures. • Do not make entry until the utility representative has verified that the above electrical equipment has been de-energized. The utility representative may have to make entry to uninvolved sections to safely de-energize the equipment.

Question 462

Do FFs gain experience at different rates?

Answer 462

Yes. Experience levels depend upon time on the job, number, type and intensity of past incidents, and the quality of supervision and training that the fire fighter has gained.

Question 463

A "less experienced" fire fighter is defined as:

Answer 463

Probationary fire fighter. B. Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties.

Question 464

What are the methods for determining a "newer" FFs experience?

Answer 464

Interview Evaluate Train Follow-up

Question 465

Those fire fighters determined to be inexperienced will be directly supervised by:

Answer 465

the company officer or | a fire fighter with greater than two years total fire fighting experience.

Question 466

Can an experienced FF operate without direct supervision from the CO?

Answer 466

``` The experienced fire fighter, however, may be permitted, under appropriate and safe circumstances, to function at an incident without direct supervision of a company officer. ```

Question 467

Where should heavy objects around the station be stored?

Answer 467

Around waist level, to prevent unnecessary lifting

Question 468

What shall be worn when using power saws?

Answer 468

Full protective clothing shall be worn by those members operating, and by those members in close proximity to the operation of power saws. The face shield shall be in position to provide eye protection.

Question 469

How should rescue saws be carried?

Answer 469

Carry the rescue saw with the engine stopped, the blade frontward and muffler away from your body.

Question 470

How should the chainsaw be carried?

Answer 470

Always carry the chain saw with the engine stopped, the guide bar and saw chain to the rear and the muffler away from your body.

Question 471

Power saw operations are safest when cutting on horizontal surfaces near ________ or on vertical surfaces near ______ level.

Answer 471

ground level | waist

Question 472

Operating a power saw above_______ height is extremely hazardous and should not be attempted as a normal course of action.

Answer 472

chest

Question 473

Where is the Tank Farm located?

Answer 473

The Tank Farm, located southwest of the intersection of 51st Avenue and Van Buren Street and Swissport Fueling at 4200 E. Airlane

Question 474

Where is the central manifold located at the Tank Farm?

Answer 474

The central manifold is located on 53rd Avenue in the Kinder Morgan Pipelines yard in the middle of the Tank Farm area.

Question 475

What are the 3 different kind of storage tanks at the tank farm?

Answer 475

Floating Roof Cone Roof Cone / Floating Roof

Question 476

What is the greatest concern with a tank at the Tank Farm?

Answer 476

An overflow spill

Question 477

At the Tank Farm, what should be controlled first, the tank surface fire or spill fire?

Answer 477

Spill fire

Question 478

A floating roof that is more than 5 feet below the top of the tank shell constitutes a:

Answer 478

confined space

Question 479

The first unit arriving at the scene of an incident at the Tank Farm shall provide the following information in the initial report:

Answer 479

* Specific location - name of shipper involved * Type of incident - leak, spill, fire or no fire * Extent of spill, leak or fire

Question 480

Initial actions at the Tank Farm should be directed toward the tactical priorities listed below:.

Answer 480

* Action should proceed cautiously * High level of safety * Avoid committing personnel to dangerous situations

Question 481

Fire Department will accept household hazardous waste | from private citizens when:

Answer 481

A private citizen brings unsolicited hazardous waste to the fire station; and the safety hazard is of such concern that the private citizen should not be turned away Its not from a business Its not recyclable

Question 482

What do we do when a citizen brings a hazardous waste to the station?

Answer 482

The material is not to be brought into the station or the bay, and it will be treated like a HazMat incident.

Question 483

What kind of household hazardous waste do we not accept?

Answer 483

We do not want to accept | hazardous wastes which come from commercial/business operations, or materials which do not pose a safety hazard.

Question 484

Who gets dispatched on an Africanized HB attack?

Answer 484

One engine, one ladder and a BC

Question 485

What is considered a safe distance from a swarm of bees?

Answer 485

150'

Question 486

What should be done to protect people being attacked by bees?

Answer 486

A quick attack 1-1/2" hose line shall be pulled and hooked to the apparatus AFFF foam system. 1-1/2 " line shall be pumped at 200 psi at 95 gpm. The hose line shall be pulled by the firefighter at a quick pace towards the affected patient, with a full fog pattern on the nozzle -- sweeping the air surrounding the firefighters and patient.

Question 487

What dates are Heat Stress Management directives implemented?

Answer 487

June 1st to September 30th of each year or at the discretion of the on-duty Shift Commander.

Question 488

During Heat Stress Management, Dispatch and Deployment shall provide an additional __________ and __________ to any working fire incidents.

Answer 488

ALS Engine Company | Rehab Unit

Question 489

Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing what during Heat Stress Management?

Answer 489

a. Cardiovascular activity (i.e., tennis, racquetball, running, etc.) shall be limited to a maximum of 30 minutes b. A minimum of 64 ounces (2 quarts) of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift c. Work/rest cycles, request a relief company and assignment to rehab after crew has consumed two bottles of air d. Company activity and request additional resources as necessary

Question 490

During emergency operations the Incident Commander is responsible for the following during Heat Stress Management:

Answer 490

a. Consider the establishment of a Rehab Sector/Division/Group on all working fires b. Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain in rehab for a minimum of 20 minutes) c. Utilize the practice of first company in, first company out routine d. Request additional resources as necessary

Question 491

``` What are the following Light Rail terms: LRV: OCS: PTSS: ETS: OCC: Pantograph: ```

Answer 491

light rail vehicle overhead contact system traction powered substation emergency trip switch (located at TPSS) operations control center big mechanical arm that connects the LRV to the overhead wires

Question 492

What is the aproxomate stoping distance for the Light Rail at 35 MPH?

Answer 492

190 Ft

Question 493

What is the normal height of the OCS on the Light Rail system?

Answer 493

18'

Question 494

What must be done when responding to an accident with the Light Rail?

Answer 494

* LVR operator will coordinate next stop location with OCC and alarm room * The alarm room will provide the address and location during dispatch * Have operator show you the key is out. This engages the brake and disables the throttle ensuring the LRV won’t move * As long as LRV is functioning normally and on the track there is no need to shut down power. This will allow the AC and light to continue functioning * Traffic safety as always

Question 495

If the LRV is derailed and the pantograph is still in contact with the OCS, or if the OCS has been compromised and is damaged and lines are down then crews ___________ approach the LRV or track.

Answer 495

should not

Question 496

When responding to a fire at a Light Rail TPPS, you should:

Answer 496

¾ Treat it like electrical substation/vault. ¾ Do Not Enter or put water on it until absolutely confirmed de-energized by APS or SRP. ¾ Beware of OCS. ¾ Consider pushing the ETS if it is safe to do so ¾ Call for hazmat if smoke is coming from within TPSS ¾ Be aware of the risk of hazardous smoke inhalation.

Question 497

A WMD / terrorist incident is concidered a _________.

Answer 497

Crime scene

Question 498

If fire is present and radiological agent suspected, evacuate to _______ feet. Check downwind areas for contamination

Answer 498

2000

Question 499

IN THE CASE OF LETTER OR PACKAGE CONTAINING UNKNOWN SUBSTANCE:

Answer 499

¾ Quarantine persons in the immediate area of exposure (office or room) and place them in a safe refuge area. ¾ Isolate the area that the substance or package is located; hold for Hazmat Team to double bag and secure. ¾ Control Heating and Air Conditioning (HVAC) Systems by shutting down to prevent spread of contamination. DO NOT USE SPECIFIC NAME OF SUSPECTED AGENT OVER THE RADIO; USE ONLY A BIOLOGICAL AGENT@ OR A UNKNOWN AGENT@.

Question 500

During a HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION event, the hot zone entry point should be a minimum of ________ Feet away from the source

Answer 500

300

Question 501

Emergency decon at HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION scenes serve these 3 functions:

Answer 501

¾ Marks victims for easy identification ¾ Removes product/particles from victims ¾ Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety

Question 502

Radioactive particles are easily removed from skin and clothing by:

Answer 502

Going through decon with water

Question 503

Treatment areas in HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION incidents will occur where?

Answer 503

Cold zones

Question 504

What are the 5 stations of decon when dealing with WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION CHEMICAL, BIOLOGICAL, RADIOLOGICAL PERSONNEL AND EQUIPMENT DECONTAMINATION?

Answer 504

Station #1 - Personal Belongings Drop/Victim Accountability Station # 2 - Clothing Removal Station # 3 - Shower Station # 4 - Monitoring Station # 5- Clothing issue/Redress

Question 505

Animals are treated as what, when evaluation the risk/gain profile?

Answer 505

Property

Question 506

When there is an animal that is threatening human safety, who do we contact?

Answer 506

Animal control

Question 507

Who are the two agencies we can call to deal with animals?

Answer 507

Humane Society AZ Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (both numbers are in CAD under "MDTINFO ANIMALS")

Question 508

Can we transport injured animals to the vet hospital?

Answer 508

Yes. Locations in the MCT

Question 509

What is the NFPA standard for training fires?

Answer 509

1403

Question 510

What is the ratio of RIC teams to Fire attack teams on training fires?

Answer 510

1:1

Question 511

What is the span of control for interior operations on training fires?

Answer 511

1 CO / 2 recruits

Question 512

How many water sources do you need on a training fire?

Answer 512

two. minimum 95gpm

Question 513

What is the staging distance for FD companies on police EOD or SWAT ops?

Answer 513

1/4 mile