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Flashcards in Volume 2 Deck (70):
1

Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)? (1-2)

Deliberate Planning

2

Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war? (1-3)

Volume 1

3

Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process? (1-4)

Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

4

Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission? (1-5)
A. Standard unit type code
B. Joint force/capability
C. In-lieu-of (ILO)
D. Ad hoc

B. Joint Force/capability

5

Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)? (1-7)
A. Training
B. Personnel
C. Facility condition
D. Equipment Condition

C. Facility condition

6

Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)? (1-8)
A. Training
B. Personnel
C. Home Station Mission
D. Equipment Condition

C. Home Station Mission

7

The governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI ___. (1-8)

10-244

8

Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements? (1-9)

AFI 10-201

9

Who develops logistics details (LOGDET) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)? (1-10)

Pilot Units

10

Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module? (1-12)
A. Force Protection
B. Airfield operations
C. Force accountability
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)

D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)

11

The key capabilities for establishing control in the C2 module are ___. (1-12)

secure communications and intelligence

12

Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and C2 force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission? (1-12)

Establish the airbase

13

Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete? (1-13)

2 days, 14 days

14

Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established? (1-13)

Robust the airbase

15

The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at ___. (1-14)

Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst

16

What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander? (1-15)

O-6

17

Which force module support by TDC is established within 48 hours and supports 50-150 users in a cafe environment? (1-16)

Command and Control

18

In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)? (1-16)

16 km

19

Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center? (1-21)
A. Strategy
B. Combat plans
C. Combat support
D. Combat operations

C. Combat support

20

Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)? (1-24)
A. MQ-9 Reaper
B. RQ-11B Raven
C. MQ-1B Predator
D. RQ-4B Global Hawk

B. RQ-11B Raven

21

Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units? (1-26)
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems
D> 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems

A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety

22

Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis? (1-27)

85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)

23

All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in ___. (1-29)

1998

24

What Methods and Procedures Technicial Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives? (2-1)

MPTO 00-33A-1001

25

The five phases of Project Management are initiate, ___. (2-2)

Plan, Execute, Close and Control

26

What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase? (2-3)

Answers, guidance and education

27

What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called? (2-3)

Requirements

28

Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan? (2-6)
A. Cost management plan
B. Allied support plan
C. Technical plan
D. Material plan

A. Cost management plan

29

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as ___. (2-13)

a deliverable

30

Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications? (2-13)
A. Status Request
B. Defect Repairs
C. Preventive Action
D. Corrective Action

B. Defect Repairs

31

What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system? (2-14)

AFTO Form 747

32

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed ___. (2-15)

Major

33

What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase? (2-17)

Follow-up

34

Changes are requested during a project using an ___. (2-17)

AF Form 1146

35

Who implements a technical solution for a base? (2-19)

Implementing organization

36

What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties? (2-20)

Program action officer

37

The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy, ___. (2-21)

service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

38

In what ITIL stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle? (2-21)

Service Strategy

39

In what ITIL stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implement in the live environment? (2-23)

Service Transition

40

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace systems Integrator Tier ___. (3-4)

2

41

Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)? (3-5)

AFI 33-150

42

Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order? (3-7)

Work orders

43

Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources? (3-8)
A. Organic
B. Contract
C. Inorganic
D. Self-Help

D. Self-Help

44

Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program? (3-12)

TO 00-33D-3003

45

As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions? (3-15)
A. Base Communications Systems Officer
B. Affected Work Center
C. Base Civil Engineer
D. Project Managers

C. Base Civil Engineer

46

Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special? (3-15)
A. Requires services from outside agencies
B. Mobility (deployment) equipment
C. Requires additional manpower
D. Requires additional funding

D. Requires additional funding

47

In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements? (3-20)

Concept Plan

48

When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans? (3-21)

Supporting Plan

49

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the ___. (3-23)

Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

50

What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime? (3-24)

Logistics

51

Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? (3-26)

Facilities Utilization Board

52

The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for ___. (3-28)

All temporary and permanent modifications

53

Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test material (hardware, firmware, and software) capabilities? (3-28)

T-2 temporary modification

54

Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process? (3-29)
A. request for action and organization validation
B. using command and lead command validation
C. work center manager certification and approval
D. program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution

C. work center manager certification and approval

55

Support agreements are documented on ___. (3-30)

DD Form 1144

56

As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? (3-32)

3 years (Triennial Review)

57

Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act? (4-2)
A. Unusual or compelling urgency
B. Unit commander's interest
C. National security interests
D. Sole Source

B. Unit commander's interest

58

Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? (4-4)

35 calendar days

59

Which type of contract acquires supplies or services base on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates? (4-6)

Time and Material

60

Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy? (4-6)

Time and Material

61

Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services? (4-7)

Sole Source

62

Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply? (4-9)
A. Sole Source
B. Time and Material
C. Indefinite Delivery
D. Blanket Purchase Agreement

D. Blanket Purchase Agreement

63

Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program? (4-10)

Contracting Office

64

Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)? (4-11)

Functional Director/Commander

65

Who is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders? (4-11)

Quality Assurance Program Coordinator

66

Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support? (4-12)

Unit plans, planning, and agreements section

67

What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required? (4-13)

DD Form 1391

68

Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects? (4-13)

All military construction

69

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O and M) funds is ___. (4-14)

$1.5 Million

70

Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards? (4-14)

Base Civil Engineering