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Engineer's Process 2020 > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is in transit?

A

the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order

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2
Q

What is on deck?

A

a tactical function within a sector for layering resources in forward positions

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3
Q

What info should be transferred when an on-deck crew is relieving another crew?

A

Interior conditions
Routing instructions to the work area
Additional tools/resources required
Sector objectives

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4
Q

What is recycling?

A

a timely and efficient means of air replacement & rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment

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5
Q

What is a standard work cycle for a company?

A

2 to 3 air cylinders if conditions permit

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6
Q

Companies recycling should do what?

A 
remain in their assigned sector
follow established exposure reduction and decon guidelines
refill their air
rehydrate
report back to work
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7
Q

When should a firefighter call a mayday/ what is the definition of a mayday?

A

any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event cannot be resolved by that FF in 30 seconds

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8
Q

What NFPA standard defines mayday readiness?

A

NFPA 1500

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9
Q

What is mayday readiness?

A

the ability to don and doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighter gloves

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10
Q

How many components does mayday readiness have and what are they?

A

2 components, Prevention & Response

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11
Q

What does BOA stand for in a mayday situation?

A

Breathe
Organize
Act

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12
Q

What does GRAB LIVES stand for?

A 
Gauge
Radio
Activate ]
Breathing 
Low
Illuminate
Volume
Exit
Shield
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13
Q

Who takes responsibility in the event of a mayday?

A

sector officer

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14
Q

What is the tactical benchmark for a Mayday

A

mayday resolved

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15
Q

What needs to be addressed before you can declare a Mayday has been resolved?

A

Individual that called mayday is removed from hazard zone

All members involved in the rescue are accounted for and out of hot zone

All members working in other sectors are accounted for

The IC can give a PAR for entire hazard zone

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16
Q

Risk management plan represents what?

A

the “why” are we taking risks at this incident. Focused on savable lives or savable property

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17
Q

Who is responsible for accountability?

A

Every person involved an incident

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18
Q

When it comes to accountability Command is responsible for what?

A

The strategic level of accountability

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19
Q

When it comes to accountability sector officers or group supervisors are responsible for what?

A

Tactical level of accountability by tracking crews in their sector

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20
Q

When it comes to accountability Command Officers are responsible for what?

A

Task level of accountability, tracking each firefighters location and what they are doing

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21
Q

When it comes to accountability the Engineer is responsible for what?

A

tracking crews and crew members who take hand lines from their apparatus

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22
Q

Engineer accountability tasks are what?

A

Collects passports from crews prior to them entering hot zone

Places passport on discharge gate when hose line is charged

Places hoseline ID tags on each hoseline

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23
Q

Passports shall reflect what?

A

Only members operating in the hot zone

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24
Q

When will a passport system be implemented?

A

Any incident that requires the use of an SCBA

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25
Q

What do ladder crews do with their passport?

A

When going to the roof to perform ventilation they will leave their passport on the dash in their truck.

If they go interior they will give their passport to the engine closest to their point of entry

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26
Q

When exiting the structure the company officer must do what with their passport?

A

Retrieve it from their accountability location

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27
Q

What is in the back up accountability kit?

A

1 pouch
1 blank passport (use grease pencil)
1 blank passport with velcro
1 grease pencil

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28
Q

When can accountability be terminated?

A

fire under control with a PAR on all crews

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29
Q

Passport accountability location is where?

A

The engine where crew deployed hosleline

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30
Q

Where do passports never go ?

A

hot zone

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31
Q

When is a PAR required?

A 
Report of missing or trapped FF
Change in strategy 
Sudden hazardous event 
Report of an All Clear 
Report of Under Control 
Every 30 minute elapsed time 
Command discretion
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32
Q

In high rise situations who is responsible for collecting passports?

A

Lobby sector

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33
Q

According to OSHA when is an atmosphere considered IDLH?

A

once ffs begin interior attack on an interior structure fire

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34
Q

What is the objective of 2 in / 2 out?

A

to have fully equiped FFS in position during fire attack in the event of a mayday situation

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35
Q

When will the 2 in / 2 out be established?

A

anytime ffs are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived on scene

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36
Q

Osha defines the incipient stage as what?

A

fire in the initial beginning stage which can be controlled or extinguished by fire extinguisher, small hose system, without the need for PPE or SCBA.

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37
Q

What are the exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out rule?

A

1) When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life
2) Fire is in the incipient stage

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38
Q

When do you need to communicate via radio about 2 in / 2 out?

A

When it is not met

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39
Q

When is the 2 in / 2 out standard met?

A

When the second arrive fire company arrives on scene or is in level 1 staging

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40
Q

What are the responsibilities of the primary member of the 2 in / 2 out team?

A

soley dedicated to tracking interior crews

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41
Q

What are the responsibilities of the secondary member of the 2 in / 2 out team?

A

this member may be engaged in other activities within the hazard zone (operating the pump panel)

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42
Q

What is lobby sector used for?

A

to control access to a building or area during hazardous incidents (fires, rescues, etc.)

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43
Q

When lobby sector is established companies must?

A

report to lobby sector before reporting to their assigned sector or assignment

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44
Q

What should happen if anything becomes unsafe during a helicopter’s approach?

A

the pilot should go around 3 times

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45
Q

Landing zones must be?

A

relatively flat and free of obstructions and at least 100 x 100 for each helicopter

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46
Q

Spectators, vehicle traffic, emergency vehicles, etc should be kept how far away from the landing zone?

A

a minimum of 200 feet

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47
Q

How big is the touch down area?

A

60 x 60

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48
Q

Where should the individual communicating with the pilot be?

A

front right corner

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49
Q

What are special use landing zones?

A

any landing zone where the pilot cannot land and shut down power to the helicopter

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50
Q

Approach and departure paths should not pass over what?

A

treatment area, command post, or other activity areas

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51
Q

How far should the LZ be from other activity areas?

A

at least 100 yards

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52
Q

Where should the tail guard be stationed?

A

50-100 feet from the tail rotor

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53
Q

When should personnel pass behind the helicopter?

A

Never

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54
Q

Radio contact should be maintained how long after helicopter’s departure?

A

2-3 minutes

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55
Q

How should you approach the helicopter?

A

from the front at a 45 degree angle in a crouching position, in sight of the pilot

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56
Q

What should be done prior to approaching helicopter?

A

establish eye contact with pilot or observer. Depart in pilots or observers field of vision

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57
Q

LZ PPE shall include what?

A

eye protection, helmet face shields, ear protection

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58
Q

How far away should patients be prior to being loaded into the helicopter?

A

150 feet away

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59
Q

What are the 3 tactical objectives & their benchmarks?

A

1) Rescue/ Primary Search (All Clear)
2) Fire Control (Under control)
3) Property Conservation (Loss Stopped)

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60
Q

The umbrella of service is made up of what?

A

1) Firefighter Safety
2) Customer Service
3) Loss Control

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61
Q

Fireground Fators

A 
Building 
Arrangement
Resources
Fire & Smoke
Life Hazard
Occupancy 
Other
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62
Q

What should be done prior to making entry if possible?

A

Reset fire by using a straight stream applied to the ceiling for 15-30 seconds

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63
Q

What is a marginal situation?

A

defensive conditions with a known rescue

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64
Q

Variables related to attack operations

A

Location of attack, size of attack, support functions

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65
Q

How will the announcement be made that we are going to defensive?

A

With emergency traffic

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66
Q

What is the flow of a standard master stream?

A

750 GPM

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67
Q

T/F command dictates strategy not the building?

A

True command determines strategy

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68
Q

T/F when water is limited put water on exposure not fire?

A

True put water on exposure

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69
Q

What is the order of rescue efforts?

A

Most threatened
Largest numer
Remaining fire areas
Exposed areas

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70
Q

What is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?

A

Covering life safety

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71
Q

What must happen prior to ladder pipes operating?

A

Ground crews must be notified and evacuated from interior positions

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72
Q

Ladders should extend how far above the roof line?

A

2-3 feet above the roof line so they are visible for egress

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73
Q

Where should ladders be placed?

A

Near building corners or fire walls. Establish 2 separate escape routes

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74
Q

What is the hot zone?

A

any area requiring SCBA, hoseline, PPE., and FFS are at risk.

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75
Q

What is the minimum number of FFs working in a hot zone?

A

at least 2

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76
Q

What is the warm zone?

A

zone where FF is not at risk

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77
Q

What is the cold zone?

A

zone where nobody is at risk

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78
Q

Personnel entering hot zone should have?

A

Full turnouts, crew intact, be assigned a sector

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79
Q

A 100ft length of unprotected steel will expand how much when heated to 1100 degrees?

A

9 inches

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80
Q

If after how long should command evaluate strategy if heavy fire conditions still exist

A

10-15 minutes

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81
Q

What is the perimeter when operating around a high rise building?

A

200 feet

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82
Q

When should you check your SCBA?

A

At the beginning of your shift, after each use, and any other time that is necessary

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83
Q

SCBA should be used when operating in what?

A

active fire area, above active fire areas, any potential explosion or fire areas, dumpster fires and vehicle fires (gas leaks and fuel spills) and confined space

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84
Q

How far can a FF travel when the low air alarm is activated?

A

less than 150 feet in good conditions

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85
Q

The last ___ % is a FF’s emergency reserve

A

33% is emergency reserve, all FF’s should leave hazard zone with emergency reserve

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86
Q

The initial ___ % of air supply is working and exiting air supply

A

66%

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87
Q

T/F it is unacceptable to leave hazard zone with low air alarms activated?

A

True

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88
Q

How many rescuers does it take to remove one FF from a mayday situation?

A

12 rescuers

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89
Q

Max distance FF will enter any building is what?

A

150 feet

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90
Q

What does ROCC stand for?

A

Regional Operations Consistency Committee

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91
Q

T/F Vent holes should not be made larger?

A

True, vent holes should not be made larger

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92
Q

When is a rehab truck dispatched?

A

All first alarm and greater incidents when stress advisory is in effect

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93
Q

If a member enters rehab with _____ or ____ they will receive ALS treatment?

A

ALOC or irregular heart beat

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94
Q

If after 20 minutes a ff pulse is still ____ or greater they will receive ALS interventions

A

120 bpm

95
Q

To be reassigned members must have what?

A 
HR below 100 
Systolic BP below 160 
Diastolic BP below 100 
Respirations between 12-20 
92% oxygen saturation 
Temp greater than 99.5
No abnormal fining and no complaints
96
Q

What are the salvage objectives?

A

Stop or reduce source of damage
Protect or remove contents
Perserving evidence
Securing fire scene

97
Q

What is the goal of overhaul?

A

reduce secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize incident

98
Q

During a rest break from overhaul a minimum of how many FFs should remain in fire area?

A

2 firefighters should remain in area

99
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring fire extinguishment?

A

Last company officer leaving the scene

100
Q

Where should PPV fans be placed?

A

12-15 feet back from point of entry from the unburned side of the fire

101
Q

What are the 2 items required for PPV fans?

A

1) Exit for pressurized air

2) Must be injected from unburned side of fire

102
Q

What are the exceptions to laying your own supply line on a working fire?

A

1) Obvious critical rescue requiring full crew
2) Unsure of fire location in multi building complex
3) Hydrant within 50 feet of fire

103
Q

A non-pumped 500 foot 4” supply line can flow?

A

800 GPM

104
Q

How many supply lines must be laid when operating a ladder pipe

A

2 supply lines, failure to do so limits ladder pipes to about 1200 gpm

105
Q

Who must be on site for any live fire drills involving flashover chamber?

A

Officer representing ESI

106
Q

How many ffs can be in flashover chamber at a time?

A

10 firefighters

107
Q

What is the max amount of people in teams during flashover chamber?

A

8 recruits supervised by two instructors

108
Q

Hoselines for flashover chamber should flow a minimum of

A

95 gpm

109
Q

Minimum size for handline for car fires?

A

1 1/2” handline

110
Q

Where should truck be placed on car fires?

A

uphill and upwind

111
Q

Bumper assemblies can travel

A

bumpers can travel up to 25 feet

112
Q

What are the two type of aircraft crashes?

A

1) . High Impact

2) . Low impact

113
Q

What type of foam should be used on aircraft is on fire?

A

Class B foam only. If not available use excessive amounts of water

114
Q

Direct flame impingement can burn through the fuselage in…

A

60 seconds

115
Q

Fatalities in survivable aircraft crashes are due to what?

A

smoke inhalation

116
Q

Where is the optimum place to cut an aircraft?

A

around windows and roof area

117
Q

Aircraft high pressure hydraulic lines operate at

A

3000 psi

118
Q

ARFF response from sky harbor has a

A

5 mile radius, must maintain an index of 3 foam trucks at all times

119
Q

Multi patient incident is defined as

A

fewer than 25 patients

120
Q

Mass casualty incident is defined as

A

25 to 100 patients

121
Q

Disaster is defined as

A

100 patients or more

122
Q

EMS tactical objectives are what?

A

Triage complete

All immediates transported

123
Q

When should triage tags be used?

A

Anytime there are 3 or more Immediate patients OR 10+ patients

124
Q

First alarm medicals require

A

Level 2 staging for EMS incidents

125
Q

Med 19 should be established when

A

3rd alarm medical incidents occur

126
Q

1st alarm medical has how many patients?

A

5-10 patients

127
Q

2nd Alarm Medical has how many patients?

A

10-25 patients

128
Q

3rd Alarm Medical has how many patients?

A

25-100 patients

129
Q

How many rescues should be sent into the loading area at a time?

A

Max of 2 rescues at a time

130
Q

T/F Extrication and triage sectors should be assigned separately

A

True, extrication and triage should be separate

131
Q

Triage can be handled by the first arriving company officer up to ___ patients

A

Company officer can triage up to 10 patients

132
Q

What should happen if there is more than 10 patients?

A

First company officer assumes command, second officer will assume triage

133
Q

Extrication will assist triage with what?

A

Any treatment that is necessary prior to disentanglement

134
Q

One company can handle extricating how many patients

A

company can handle extrication of 5 patients (don’t think normal extrication!)

135
Q

One salvage cover can provide enough room for how many patients

A

1 cover can hold 3 patients

136
Q

One company can treat how many patients?

A

4 patients can be treated by one company

137
Q

Where should first arriving patients be placed?

A

Near the exit point

138
Q

Transportation sector should be located next to

A

Treatment sector

139
Q

When all immediate have been transported transportation should

A

notify command (EMS tactical benchmark)

140
Q

NFPA 1670

A

safety officer considerations

141
Q

Prior to any rescue plan being implimented, what must be filled?

A

Technical advisor for command team

142
Q

When operating near an edge rescuers shall be

A

“on rope”

143
Q

Who and what regulates excavations for general industry (trenches)

A

OSHA Reg Standard 29

144
Q

What is an excavation?

A

any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, that is four feet or greater

145
Q

Trench rescue phases

A

Arrival, pre entry ops, entry ops, terminations

146
Q

For trench rescues, the first truck should park at least ___ away from the trench failure

A

50 feet away from trench failure

147
Q

For trench rescue what staging will be implemented and how far away?

A

Level 1 staging will be implemented 150 feet away

148
Q

For trench rescue all non essential traffic should be a minimum of ____ away?

A

300 feet from collapse area

149
Q

Heavy equipment operating at trench rescues should be shut down how far away?

A

300 feet from collapse area

150
Q

What should be placed at the lip of the trench?

A

ground pads, approach trench from sides

151
Q

How many ladders should be utilized in a trench rescue?

A

2 ladders in the trench no more than 50 feet apart

152
Q

How far away should non essential civilians be from the hazard zone?

A

150 feet away

153
Q

Personnel in water rescues should be assigned where?

A

Upstream- identifies any approaching hazards

and Downstream can capture victim or rescuer

154
Q

What are the hazards present with water rescues?

A 
Volume
Velocity 
Debris
Hydraulics
Depth
155
Q

What is the water rescue plan?

A 
Talk 
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
Helo
156
Q

In a water rescue, rescuers will never…

A

be attached to a life line without a quick release or do a breath hold surface dive

157
Q

Where should you spot your truck in a structural collapse response?

A

outside of any potential secondary collapse one

158
Q

What are the hazards associated with structural collapse/

A 
Secondary collapse
Explosion 
Broken lines
Energized lines
Falling debris
159
Q

In a structural collapse Non essential personnel should be moved how far away?

A

150 feet away

160
Q

Who is part of the building triage team?

A

TRT member, structural engineer, hazmat technician

161
Q

What should happen after surface victims have been removed from the collapse area?

A

All non TRT members shall be removed from the collapse area

162
Q

How big should the hazard zone be in tree rescues?

A

50 feet around the tree

163
Q

How far away should non essential civillian personnel be from the tree?

A

150 feet

164
Q

What PPE must be worn for water rescues?

A

Personal flotation device
Water rescue helmet
Approved footwear

165
Q

What is the tree rescue plan?

A

Self Rescue
Aerial Platform Ladder Truck
Ground Ladders
Climb the Tree

166
Q

Where should the ladders go in a tree rescue?

A

1st ladder- under the victim

2nd ladder- to the side and slightly above victim

167
Q

How many rescuers should climb the tree?

A

Two rescuers

168
Q

We respond to any emergency that what?

A

any emergency that threatens life, safety, or property

169
Q

Alarm will dispatch up to a

A

1st Alarm

170
Q

LAFB units respond to calls

A

within a five minute radius of the base

171
Q

A unit can fulfill only ___ primary assignment but can fulfill multiple ____ assignments

A

One primary assignments, multiple secondary assignments

172
Q

Who chooses a response on BLS calls?

A

Company officers will decide C2 or C3

173
Q

What is a balance of assignment?

A

a request for the dispatch of additional units to upgrade response type

174
Q

What is a greater alarm?

A

a request that requires a greater alarm type and response level. No consideration is given to units already assigned to the incident

175
Q

When is the need for move up companies evaluated?

A

Working fires
3 or more units are at an incident in an outlying area
Greater alarms
Multiple working incidents in one area of the city
Coverage in an area is compromised
2 or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 min

176
Q

What happens if alarm does not receive acknowledgment after 1 minute

A

TRO will request acknowledgement over radio

177
Q

What happens if no response is heard after ___ minutes from dispatch?

A

After 2 minutes with no response a cover assignment will be sent

178
Q

If responding to calls on the freeway units must respond?

A

Code 2

179
Q

What happens if you are responding to an AOI call for longer than 10 minutes

A

You will be placed unavailable on incident

180
Q

You should assume command on incidents involved ___ or more units?

A

3 or more units assume command

181
Q

Type 2 Emergency deployment requires what?

A

off duty personnel to staff brush trucks, or other adjunct response apparatus

182
Q

Type 3 Emergency Deployment requires what?

A

off duty staff to come in to staff reserve apparatus

183
Q

1 large scale incident may use ___% of automatic aid reources

A

60% of resources. 40% must stay available

184
Q

2 large scale incidents may use ___ % of automatic aid resources

A

35% of resources for the 2 incidents. 30% of resources must stay available

185
Q

3 large scale incidents may use ___ % of automatic aid resources

A

25% of resources for the 3 incidents. 25% of the resources must stay available

186
Q

Level 1 staging is in effect when?

A

3 or more companies are responding

187
Q

In level 1 staging other units should do what?

A

Stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted one block away

188
Q

For multi company responses to a medical call companies shall?

A

First arriving ALS unit and first arriving Rescue will go directly to scene,

189
Q

Companies that are already in Level 1 staging or en route to Level 1 staging will do what?

A

They will stay in level 1 staging, all others will proceed to level 2 staging

190
Q

You should avoid what type of placement?

A

Belly to butt placement on fireground

191
Q

Command must regard apparatus in which two categories?

A

Working and Parked

192
Q

Trucks should be how far from buildings?

A

30 feet away

193
Q

Initial arriving pumpers should be placed in what type of positions?

A

Key positions

194
Q

How should you position your truck while near traffic?

A

45 degrees away from curbside

195
Q

When a hoseline might be needed on an accident scene how should you position your truck?

A

angled so the pump panel is downstream and the opposite side of on-coming traffic

196
Q

What do you need to do with your lights at night?

A

emergency lighting should be reduced to yellow and emergency flashers should be engaged

197
Q

In freeway operations how far should your last cone be placed?

A

160 feet

198
Q

25 mph

A

65 feet

199
Q

40 mph

A

105 feet

200
Q

60 mph

A

160 feet

201
Q

Rescue units do not have the authority to do what

A

Upgrade their response to Code 3

202
Q

Arizona Motor Vehicle Code requires what when traveling Code 3

A

Must be responding to an emergency and have your warning lights on and sirens

203
Q

How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 under favorable conditions?

A

10 mph over the posted speed limit

204
Q

How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 under less favorable conditions

A

Max of the posted speed limit

205
Q

How fast can you go when traveling int he oncoming traffic lanes?

A

Max of 20 mph

206
Q

How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 in the intersection

A

Posted speed limit through the intersection with a green light

207
Q

When should spotters be used?

A

Backing, negotiating forward turns with restrictive side clearances or when high clearances are unkown

208
Q

When backing the engineer should do what?

A

roll windows down, turn FD radio down, and take your headset off

209
Q

How far should the rear spotters be?

A

10-15 feet behind the truck

210
Q

When backing, spotters should never use what to signal the driver?

A

Flashlights

211
Q

What are the 3 reasons for transporting a patient with an escort?

A

1 Patient Care
2 Family Member Care
3 Parent Escort

212
Q

Small children should not ride in any rescue cab with what installed?

A

Airbags

213
Q

What are the 3 reasons for refusing to transport a patient with an escort?

A

Infections exposures
Contamination
Danger to Rescue driver or patient

214
Q

Alert 1

A

plane having minor difficulties

215
Q

Alert 1 response

A

1 engine

216
Q

Alert 2

A

plane having major difficulties

217
Q

Alert 2 response

A

2 engine companies (1 ALS) , 1 Ladder, 1 Brush truck, and 1 BC

218
Q

Alert 3

A

plane has crashed on or off airport or there is a high probability that it will crash

219
Q

Alert 3 response

A

2 engine companies (1 ALS) , 1 Ladder, 1 Brush truck, 1 utility truck, 1 foam, 1 BC, WDC

220
Q

What should companies do for Alert 1 and Alert 2 at Glendale Airport?

A

companies should respond to gate #9 and stage until aircraft has landed

221
Q

What should companies do for Alert 3

A

Respond directly to crash site

222
Q

What should you do prior to traveling on the runway?

A

confirm with the tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft

223
Q

Airport manager for Glendale Airport

A

Walter Fix

224
Q

In a freeway response what should be established as soon as possible?

A

Unified command

225
Q

What are they key tactical positions for violent incidents?

A

Triage
Extrication
Treatment
Transportation

226
Q

What is the offensive strategy on violent incidents?

A

FD enters a well defined warm zone to treat or extricate the injured

227
Q

What is the defensive strategy on violent incidents?

A

taking posture outside of the hazard zone until sens is safe

228
Q

If staging in quarters for a violent incident you should?

A

be on the truck, monitoring fire and pd channels. Staging in quarters should not delay response

229
Q

What should be utilized for 1st alarm violent incidents when it is impossible to establish a defined hazard zone?

A

Level 2 staging

230
Q

FF options in violent situations?

A

Run, Hide, Fight

231
Q

A less experienced firefighter is defined as what?

A

Probationary FF OR FF with less than 2 years on

232
Q

When is heat stress management implemented?

A

June 1st to September 30th

233
Q

When heat stress management is implemented crews should do what?

A

Limit cardio to 30 minutes

Drink a minimum of 64 ounces in 24 hours

234
Q

During heat stress management crews should be assigned to rehab after?

A

2 bottles of air

Engineer's Process 2020 (6 decks)

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