Volume 2 Flashcards
(234 cards)
1
Q
What is in transit?
A
the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order
2
Q
What is on deck?
A
a tactical function within a sector for layering resources in forward positions
3
Q
What info should be transferred when an on-deck crew is relieving another crew?
A
Interior conditions
Routing instructions to the work area
Additional tools/resources required
Sector objectives
4
Q
What is recycling?
A
a timely and efficient means of air replacement & rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment
5
Q
What is a standard work cycle for a company?
A
2 to 3 air cylinders if conditions permit
6
Q
Companies recycling should do what?
A
remain in their assigned sector follow established exposure reduction and decon guidelines refill their air rehydrate report back to work
7
Q
When should a firefighter call a mayday/ what is the definition of a mayday?
A
any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event cannot be resolved by that FF in 30 seconds
8
Q
What NFPA standard defines mayday readiness?
A
NFPA 1500
9
Q
What is mayday readiness?
A
the ability to don and doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighter gloves
10
Q
How many components does mayday readiness have and what are they?
A
2 components, Prevention & Response
11
Q
What does BOA stand for in a mayday situation?
A
Breathe
Organize
Act
12
Q
What does GRAB LIVES stand for?
A
Gauge Radio Activate ] Breathing Low Illuminate Volume Exit Shield
13
Q
Who takes responsibility in the event of a mayday?
A
sector officer
14
Q
What is the tactical benchmark for a Mayday
A
mayday resolved
15
Q
What needs to be addressed before you can declare a Mayday has been resolved?
A
Individual that called mayday is removed from hazard zone
All members involved in the rescue are accounted for and out of hot zone
All members working in other sectors are accounted for
The IC can give a PAR for entire hazard zone
16
Q
Risk management plan represents what?
A
the “why” are we taking risks at this incident. Focused on savable lives or savable property
17
Q
Who is responsible for accountability?
A
Every person involved an incident
18
Q
When it comes to accountability Command is responsible for what?
A
The strategic level of accountability
19
Q
When it comes to accountability sector officers or group supervisors are responsible for what?
A
Tactical level of accountability by tracking crews in their sector
20
Q
When it comes to accountability Command Officers are responsible for what?
A
Task level of accountability, tracking each firefighters location and what they are doing
21
Q
When it comes to accountability the Engineer is responsible for what?
A
tracking crews and crew members who take hand lines from their apparatus
22
Q
Engineer accountability tasks are what?
A
Collects passports from crews prior to them entering hot zone
Places passport on discharge gate when hose line is charged
Places hoseline ID tags on each hoseline
23
Q
Passports shall reflect what?
A
Only members operating in the hot zone
24
Q
When will a passport system be implemented?
A
Any incident that requires the use of an SCBA
25
What do ladder crews do with their passport?
When going to the roof to perform ventilation they will leave their passport on the dash in their truck.
If they go interior they will give their passport to the engine closest to their point of entry
26
When exiting the structure the company officer must do what with their passport?
Retrieve it from their accountability location
27
What is in the back up accountability kit?
1 pouch
1 blank passport (use grease pencil)
1 blank passport with velcro
1 grease pencil
28
When can accountability be terminated?
fire under control with a PAR on all crews
29
Passport accountability location is where?
The engine where crew deployed hosleline
30
Where do passports never go ?
hot zone
31
When is a PAR required?
```
Report of missing or trapped FF
Change in strategy
Sudden hazardous event
Report of an All Clear
Report of Under Control
Every 30 minute elapsed time
Command discretion
```
32
In high rise situations who is responsible for collecting passports?
Lobby sector
33
According to OSHA when is an atmosphere considered IDLH?
once ffs begin interior attack on an interior structure fire
34
What is the objective of 2 in / 2 out?
to have fully equiped FFS in position during fire attack in the event of a mayday situation
35
When will the 2 in / 2 out be established?
anytime ffs are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived on scene
36
Osha defines the incipient stage as what?
fire in the initial beginning stage which can be controlled or extinguished by fire extinguisher, small hose system, without the need for PPE or SCBA.
37
What are the exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out rule?
1) When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life
2) Fire is in the incipient stage
38
When do you need to communicate via radio about 2 in / 2 out?
When it is not met
39
When is the 2 in / 2 out standard met?
When the second arrive fire company arrives on scene or is in level 1 staging
40
What are the responsibilities of the primary member of the 2 in / 2 out team?
soley dedicated to tracking interior crews
41
What are the responsibilities of the secondary member of the 2 in / 2 out team?
this member may be engaged in other activities within the hazard zone (operating the pump panel)
42
What is lobby sector used for?
to control access to a building or area during hazardous incidents (fires, rescues, etc.)
43
When lobby sector is established companies must?
report to lobby sector before reporting to their assigned sector or assignment
44
What should happen if anything becomes unsafe during a helicopter's approach?
the pilot should go around 3 times
45
Landing zones must be?
relatively flat and free of obstructions and at least 100 x 100 for each helicopter
46
Spectators, vehicle traffic, emergency vehicles, etc should be kept how far away from the landing zone?
a minimum of 200 feet
47
How big is the touch down area?
60 x 60
48
Where should the individual communicating with the pilot be?
front right corner
49
What are special use landing zones?
any landing zone where the pilot cannot land and shut down power to the helicopter
50
Approach and departure paths should not pass over what?
treatment area, command post, or other activity areas
51
How far should the LZ be from other activity areas?
at least 100 yards
52
Where should the tail guard be stationed?
50-100 feet from the tail rotor
53
When should personnel pass behind the helicopter?
Never
54
Radio contact should be maintained how long after helicopter's departure?
2-3 minutes
55
How should you approach the helicopter?
from the front at a 45 degree angle in a crouching position, in sight of the pilot
56
What should be done prior to approaching helicopter?
establish eye contact with pilot or observer. Depart in pilots or observers field of vision
57
LZ PPE shall include what?
eye protection, helmet face shields, ear protection
58
How far away should patients be prior to being loaded into the helicopter?
150 feet away
59
What are the 3 tactical objectives & their benchmarks?
1) Rescue/ Primary Search (All Clear)
2) Fire Control (Under control)
3) Property Conservation (Loss Stopped)
60
The umbrella of service is made up of what?
1) Firefighter Safety
2) Customer Service
3) Loss Control
61
Fireground Fators
```
Building
Arrangement
Resources
Fire & Smoke
Life Hazard
Occupancy
Other
```
62
What should be done prior to making entry if possible?
Reset fire by using a straight stream applied to the ceiling for 15-30 seconds
63
What is a marginal situation?
defensive conditions with a known rescue
64
Variables related to attack operations
Location of attack, size of attack, support functions
65
How will the announcement be made that we are going to defensive?
With emergency traffic
66
What is the flow of a standard master stream?
750 GPM
67
T/F command dictates strategy not the building?
True command determines strategy
68
T/F when water is limited put water on exposure not fire?
True put water on exposure
69
What is the order of rescue efforts?
Most threatened
Largest numer
Remaining fire areas
Exposed areas
70
What is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?
Covering life safety
71
What must happen prior to ladder pipes operating?
Ground crews must be notified and evacuated from interior positions
72
Ladders should extend how far above the roof line?
2-3 feet above the roof line so they are visible for egress
73
Where should ladders be placed?
Near building corners or fire walls. Establish 2 separate escape routes
74
What is the hot zone?
any area requiring SCBA, hoseline, PPE., and FFS are at risk.
75
What is the minimum number of FFs working in a hot zone?
at least 2
76
What is the warm zone?
zone where FF is not at risk
77
What is the cold zone?
zone where nobody is at risk
78
Personnel entering hot zone should have?
Full turnouts, crew intact, be assigned a sector
79
A 100ft length of unprotected steel will expand how much when heated to 1100 degrees?
9 inches
80
If after how long should command evaluate strategy if heavy fire conditions still exist
10-15 minutes
81
What is the perimeter when operating around a high rise building?
200 feet
82
When should you check your SCBA?
At the beginning of your shift, after each use, and any other time that is necessary
83
SCBA should be used when operating in what?
active fire area, above active fire areas, any potential explosion or fire areas, dumpster fires and vehicle fires (gas leaks and fuel spills) and confined space
84
How far can a FF travel when the low air alarm is activated?
less than 150 feet in good conditions
85
The last ___ % is a FF's emergency reserve
33% is emergency reserve, all FF's should leave hazard zone with emergency reserve
86
The initial ___ % of air supply is working and exiting air supply
66%
87
T/F it is unacceptable to leave hazard zone with low air alarms activated?
True
88
How many rescuers does it take to remove one FF from a mayday situation?
12 rescuers
89
Max distance FF will enter any building is what?
150 feet
90
What does ROCC stand for?
Regional Operations Consistency Committee
91
T/F Vent holes should not be made larger?
True, vent holes should not be made larger
92
When is a rehab truck dispatched?
All first alarm and greater incidents when stress advisory is in effect
93
If a member enters rehab with _____ or ____ they will receive ALS treatment?
ALOC or irregular heart beat
94
If after 20 minutes a ff pulse is still ____ or greater they will receive ALS interventions
120 bpm
95
To be reassigned members must have what?
```
HR below 100
Systolic BP below 160
Diastolic BP below 100
Respirations between 12-20
92% oxygen saturation
Temp greater than 99.5
No abnormal fining and no complaints
```
96
What are the salvage objectives?
Stop or reduce source of damage
Protect or remove contents
Perserving evidence
Securing fire scene
97
What is the goal of overhaul?
reduce secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize incident
98
During a rest break from overhaul a minimum of how many FFs should remain in fire area?
2 firefighters should remain in area
99
Who is responsible for ensuring fire extinguishment?
Last company officer leaving the scene
100
Where should PPV fans be placed?
12-15 feet back from point of entry from the unburned side of the fire
101
What are the 2 items required for PPV fans?
1) Exit for pressurized air
| 2) Must be injected from unburned side of fire
102
What are the exceptions to laying your own supply line on a working fire?
1) Obvious critical rescue requiring full crew
2) Unsure of fire location in multi building complex
3) Hydrant within 50 feet of fire
103
A non-pumped 500 foot 4" supply line can flow?
800 GPM
104
How many supply lines must be laid when operating a ladder pipe
2 supply lines, failure to do so limits ladder pipes to about 1200 gpm
105
Who must be on site for any live fire drills involving flashover chamber?
Officer representing ESI
106
How many ffs can be in flashover chamber at a time?
10 firefighters
107
What is the max amount of people in teams during flashover chamber?
8 recruits supervised by two instructors
108
Hoselines for flashover chamber should flow a minimum of
95 gpm
109
Minimum size for handline for car fires?
1 1/2" handline
110
Where should truck be placed on car fires?
uphill and upwind
111
Bumper assemblies can travel
bumpers can travel up to 25 feet
112
What are the two type of aircraft crashes?
1) . High Impact
| 2) . Low impact
113
What type of foam should be used on aircraft is on fire?
Class B foam only. If not available use excessive amounts of water
114
Direct flame impingement can burn through the fuselage in...
60 seconds
115
Fatalities in survivable aircraft crashes are due to what?
smoke inhalation
116
Where is the optimum place to cut an aircraft?
around windows and roof area
117
Aircraft high pressure hydraulic lines operate at
3000 psi
118
ARFF response from sky harbor has a
5 mile radius, must maintain an index of 3 foam trucks at all times
119
Multi patient incident is defined as
fewer than 25 patients
120
Mass casualty incident is defined as
25 to 100 patients
121
Disaster is defined as
100 patients or more
122
EMS tactical objectives are what?
Triage complete
| All immediates transported
123
When should triage tags be used?
Anytime there are 3 or more Immediate patients OR 10+ patients
124
First alarm medicals require
Level 2 staging for EMS incidents
125
Med 19 should be established when
3rd alarm medical incidents occur
126
1st alarm medical has how many patients?
5-10 patients
127
2nd Alarm Medical has how many patients?
10-25 patients
128
3rd Alarm Medical has how many patients?
25-100 patients
129
How many rescues should be sent into the loading area at a time?
Max of 2 rescues at a time
130
T/F Extrication and triage sectors should be assigned separately
True, extrication and triage should be separate
131
Triage can be handled by the first arriving company officer up to ___ patients
Company officer can triage up to 10 patients
132
What should happen if there is more than 10 patients?
First company officer assumes command, second officer will assume triage
133
Extrication will assist triage with what?
Any treatment that is necessary prior to disentanglement
134
One company can handle extricating how many patients
company can handle extrication of 5 patients (don't think normal extrication!)
135
One salvage cover can provide enough room for how many patients
1 cover can hold 3 patients
136
One company can treat how many patients?
4 patients can be treated by one company
137
Where should first arriving patients be placed?
Near the exit point
138
Transportation sector should be located next to
Treatment sector
139
When all immediate have been transported transportation should
notify command (EMS tactical benchmark)
140
NFPA 1670
safety officer considerations
141
Prior to any rescue plan being implimented, what must be filled?
Technical advisor for command team
142
When operating near an edge rescuers shall be
"on rope"
143
Who and what regulates excavations for general industry (trenches)
OSHA Reg Standard 29
144
What is an excavation?
any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, that is four feet or greater
145
Trench rescue phases
Arrival, pre entry ops, entry ops, terminations
146
For trench rescues, the first truck should park at least ___ away from the trench failure
50 feet away from trench failure
147
For trench rescue what staging will be implemented and how far away?
Level 1 staging will be implemented 150 feet away
148
For trench rescue all non essential traffic should be a minimum of ____ away?
300 feet from collapse area
149
Heavy equipment operating at trench rescues should be shut down how far away?
300 feet from collapse area
150
What should be placed at the lip of the trench?
ground pads, approach trench from sides
151
How many ladders should be utilized in a trench rescue?
2 ladders in the trench no more than 50 feet apart
152
How far away should non essential civilians be from the hazard zone?
150 feet away
153
Personnel in water rescues should be assigned where?
Upstream- identifies any approaching hazards
| and Downstream can capture victim or rescuer
154
What are the hazards present with water rescues?
```
Volume
Velocity
Debris
Hydraulics
Depth
```
155
What is the water rescue plan?
```
Talk
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
Helo
```
156
In a water rescue, rescuers will never...
be attached to a life line without a quick release or do a breath hold surface dive
157
Where should you spot your truck in a structural collapse response?
outside of any potential secondary collapse one
158
What are the hazards associated with structural collapse/
```
Secondary collapse
Explosion
Broken lines
Energized lines
Falling debris
```
159
In a structural collapse Non essential personnel should be moved how far away?
150 feet away
160
Who is part of the building triage team?
TRT member, structural engineer, hazmat technician
161
What should happen after surface victims have been removed from the collapse area?
All non TRT members shall be removed from the collapse area
162
How big should the hazard zone be in tree rescues?
50 feet around the tree
163
How far away should non essential civillian personnel be from the tree?
150 feet
164
What PPE must be worn for water rescues?
Personal flotation device
Water rescue helmet
Approved footwear
165
What is the tree rescue plan?
Self Rescue
Aerial Platform Ladder Truck
Ground Ladders
Climb the Tree
166
Where should the ladders go in a tree rescue?
1st ladder- under the victim
| 2nd ladder- to the side and slightly above victim
167
How many rescuers should climb the tree?
Two rescuers
168
We respond to any emergency that what?
any emergency that threatens life, safety, or property
169
Alarm will dispatch up to a
1st Alarm
170
LAFB units respond to calls
within a five minute radius of the base
171
A unit can fulfill only ___ primary assignment but can fulfill multiple ____ assignments
One primary assignments, multiple secondary assignments
172
Who chooses a response on BLS calls?
Company officers will decide C2 or C3
173
What is a balance of assignment?
a request for the dispatch of additional units to upgrade response type
174
What is a greater alarm?
a request that requires a greater alarm type and response level. No consideration is given to units already assigned to the incident
175
When is the need for move up companies evaluated?
Working fires
3 or more units are at an incident in an outlying area
Greater alarms
Multiple working incidents in one area of the city
Coverage in an area is compromised
2 or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 min
176
What happens if alarm does not receive acknowledgment after 1 minute
TRO will request acknowledgement over radio
177
What happens if no response is heard after ___ minutes from dispatch?
After 2 minutes with no response a cover assignment will be sent
178
If responding to calls on the freeway units must respond?
Code 2
179
What happens if you are responding to an AOI call for longer than 10 minutes
You will be placed unavailable on incident
180
You should assume command on incidents involved ___ or more units?
3 or more units assume command
181
Type 2 Emergency deployment requires what?
off duty personnel to staff brush trucks, or other adjunct response apparatus
182
Type 3 Emergency Deployment requires what?
off duty staff to come in to staff reserve apparatus
183
1 large scale incident may use ___% of automatic aid reources
60% of resources. 40% must stay available
184
2 large scale incidents may use ___ % of automatic aid resources
35% of resources for the 2 incidents. 30% of resources must stay available
185
3 large scale incidents may use ___ % of automatic aid resources
25% of resources for the 3 incidents. 25% of the resources must stay available
186
Level 1 staging is in effect when?
3 or more companies are responding
187
In level 1 staging other units should do what?
Stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted one block away
188
For multi company responses to a medical call companies shall?
First arriving ALS unit and first arriving Rescue will go directly to scene,
189
Companies that are already in Level 1 staging or en route to Level 1 staging will do what?
They will stay in level 1 staging, all others will proceed to level 2 staging
190
You should avoid what type of placement?
Belly to butt placement on fireground
191
Command must regard apparatus in which two categories?
Working and Parked
192
Trucks should be how far from buildings?
30 feet away
193
Initial arriving pumpers should be placed in what type of positions?
Key positions
194
How should you position your truck while near traffic?
45 degrees away from curbside
195
When a hoseline might be needed on an accident scene how should you position your truck?
angled so the pump panel is downstream and the opposite side of on-coming traffic
196
What do you need to do with your lights at night?
emergency lighting should be reduced to yellow and emergency flashers should be engaged
197
In freeway operations how far should your last cone be placed?
160 feet
198
25 mph
65 feet
199
40 mph
105 feet
200
60 mph
160 feet
201
Rescue units do not have the authority to do what
Upgrade their response to Code 3
202
Arizona Motor Vehicle Code requires what when traveling Code 3
Must be responding to an emergency and have your warning lights on and sirens
203
How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 under favorable conditions?
10 mph over the posted speed limit
204
How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 under less favorable conditions
Max of the posted speed limit
205
How fast can you go when traveling int he oncoming traffic lanes?
Max of 20 mph
206
How fast can you go when traveling Code 3 in the intersection
Posted speed limit through the intersection with a green light
207
When should spotters be used?
Backing, negotiating forward turns with restrictive side clearances or when high clearances are unkown
208
When backing the engineer should do what?
roll windows down, turn FD radio down, and take your headset off
209
How far should the rear spotters be?
10-15 feet behind the truck
210
When backing, spotters should never use what to signal the driver?
Flashlights
211
What are the 3 reasons for transporting a patient with an escort?
1 Patient Care
2 Family Member Care
3 Parent Escort
212
Small children should not ride in any rescue cab with what installed?
Airbags
213
What are the 3 reasons for refusing to transport a patient with an escort?
Infections exposures
Contamination
Danger to Rescue driver or patient
214
Alert 1
plane having minor difficulties
215
Alert 1 response
1 engine
216
Alert 2
plane having major difficulties
217
Alert 2 response
2 engine companies (1 ALS) , 1 Ladder, 1 Brush truck, and 1 BC
218
Alert 3
plane has crashed on or off airport or there is a high probability that it will crash
219
Alert 3 response
2 engine companies (1 ALS) , 1 Ladder, 1 Brush truck, 1 utility truck, 1 foam, 1 BC, WDC
220
What should companies do for Alert 1 and Alert 2 at Glendale Airport?
companies should respond to gate #9 and stage until aircraft has landed
221
What should companies do for Alert 3
Respond directly to crash site
222
What should you do prior to traveling on the runway?
confirm with the tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft
223
Airport manager for Glendale Airport
Walter Fix
224
In a freeway response what should be established as soon as possible?
Unified command
225
What are they key tactical positions for violent incidents?
Triage
Extrication
Treatment
Transportation
226
What is the offensive strategy on violent incidents?
FD enters a well defined warm zone to treat or extricate the injured
227
What is the defensive strategy on violent incidents?
taking posture outside of the hazard zone until sens is safe
228
If staging in quarters for a violent incident you should?
be on the truck, monitoring fire and pd channels. Staging in quarters should not delay response
229
What should be utilized for 1st alarm violent incidents when it is impossible to establish a defined hazard zone?
Level 2 staging
230
FF options in violent situations?
Run, Hide, Fight
231
A less experienced firefighter is defined as what?
Probationary FF OR FF with less than 2 years on
232
When is heat stress management implemented?
June 1st to September 30th
233
When heat stress management is implemented crews should do what?
Limit cardio to 30 minutes
| Drink a minimum of 64 ounces in 24 hours
234
During heat stress management crews should be assigned to rehab after?
2 bottles of air
