Volume 2A

Question 1

How are engine nacelles on the CV-22 Osprey positioned so it can be controlled as a conventional fixed wing aircraft?

Answer 1

Horizontally.

Question 2

The component that can be rotated 90 degrees to facilitate towing, parking, and jacking in a reduced space environment is the

Answer 2

turret mounted wing.

Question 3

What role system kit provides a means for rapidly inserting personnel into areas in which the aircraft is unable to land?

Answer 3

FAST ROPE.

Question 4

The three fuselage interface/splice areas within the four structural systems are the

Answer 4

forward-to-mid fuselage; mid-to-aft fuselage, and aft fuselage-to-empannage.

Question 5

The E3s that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from are

Answer 5

all of the above. (EMI, HPMR, NEMP)

Question 6

How many pounds per square foot is the cabin floor limit load?

Answer 6

300.

Question 7

How many independent troop seat release mechanisms are in the cabin compartment?

Answer 7

Three.

Question 8

The graphite/epoxy composite component that acts to minimize the airflow disturbances created by the rotor blades while ion AIRPLANE MODE is the

Answer 8

vortex control device.

Question 9

Which assembly is used for daily maintenance to provide access to the hydraulic ground support pan assembly and allow for the attachment of hydraulic ports for maintenance purposes?

Answer 9

Hydraulic ground service door.

Question 10

Which mount assembly provides a means for attaching the nacelle structure to the proprotor gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles?

Answer 10

Nacelle.

Question 11

The mode of operation that a solenoid operated lock pin engages the main cabin door aft latch to prevent opening the door when there is no WOW and the nacelle angle is less than 45 degrees is

Answer 11

SAFETY INTERLOCK.

Question 12

In the ramp fold down position, wheeled cargo cannot exceed a maximum weight of

Answer 12

5,000 pounds or 300 pounds per square foot.

Question 13

The pilot and copilot seats adjust in 11 steps through a range of

Answer 13

five inches vertically and three inches longitudinally.

Question 14

Which assembly prevents recoil of the seat due to the elastic energy released at the conclusion of a crash-induced seat stroke?

Answer 14

Anti-rebound.

Question 15

What configuration has the proprotor blades folded toward the fuselage; the nacelles rotated to the horizontal position; and the wing rotated 90 degrees (left nacelle over the nose of the aircraft and right nacelle over the empennage)?

Answer 15

FULL STOW.

Question 16

What configuration has the proprotor blades fully extended; the nacelles rotated to the vertical position; and the wing rotated perpendicular to the fuselage?

Answer 16

HELICOPTER MODE.

Question 17

Which digit of the four-digit numbering system that identifies access panels and doors on the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone?

Answer 17

Third.

Question 18

What component acts to hold the lower cabin door in place to prevent rotor wash from throwing the door back into the closed position against the aircraft?

Answer 18

Down lock.

Question 19

While both cabin doors have normal opening/closing mechanisms, what is the only door that is given emergency opening provisions?

Answer 19

Upper.

Question 20

Emergency egress for the pilots is facilitated by the cockpit side windows, which are configured with explosive escape separators. These explosive escape separators are also known as

Answer 20

fast burn.

Question 21

To avoid partially blocking the associated escape hatch after the escape hatch is separated from the aircraft using the external initiator, what handle must be actuated manually to release the associated troop seats?

Answer 21

Seat release.

Question 22

The primary composite material used on the Osprey is

Answer 22

GR/EP.

Question 23

During normal operation, the radiation hazard area of the operating multifunction radar for personnel is

Answer 23

100 feet forward and +/-60 degrees of the nose of the aircraft.

Question 24

In the HELICOPTER MODE, the variable arc (in feet), and height (in feet) of the proprotors above the ground or deck is

Answer 24

16 to 20 (variable arc), 20 to 22 (height).

Question 25

With the aircraft in a hover at 10 feet above the ground or deck, the exhaust temperature about five feet above the deck can exceed how many degrees Fahrenheit above ambient temperature?

Answer 25

100.

Question 26

Once the nose gear down-lock safety pin is activated by a pop-out handle on the right side of the aircraft nose, what prevents inadvertent reset of the handle?

Answer 26

A removable down-lockpin with "remove before flight" flag.

Question 27

The equipment that is strictly prohibited from use for purging oxygen systems is

Answer 27

aircraft nitrogen servicing trailers.

Question 28

If the aircraft is fully fueled and the entire left nacelle is removed, the wing rotation condition that will cause a right tipover condition is from 0 to

Answer 28

20 degrees.

Question 29

What is the maximum total weight limit, in pounds, that may be on the empennage at any one time?

Answer 29

1,200.

Question 30

What term that is associated with inspections refers to a definite amount, operation, or limitation that has been established and is contained in applicable directives?

Answer 30

Specified.

Question 31

What type of phase inspection will be performed at 630 aircraft hours?

Answer 31

C.

Question 32

What is the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection may be performed early or extended to meet mission requirements?

Answer 32

10 percent (21 hours).

Question 33

What type of inspection employs a logical walk-around sequence to ensure coverage of the lower and upper aircraft surfaces and the cockpit?

Answer 33

Preflight.

Question 34

What type of inspection is to be accomplished upon the accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or after occurrence of a specified or unusual condition?

Answer 34

Special.

Question 35

What does it mean when units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any other specific measurement base?

Answer 35

Removal of the item and installation of a serviceable item in its place.

Question 36

The automated history system that will be used in place of AFTO Form 95 to document significant historical events on aircraft, engines, aerospace ground equipment (AGE), and armament equipment is the

Answer 36

maintenance information system.

Question 37

All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with local activities supplemental instructions and

Answer 37

NAVAIR 00-80T-109.

Question 38

What component controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing?

Answer 38

GRDP.

Question 39

During normal operations, the maximum fuel cell fill rate in gallons per minute when using the GRAVITY FILL mode is

Answer 39

100.

Question 40

Except for the refuel close connection point, what method of refueling is similar to aerial refueling?

Answer 40

Hover in-flight.

Question 41

The GRDP provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system status, and

Answer 41

total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and basic display of fuel system failures.

Question 42

What mode of operation does the GRDP operate in?

Answer 42

ON.

Question 43

What MLG component provides damping and shock absorbing of forces created during landing or ground maneuvring, static load distribution, and dynamic load distribution?

Answer 43

Shock strut.

Question 44

What backup safety mechanism is manually installed to prevent accidental landing gear retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut actuator locks?

Answer 44

Ground lockpin.

Question 45

What system on the NLG provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?

Answer 45

Hike.

Question 46

What does it mean if the NLG proximity switches determine the target is far?

Answer 46

NLG is on the ground.

Question 47

What powers the landing gear and extend/retract tricycle configuration?

Answer 47

Hydraulic system 2.

Question 48

About how much pressure in psi is the emergency extension system pneumatic reservoir charged, when the temperature is 70 degrees F?

Answer 48

2800.

Question 49

Without hydraulic power applied to the steering unit, the nose gear can swivel how many degrees?

Answer 49

360.

Question 50

What components convert the mechanical inputs to electrical signals and provide nose wheel steering movement information to the FCCs?

Answer 50

CCPT.

Question 51

If the landing gear has not been extended, the landing gear control lever handle flashes whenever the aircraft is below

Answer 51

200 feet AGL in altitude and less than 60 knots forward airspeed.

Question 52

What prevents wheel brake assembly rotation?

Answer 52

Torque lug bushing.

Question 53

What parking brake component applies hydraulic pressure separately to the MLG left and right wheels and brakes and retains hydraulic pressure for parking brake engagement?

Answer 53

Transfer module.

Question 54

What type of maintenance pump provides hydraulic pressure to recharge the back-up brake accumulator and provide pressure to operate the cargo ramp system?

Answer 54

Electric motor driven hydraulic.

Question 55

Operation of the wheel and brake system in POWERED mode, hydraulic system 3 supplies how much pressure in psi to the pressure reducer?

Answer 55

5000.

Question 56

What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydraulic power to the Osprey?

Answer 56

Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3.

Question 57

Hydraulic actuator control to induce roll is provided by the

Answer 57

flaperons.

Question 58

During ground operations, what facilitates fluid between hydraulic system 3 and hydraulic systems 1 and 2?

Answer 58

Fluid compensation valves.

Question 59

What hydraulic component stores fluid displaced by actuated components and filters supply and return?

Answer 59

Flight control module.

Question 60

What component is incorporated into the flight control module to maintain 5000 psi of pressure during system startup and shutdown to prevent pump cavitation?

Answer 60

Accumulator.

Question 61

What valve assembly, in the hydraulic flight control module, that has a flat-face poppet microseal design, is jam free high, and prevents system pressure back flow into the hydraulic pump pressure line?

Answer 61

High flow check valve.

Question 62

What flight control module component is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into hydraulic system 3?

Answer 62

Fluid compensation valve.

Question 63

What flight control module component regulates hydraulic fluid temperature by providing a maximum pressure-to-return leak path flow of up to 2 gpm, when fluid temperature is below 40 degrees Fahrenheit, to rapidly heat up the hydraulic system fluid and maximize hydraulic sstem operation?

Answer 63

Thermal control valve module.

Question 64

During ground operations prior to start-up, what hydraulic system provides 5000 psi hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems?

Answer 64

Hydraulic system 3.

Question 65

What flight control utility module 3 component shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp wile the aircraft is in flight?

Answer 65

Utility isolation valve.

Question 66

Under what conditions will a pressure/temperature bypass valve internal to the MWGB heat exchanger route hydraulic fluid bypass the heat exchanger?

Answer 66

Temperatures below 150 degrees F, or differential pressure above 40 psi.

Question 67

When using the electric motor/pump, or when using hydraulic system 3, the cargo ramp and door opening and closing times take about how many seconds?

Answer 67

30 to 60 for the pump, 12 for system 3.

Question 68

What functions does the PFCS combine to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components that control the aircraft?

Answer 68

Mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic.

Question 69

Utilizing signals from the FCCs, what components provide a motorized autotrim/autopilot function and displace the mechanical flight controls accordingly?

Answer 69

CCFDAs.

Question 70

The lateral mass balance bellcrank assembly reduces the effects of PIOs by the counterweight action of what component?

Answer 70

Bellcrank.

Question 71

The link assembly configuration of cyclic system mechanical control adjustable rod end provides course adjustments of

Answer 71

1/2 turn - 180 degrees.

Question 72

With simultaneous blade pitch changes, what component transmits a PDS to the FADEC to increase or decrease engine power accordingly?

Answer 72

FCC.

Question 73

In AIRPLANE MODE, yaw directional control is accomplished by displacing what component?

Answer 73

The rudders.

Question 74

What aluminum yaw interconnect assembly provides a connection for coordination of yaw control mechanical assemblies that are located between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies?

Answer 74

Bellcrank.

Question 75

What kind of device is the yaw pedal adjust mechanism assembly that is designed for ergonomically repositioning the left and right yaw and brake pedals?

Answer 75

Electromechanical.

Question 76

What status display provides and overview of flight control surfaces, hydraulic system pressures, and FCCs?

Answer 76

CDU.

Question 77

Which panel has the capability to activate and/or reset the AFCS, adjust individual engine torque values, and engage backup HPDUs on the conversion actuators?

Answer 77

Flight control.

Question 78

How many degrees are the flaps set to, when the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full)?

Answer 78

72.5.

Question 79

How many active and inactive (spare) torque sensors are there for each proprotor mast?

Answer 79

Three active sensors and three inactive (spare) sensors.

Question 80

What is the maximum percent of surface hinge movement that the left, right, and center elevator servo actuators are capable of supplying?

Answer 80

50.

Question 81

What hydraulic system powers each section of the swashplate actuators?

Answer 81

A and B: system 1, C: system 2.

Question 82

In pounds, what is the individual and combined load capacity of the external cargo system?

Answer 82

10,000 (individual), 15,000 (combined).

Question 83

With the doors open, the cargo hook external doors must be latched open prior to flight when the speed will be above how many knots?

Answer 83

80.

Question 84

What assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical failure of the external cargo hook system?

Answer 84

External manual release assembly.

Question 85

When hydraulic pressure is not applied, the rescue hoist hydraulic brake is capable of holding a maximum load of how many pounds?

Answer 85

1500.

Question 86

What provides for the activation of the reel-out limit switch and the reel-in speed reduction switch to stop the hoist with 250 feet of cable remaining?

Answer 86

Cyclocentric mechanism.

Question 87

In feet, the three standards lengths of the fast rope are

Answer 87

60, 90, and 120.

Question 88

What part of the Osprey fuselage is the cargo ramp fast rope trapeze assembly attached to?

Answer 88

Cargo ramp actuator beam.

Question 89

In psig, at what pressure is the enriched N2 environment kept in the fuel cells to provide a fire and explosion suppressive environment?

Answer 89

One to two.

Question 90

What fuel distribution pumps are controlled by the FMU to provide a continuous flow of fuel to the feed cells during flight?

Answer 90

Suction lift pumps.

Question 91

In an emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?

Answer 91

Jettison tube assembly.

Question 92

Using the fuel dump system, what is minimum pounds-per-minute rate that fuel can be discharged through the jettison tube assembly?

Answer 92

800.

Question 93

Wat normally closed valve in the fuel dump system is commanded open to allow fuel to flow out of the jettison tube assembly?

Answer 93

Jettison shutoff valve.

Question 94

What is the only component in each of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems?

Answer 94

Fuel quantity probe.

Question 95

What is the primary stability and attachment point for the aerial refueling probe assembly?

Answer 95

Aluminum fitting fastened to the anti-plow bulkhead fitting.

Question 96

What component provides control and monitoring of fuel CG management system operation for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?

Answer 96

FMU 1 (left FMU).

Question 97

What is the fuel capacity, in gallons, of a MATS assembly?

Answer 97

430.

Question 98

What component prevents the top portion of the MATS bladder from contacting the container and creates an air cavity around the bladder?

Answer 98

Spacer ring.

Question 99

What tape uses a magnetic float and marked tape to verify a MATS assembly has been completely filled with fuel?

Answer 99

Fuel fill indicating tape.