Volume 4 Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?

A

ID risk management

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2
Q

The first step in risk analysis is asset

A

Critically assessment

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3
Q

Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency

A

Staff judge advocate

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4
Q

Through which agency will the BDOC up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents

A

Installation command post

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5
Q

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

A

Accident

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6
Q

What does the color yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report

A

Greater than 33% available

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7
Q

Personnel assigned to the priority II category should be evacuated within how many hours

A

4

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8
Q

Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

A

24

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9
Q

Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan?

A

Installation commander

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10
Q

Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages

A

Defense force commander

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11
Q

How many days are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support

A

5

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12
Q

Which type of attack may involve an insider threat

A

Penetration

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13
Q

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US

A

Department of state

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14
Q

Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US

A

Department of justice

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15
Q

What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical support?

A

Active supporters

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16
Q

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation

A

High

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17
Q

What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology

A

Operational capability

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18
Q

What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities

A

Threat level 1

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19
Q

What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

A

Threat level II

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20
Q

What desired effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems and closed-circuit television

A

Detect

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21
Q

What desired effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force

A

Defend

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22
Q

How many random antiterrorist measures chosen from higher force protection conditions are required daily

A

At least three

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23
Q

How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies

A

More than two centuries

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24
Q

What must units develop about the area of responsibility to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local time, and terrain

A

Common operating picture

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25
What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
Coercion
26
Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization as a
Private, self governing, not-for-profit organization
27
What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments
Intergovernmental organization
28
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization in the world
United Nations
29
To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
Ambassador
30
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
Sovereignty issues
31
If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
Non-DoD agencies
32
Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions
Crew-served weapons operator
33
What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer
Greater distance
34
Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
400 meters
35
Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures
BDOC
36
What type of fire control measures do security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their members
Direct
37
What is the most common means of giving fire commands
Visual signals
38
What is your first course of action when caught in an assault
Immediately return fire and take a covered position
39
Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
Primary sector from farthest to closest
40
Which target indicator is i'm on the most difficult for the enemy to avoid
Contrast with the background
41
When marking targets the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
Aiming point
42
The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of
Light
43
How should pre-combat inspections be tailored
Specific unit and mission requirements
44
On the AN/PVS-14 Manatt killer night vision device what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
Compass
45
When should security forces perform checks and their individual issued items
Daily
46
In tactical deployment situations what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique
High crawl
47
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
48
Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team
Wedge
49
When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used
When enemy contact is expected
50
Which movement technique do you use one speed is important in contact with an adversary is not likely
Traveling
51
During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overwatching team
150
52
What are the two types of ambushes
Point and area
53
What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols
Area route and zone
54
What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a direct effort to obtain detailed information on all routes obstacles terrain and enemy forces within a defined sector
Zone
55
To perform transition to a handgun drill with a three point tactical sling you must first place the rifle on
Safe
56
How do you perform the hand and arm signal for attention
Extend the arm sideways; slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; way the arm to and from the head several times
57
How do you perform the hand and arm signal for line formation
Extend your arms parallel to the ground
58
When processing captives detainees and prisoners and all collection points which is not one of the principles of stress
Release
59
What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads
Offset
60
What convoy movement formation can be used to block third-party traffic and assist in changing lanes
Staggered
61
Where will the drivers position themselves during a short halt
Remain in vehicle
62
Who signals for roll out after a long halt and movement commences
Convoy commander
63
You can find the sheet name of a map in the
Center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
64
What terrain feature is a stressed out groove in the land usually formed by streams and rivers
Valley
65
What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole
Depression
66
What terrain feature is a short continuous slopping line of higher ground normally jutting out from the side of the ridge
Spur
67
Contour lines are the most common method of showing
Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
68
What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line
Increase in elevation
69
To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map you read it from
Left to right bottom to top
70
How close will a six digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify
100 meters
71
And azimuth is defined as
Horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line
72
What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called
Index mark
73
The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
A ruler
74
Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known points on the ground
Intersection
75
Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well defined pinpointed on the map
Resection
76
What is the first step in navigating using terrain association
Orient your map
77
What direction is always the first shadow Mark when using the shadow tip method
West
78
The DAGR provides the user position
Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities
79
What is the DAGRs primary function
Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information
80
Which DAGR Mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites
Standby