VPH Flashcards

Question

What are the cattle ear tag requirements?

Answer 1

Primary tag: distance readable yellow plastic two piece ear tag which requires specific information. Secondary tags: must be in a different ear from the primary tag, it should be placed in the other ear to the primary tag unless an ear is damaged when they can be fitted to the same ear. Info is always printed not hand written. If the ear tag is made frmo two pieces, both sides must be printed and bear the crown logo.

Answer 2

A bar code may be included on an official tag although it is not compulsory. this is used mainly for animals that are being exported (cattle born in GB do not need to be identified with ear tags that have a barcode). British ear tag manufacturers can issue such tags if they are needed. It is an offence to identify an animal with ear tags which have already been used to identify and register on CTS a different animal.

Answer 3

EU - double tagged showing - country logo, country code, official ID of no more than 12 digits, (holding an animal) can re tag if tag lost but country code will change to UK. Third country - with is own TC tag and passport can only go directly for slaughter within 15 days from import & vet certificate. Re tag with UK tag within 20 days of passing veterinary checks if not going directly for slaughter. Farmer to apply for a UK passport within 15 days of arriving. The date of import will be shown on UK passport.

Answer 4

CTS is run by the british cattle movement service. All cattle born or imported into GB fom an EU or thirc country since 1 july 1996 must be registered with BCMS. CTS makes it possible for defra to; check which animals are present on a holding, check where an animal has been during its life, trace animals exposed to a disease risk, give assurances to buyers about an animals life history and so, strengthen consumer confidence in beef.

Answer 5

Al cattle born or imported in GB ( not direct to slaughter or slaughtered within 15 days of arriving within the UK) from an EU or TC since 1 july 1996 must be registered with BCMS. CAttle fmor another member state, NI or channel islands or Isle of Man must apply for a passport within 15 days of arrival to holding destination. keepers are obliged to apply for replacement passports within 14 days of becoming aware of the missing passport. Bovine animals can only be moved to licensed slaughter house only with an official valid GB passport: certificate of CTS registration, CPP1, CPP13, CPP52, accompanied by a CPP35 if not for human consumption.

Answer 6

EU - passport issued by member state, must have export health certificate, and permit authorising movement of cattle (only in NI). Imported animals not slaughtered within 15 days of arrival in GB must be issued with BCMS CPP52 passports. The inside back page provides details of the country from which the animal was imported. Third country - before 15 days. must have export certificate and animal clealry identified. After 15 days: cPP52 after the 1st july in 1996.

Answer 7

Cattle born/reared in UK before 1st aug 1996 are not for human consumption and cannot be moved from the farm. Under 30 months UTM: Fit for slaughter with correct ID or Over 30 months OTM carcases dispatched to approved cutting plants to remove the vertebral column (specific risk material). If emergency slaughter only: over 48 months need brain stem tested for BSE.

Answer 8

The FBO has a duty to ensure that all livestock submitted for slaughter are correctly identified. The FBO is to ensure that cattle presented for slaughter for human consumption comply with the age criteria, are properly identified and are accompanied by valid documentation. The FBO responsibility is to notify the movement of - animals onto their premises either electronically or using a movement card, animals leaving their premises if the animals move off without being slaughter, to complete the death details in the back of the passport, the passport will be stamped at the slaughterhouse to indicate the date and place of slaughter. All cattle passports for slaughtered animals whether the old or new style will be returned to the BCMS via the food standards agency. the MHI or OV is to verify FBO compliance by checking 10%, 25% or 100% of bovine and 100% of equine animals slaughtered for human conosumption - check passport, ear tags, Age : dentition, Match tag and passport.

Answer 9

Eelctronic identification EID of sheep and individual recording is an EU obligation from 31 december 2009. EID is mandatory for all sheep born on or after this date. (except sheep going to slaughter within 12 months of age in England and Wales till 1st january 2015) EID will not be mandatory for goats because the UK goat population falls below the EU threshold however goats will still need to be individually recorded on a holding register and movement documents.

Answer 10

Animals for slaughter - before 12 months of age - single UK tag in Scotland must be an EID. any others two identifiers as follows; within 6 months of birth if animals are housed overnight, or within 9 months of birth if animals are not housed overnight. Animal movement before the specific minimum age dictates earlier tagging. Lost or illegible tags should be replaced within 28 days.

Answer 11

Sheep and goats imported from other EU countries must be identified with two ID tags with the same individual ID nmber. Animals from the Republic of Ireland (ROI) may have two non identical tags.

Answer 12

Sheep and goats imported from non EU countries must be double tagged with two identical UK tags; within 14 days of their arrival, before they leave the holding of import.

Answer 13

These animals are identified following the same rules as described till now but with no EID tags. 2 eartags required in animals not intended for slaughter before reaching 1 year of age. 1 ear tag for animals going to slaughter before they reach 1 year of age.

Answer 14

No movement documents are needed when moving animals within the same farm where animals are moving across land under the same farmer management of control. Moving animals within the same business to or from the main site where the distance moved is within 5 miles of the main site. any movement to or from a vet. For other movements need an animal movement licence AML1- Address, including postcode and CPH of the holdings from and to which the sheep are being moved, date the movement is taking place, number of sheep the document covers, FBO must retain for 6 months, FBO must send a copy to the LA within 3 days of the arrival of a sheep.

Answer 15

The FO should have in place in agreement with the OV - a system to check that all sheep are tagged, check between 2-5% of each consignment, based on risk, to verify that their tags correlate with the movement document, a system to notify the OV of arrival of animals in the slaughterhouse. The minimum percentage should be applied to batches coming directly from the farm with no previous history of identification problems. Maximum percentages should be applied to batches originating at non compliant farms or suppliers and mixed batches.

Answer 16

May be consigned to the slaughterhouse in a composite group comprising sheep from many different farms. Identification checks may be carried out at the slaughterhouse, at the market, or by a combination of checks at both premises. The OV actions - animals not correctly identified should not be accepted for human consumption initially. once the identity has been ascertained the animal should be accepted for slaughter for human consumption. Discrepancies between ear tags and documentation to be reported to trading standards.

Answer 17

Under regulation EC 853/2004 - the FBO may accept for slaughter only animals that are properly identified. Properly identified means identified in such a way that the farm or holding from which a sheep or goat was sent for slaughter can be traced and in particular; this information should be shown on the movement document which accompanies the animals (AML1 and commercial documents). Sheep can be deemed to be properly identified within the requirements of SAGRIMO if the animal bears an ear tag showing the farm where the animal was born. Animals are ID in such a way that it enables them to be related to the food chain information FCI.

Answer 18

Difficulties may arise from loss of a tag or frmo lack of correlation with the information on the movement document or in the FCI. The identity of a sheep may be considered reasonably ascertainable if it can be traced back to its last holding. the FSA staff may refer to; movement documentation, tagging, batch homogeneity, farm checks carried out by the local authority.

Answer 19

All pigs arriving at the slaughterhouse should be identifiable by means of an identification mark. this can be a slapmark, eartag, or tattoo. In scotland ear tags may be made of metal or plastic or a combination of both however they must be sufficiently heat resistant that neither the ear tag nor the information printed or stamped on it can be damaged by the processing of the carcase following slaughter. Tattoo of the herdmark on one ear or if desired the other ear may have an individual number and or management information. size is not specific but the tattoo must be legible before and after slaughter and throughout processing.

Answer 20

Slapmark applie to both shoulders showing the keepers herdmark. size is not specific however the slap mark must be legible before and after slaughter and throughout processing. in Scotland can be applied to one shoulder showing either the keepers herd mark or an alpha numeric slap mark allocated to the keeper by one of the Scottish marketing groups.

Answer 21

Must be printed or stamped and not handwritten, tamperproof and not reusable, include the letters UK plus the herdmark. a unique identification number can follow on from the official information or be printed on the other side of the tag. Must be capable of remaining legible throughout carcase processing. Plastic tags are not acceptable for slaughter pigs because they may melt during scalding or singeing.

Answer 22

Pigs imported from outside the EU must be identified at the destination holding with an EAr tag or tattoo containing the letters UK followed by the herd mark and the letter F unless the pigs are delivered directly to slaughter. Pigs moving to slaughter require an animal movement license AML2 or eAML2 form completed. The document must be retained for at least 6 months by the FBO who must also send a copy to the local authority within 3 days of the arrival of a pig.

Answer 23

the eAML2 system captures the following information; the address, including postcode and CPH number of the holdings from and to which the pig is being moved, the date the movement is taking place, the number of pigs being moved, the identification mark of pigs, pigs movements from a market, the lot numbers of the pigs being moved. In Scotland, with effect from 1 december 2011, details of pigs moving to slaughter should be notified to the Scot EID movement reporting database electronically by telephone or in writing.

Answer 24

Any equidae slaughtered for human consumption or consigned for such slaughter must be accompanied by a valid passport which does not show that the animal is not intended for slaughter for human consumption; section IX part II is not signed, there are no other stamps or markings within the passport which indicate that the horse is not intended for human consumption and must have record any vet treatment eg phenylbutazone.

Answer 25

Foals born after 1 july 2009 must also be mandatorily implanted with a microchip transponder, these may enter the food chain if section IX is not signed. horses not in possession of a passport after 1 july 2009 will be signed out of the food chain upon application and must also be mandatorily implanted with a microchip transponder in the area around the nuchal ligament.A private veterinary surgeon PVS or other person administering any veterinary medicinal product to a horse must first check the passport to ascertain whether the horse is intended for human consumption. the PVS must record details of any substance administered including vaccines which appears in the list of medicines considered essential for horses. These substances have a set minimum six month withdrawal before horses can enter the food chain.

Answer 26

The annex to regulation EU 37/2010 contains 2 lists of pharmacologically active substances. Table 1 lists allowed substances, which may be administered to food producing animals, table 2 lists prohibited substances which may not be administered to food producing animals. In the event that a medicine containing any of the substances listed in Table 2 of EU 37/2010 is administered to a horse, the animal can never be slaughtered for human consumption. The owner or a PVS must sing part II of section IX of the passport to declare the horse as not intended for human consumption.

Answer 27

Food chain information. all the information regarding a batch of animals with relevance to the FO and OV. FBO uses the FCI to reduce the risk of hazards to the consumer, minimise cross contamination during slaughter. OV uses the FCI to properly assess the health, welfare and inspection requirements of a batch of animals intended for slaughter. FCI should provide identification, movement and traceability, epidemiological intelligence, farm animal management, environment and hygiene management, animal feed composition, storage and use, production parameters, herd health plans, medicines and veterinary treatment.

Answer 28

Primary producer must keep records, slaughter house operators must request receive check and act upon FCI, OV must take account of FCI when conducting AMI and PMI. Must feed back inspection data to producer. Legislation states must arrive no less than 24 hours before animals. Ideally for poultry - plan slaughter schedule. For other species - can come with animal. up to FBO as to what he requests. Guidelines available for what FCI should include: status of holding, animal health status, any vet products/treatments, any occurrence of disease, any test results.

Answer 29

OV checks and analyses FCI and may decide - if animals have disease/condition transmissible to humans or animals through handling/eating meat, MUST be rejected for slaughte.r May be killed separately under conditions so no cross contamination with fit meat, then disposed of as by product, change slaughterhouse process; decrease speed or increase number of inspectors. Slaughter particular batch last. Detain for further testing (animals or carcases)

Answer 30

OV may permit slaughter in such cases the OV must detain carcases of animals slaughtered int he absence of FCI, and their related offal, pending the receipt of FCI. FCI should arrive within 24 hours of slaughter. IF not - declared unfit, and Carcases rejected.

Answer 31

To provide feedback from slaughterhouse to farmer and private vet, allows action to be taken on farm to improve animal health and welfare. At abbatoir FSA only collection of quantitive data. Conditions of possible animal health and animal welfare relevant e.g fluke pneumonia mastitis are not scored as to give a more useful aid to the vet and farm. Other conditions may be passed undetected e.g prevalence of parasitic infections of the gut if carcase/offal not compromised.

Answer 32

If inspections post or ante mortem reveal any disease or condition taht might: affect public or animal health, compromise welfare, FSA must inform FBO. If problem arose during primary production, OV must inform farmer, farmers vet, animal health if appropriate. Accurate recording of findings essential.

Answer 33

External - normally contaminated with environmental bacteria: pseudomonas, acinetobacter, moraxella, aeromonas. Slime layers - off odours, green persistent colours. Internal - Meal internal tissue usually sterile if from healthy animals: lcostridium perfringens and enterococcus faecalis and faecium. Gas, dark cuts, bone taints or sours.

Answer 34

Cutting/mincing operations, structures and equipment, lymph nodes, wrapping and packaging material, animal hides, sticking knife, GI tract, hands and tools of operatives.

Answer 35

Non enteric bacilli; pseudomonas, aeromonas, actinobacter, alcaligenes. Spore formers - bacillus, clostridium, moulds - aspergillus, mucor. Bacteriophages - failure of milk, processing into cheese/yoghurt. Enteric bacilli - citrobacter sp, enterobacter sp, proteus sp. Lactic acid bacteria - lactobacillus, lactococcus, enterococcus, saccharomyces sp.

Answer 36

Bacteria - acinetobacter, campylobacter, corynebacterium, listeria, micrococcus, pseudomonas. Yeasts - candida, debaryomices, rhodoturula, yarrowia

Answer 37

General definition: length of time during which quality of product is maintained and is considered fit for consumption. Legally, all food must be microbiologically safe during its shelf life. Predominantly food quality not food safety issue. Depends on nature of product, preservation methods, storage conditions, all these influence shelf life.

Answer 38

Use by - dates on food that goes off quickly such as meat products and ready prepared salads. for the use by to be a valid guide you must carefully follow storage instructions such as keep in the refrigerator, if you don't, the food will spoil more quickly and you may risk food poisoning. Best before dates appear on a wide range of frozen dried tinned and other foods. the best before dates are more about quality than safety. when the date runs out it doesn't mean that the food will be harmful but it might begin to lose flavour and texture.

Answer 39

The difference of meat composition (proteins, fat, collagen and carbohydrates in animal species), level of carcass contamination, conditioning, chilling process, storage temperature/ventilation/humidity/cold chain, boning /cutting/ packaging, further processing.

Answer 40

Beef 3-4 weeks, beef vacuum packed 6-8, poultry 2 weeks, pork 2 weeks, lamb 2weeks, fish 10 days.

Answer 41

Campylobacter jejuni and rarely C Coli can cause human enteric illness. Has replaced non typhoidal salmonella as the most commonly reported gastrointestinal pathogen in the UK and EC. poultry are the main reservoir of infection. Also found in pigs, cattle and sheep. Eating food including poultry on commercial catering premises has been identified as a risk in several case control studies.

Answer 42

It is thermophilic (can be inactivated by heat), but more resistant than previously thought, survive at 50C for 1 hour. Do not survive pasteurisation treatments (milk and dairy products). Campylobacter sp are linked to foodborne disease are microaerophilic (5% oxygen) and require oxidative stress defences for survival during exposure to air (does not survive long on egg shell). campylobacter jejuni cannot grow below 30. But at temperatures as low as 4 degrees C the organism can respirate, generate ATP, and move towards favourable environments, although it is unable to replicate. (fridge temperatures at home can prevent bacterial growth) but allow survival for up to 30 days. Infectious dose can be very low <500 bacterial cells but varies with immune status of host.

Answer 43

Clinical features of acute campylobacter infection vary from mild diarrhoea lasting 24 hours to severe illness lasting more than a week. Incubation period is typically 2 to 5 days, although can be up to 11 days, onset of diarrhoea (often blood stained) being preceded by malaise and possibly fever. Characteristic of campylobacteriosis is a persistent colicky abdominal pain which may mimic acute appendicitis. Other symptoms which may be present are headache, backache, aching of the limbs and nausea. Vomiting is uncommon.

Answer 44

Irritable bowel syndrome: most likely sequela to develop, 30-40% of cases of campylobacter induced gastroenteritis develop IBS within 1-2 years of infection. Guillain-Barré syndrome - in approx 1:1000 infection cases. Causes about 100 deaths per year. autoimmune inflammatory neuropathy due cross reaction of antibodies against campylobacter glycosylation with human neural gangliosides. Pain, decreased motor function, even temporary paralysis. Reiter's syndrome similar mechanism to above but typically joints are affected. Pain and swelling of the joints, reduced range of motion. systemic spread - usually limited to the immunosuppressed.

Answer 45

Usually considered a commensal organism but it is not. Greatest numbers in caeca up to 10^9 CFU/g. Association between numbers in caeca and numbers on carcass. Vertical transmission: not important in epidemiology, trans -ovarian: not significant. Faecal contamination of eggs: not significant. Different strains in parent and progeny flocks. Birds campylobacter negative for first 3 weeks.

Answer 46

Season of year: increased colonisation in summer, temperature and humidity related. Age of birds: no colonisation up to 3 weeks, increasing colonisation up to 9 weeks then decreases. Slaughter age range 20-150days, mean 42 days. Increased exposure, age resistance/susceptibility, immunity. Insects - houseflies frequently campylobacter positive. Not likely in winter. Thinning of flock - thinning crews and equipment in house, stress on birds, time between thinning and final depopulation, age at thinning vs age at final depopulaiton. study published this month - formal association with thinning and initial flock infection. Biosecurity - human traffic in and between houses. Vermin/wild birds - especially free range chickens. Farm environment - free range greater prevalence, moisture required; rain, puddles etc. Carry over from previous flock - limited but responsible for 10-20% new infections.

Answer 47

Improve biosecurity and hygiene, restrict access, hygiene barriers, rodent and insect control, chlorinate drinking water, concrete and drainage, reduce slaughter age: 33-35 days, colonisation risk increase x 2 q 10 days of age, discontinue thinning, organic acid in feed and water: inconsistent results. Vaccination: maternal immunity protective - no marketed vaccine so far.

Answer 48

Cleanliness of birds, good hygienic practices and HACCP throughout, accurate evisceration - correct equipment, identify positive flocks at the farm, requires flock sampling and rapid testing, schedules slaughter - slaughter last, chemical decontamination or irradiation - not in EU, heat treatment of freezing, blast surface freezing in liquid nitrogen vapour.

Answer 49

L monocytogenes is a G+ facultative anaerobic bacillus. L monocytogenes has been isolated from foods such as raw veg, raw and pasteurised fluid milk, cheeses, ice cream, butter, fermented raw meat sausages, raw and cooked poultry, raw and processed meats, raw preserved and smoked fish. Sporadic cases or outbreaks of listeriosis are generally associated with ready to eat, refrigerated foods and often involves the post processing recontamination of cooked foods.

Answer 50

It is resistant to various environmental conditions such as - high salt, acidity (ph4), low oxygen conditions, refrigeration temperatures, survives or long periods in the environment, on foods, in the processing plant, and in the household refrigerator. When L monocytogenes is initially presented at a low level in contaminated food, the microorganism may multiply during storage in foods that support growth, even at refrigeration temperatures.

Answer 51

Listeriosis is an infection that most often affects individuals experiencing immunosuppression: foetuses or neonates, the elderly, pregnant, individuals being treated with immunosuppressive drugs. The bacterium most often affects the pregnant uterus, the central nervous system or the bloodstream. Manifestations of listeriosis include but are not limited to bacteraemia, septicaemia, meningitis, encephalitis, miscarriage, neonatal disease, premature birth and stillbirth.

Answer 52

Reformulation of the product such that one or more of the parameters influencing the growth of the bacterium is altered so the food no longer supports growth, strict control of temperature so that ready to eat foods never exceed 6 degrees C, shortening the duration of the product refrigerated/chilled shelf life, hygiene practices.

Answer 53

Gram -ve, facultative anaerobic bacillus found in lower intestinal tract of mammals and birds, commensal and pathogenic strains: ETEC, EPEC, EIEC, EHEC, VTEC. Ecoli infections in humans: infective dose 10-100cfu, incubation period 3-4days approx, pathogenesis: bacterial toxin induced. Symptoms: mild diarrhoea to haemorrhagic colitis, HUS, Thrombocytopaenia, purpura.

Answer 54

Ruminants are the reservoir - asymptomatic, most important site of colonisation is the terminal rectum. super shedder individuals - major targets for control. Herd prevalence high, individual prevalence variable. Spread between animals by contaminated feed or water, hide contamination, wild animals and birds.

Answer 55

Carcass contamination occurs during processing. De hiding and evisceration. further processing - spread of pathogen, minced beef source, non meat foods; environmental confamination. Areas of beef carcass contaminated during de hiding and evisceration include - hock, flanks, brrisket, rump.

Answer 56

Colonisation of animals gut influenced by management factors including diet, age, concurrent disease e.g cryptosporidiosis, immune status including innate immunity, various management/husbandry practices can: increase no. of cattle exposed to VTEC, increase faecal contamination of animals destined for slaughter, reduce exposure to VTEC (biosecurity, clean bedding, feet, water), exclusion of VTEC from herd (vaccination, expensive) Most important control measure is - only send clean cattle for slaughter.

Answer 57

Good hygiene and HACCP system, slaughter clean cattle only, care at de hiding and evisceration, carcass washing, use heat products? don't mix batches of product.

Answer 58

Hepatitis A virus and hepatitis E virus, norovirus, enterovirus, adenovirus, rotavirus. Food may be contaminated by virus during all stages of the food supply chain (primary production or during further processing). Viruses do not multiply and do not produce toxins in foods, food items merely act as vehicles for their transfer. Viral foodborne infections are limited to the recycling of human viruses back to humans.

Answer 59

The most common cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. it is highly infectious. symptoms: vomiting, diarrhoea, headaches, abdominal pain, fever, recovery in 2-3 days. Can be transmitted through food but majority of cases not foodborne cause.

Answer 60

Distinguish infectious from non infectious norovirus in food samples, routes of viral contamination of foods, role of food handlers, improve understanding of transmission routes of norovirus ifnection, review on the survival of norovirus in foods and contact surfaces.

Answer 61

Regulation EC 853/2004 - food business operators need to demonstrate as appropriate compliance with microbiological criteria for foodstuffs. Regulation EC 2073/2005 - microbiological criteria for foodstuffs.

Answer 62

Defined limits on presence or number of microbes or metabolites in food. They are necessary to in interpret results of tests, ensure food is safe and produced hygienically, but cannot guarantee food safety - hence HACCP. Microbiological testing verifies HACCP procedures. the FBO must ensure product meets requirements, competent authority i.e OV is responsible for compliance.

Answer 63

No to assess the fitness of individual carcases or processed meat for human consumption but to provide an indication of performance and control of slaughter, dressing and production hygienic process at the time of sampling. this applies to carcasses, minced meat, meat preparations, mechanically separated meat.

Answer 64

Aerobic colony count and enterobacteriaeceae on cattle, sheep, goats, horses and pig carcases. Salmonella on cattle, sheep, goats, horses, pig and broiler turkey carcases, aerobic colony count and E. coli in minced meat and mechanically separated meat. E. coli in meat preparations.

Answer 65

Food safety criteria have been set for fresh poultry meat, minced meat, meat preparations, meat products and mechanically separated meat. If exceeded indicate that the batch tested is unsatisfactory adn should not be placed or removed from the market. Demonstartion of compliance with food safety criteria for meat and processed meat is required by the absence of salmonella in minced meat and meat preparations intended to be eaten raw, minced meat and meat preparations intended to be eaten cooked, mechanically separated meat (mSM), meat products intended to be eaten raw, meat products made from poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked, fresh poultry meat - s.typhimurium and s. enteritidis. Satisfactory - if absent from all 5 samples. Unsatisfactory - if present in any of 5 samples.

Answer 66

Absence of L monocytogenes required in RTE foods intended for infants, RTE able to support the growth of L monocytogenes other than those intended for infants, RTE unable to support the growth of L monocytogenes other than those intended for infants.

Answer 67

A verification procedures of the HACCP plan is the microbiological testing of working surfaces and utensils. In cutting plant, microbiological testing of working surfaces and utensils are not a legal requirement of the food business operator can provide other forms of verification of cleaning procedures eg rapid test systems or if they do not produce ready to eat products otherwise listeria monocytogenes microbiological test is mandatory.

Answer 68

Statute law - primary legislation or enabling act | Subordinate legislation - bye laws, regulations, rules and orders, approved code of practice, guidance notes.

Answer 69

Enables regulations and orders; | Index, definitions, main provisions, administration and enforcement, miscellaneous and supplemental, schedules.

Answer 70

the EU is a family of democratic european countries committed to work together for peace and prosperity. it is not a state intended to replace existing states but it is more than any other international organization. its member states have set up common institutions to which they delegate some of their sovereignity so that decisions on specific matters can be made democratically at european level. this pooling of soverignity is also called european integration.

Answer 71

The European Union consists of 28 democratic european countries working together in their mutual interest. All other countries are referred to as third countries meaning non eu countries.

Answer 72

The European Union is based on the rule of a law. this means that everything that it does is derived from treaties, which are agreed on voluntarily and democratically by all member states. previously signed treaties have been changed and updated to keep up with developments in society.

Answer 73

Legislation which is specific to particular species or commodities are known as vertical regulations or directives. Legislation which is cutting across to particular operations or commodities are known as horizontal regulations or directives.

Answer 74

Laying down procedures in matters of food safety - sets out general principles of food law, food business operators have responsibility for food safety, risk analysis, traceability requirements, european food safety authority, identification of emerging risk, rapid alert system.

Answer 75

Bringing national laws into line with one another very often in order to remove national barriers that obstruct the free movement of workers, goods, services and capital. Harmonization means making sure that on any particular issue for which the EU has responsibility, the rules laid down by the different EU countries impose similar obligations on the citizens of all those countries and that they impose certain minimum obligations in each country.

Answer 76

Regulation on official controls performed to ensure the verification of compliance with feed and food law, animal health and welfare rules: crisis management, imports from 3rd countries, national control plans e.g for salmonella in broilers and pigs.

Answer 77

It applies to all food businesses and includes - general hygiene of foodstuffs, general structure requirements for food premises, pre requisite programme and HACCP based procedures, industry guides.

Answer 78

Applies to businesses producing food of animal origin; specific hygiene rules, specific structural requirements, approval of food premises, specific HACCP based procedures, food chain information.

Answer 79

Approval of milk and dairy product establishments, in GB all establishments handling liquid milk and dairy products are approved by local authorities. Official controls enforced and executed by FSA dairy inspectors. Approval of fishery products and live bivalve molluscs; premises that handle these must be approved under 853/2004 conditions. Approval of food outlets; stand alone premises that handle or process foodstuffs must be approved under EU reg 852/2004. Approval and inspections carried out by the local authority.

Answer 80

Sets specific rules for how official controls on products of animal origin intended for human consumption are managed; inspection, verification, auditing. Role of official veterinarians and meat hygiene inspectors. Ante mortem and post mortem inspection requirements, decisions concerning meat.

Answer 81

Regulation 183/2005 - system for the approval and registration of feed business establishments that manufacture, market, distribute or use animal feeds including feed additives. LA in gb, DARD in NI.

Answer 82

Regulation EC no 852/2004 and regulation no 853/3004, slaughterhouses, cutting plants and game handling establishments require veterinary control. approved by the food standards agency in GB and by DARD in NI. Any co located cold stores, minced meat and meat preparation or meat products establishments are also approved by the agency or DARD in NI.

Answer 83

To protect public health by providing safe food, to improve animal health and welfare, to gain customer confidence, to enhance standards, to penalise those who breach the regulations. Enforcement authorities include Food standards agency, animal health, trading standards office, environmental health office. Hierarchy of enforcement - verbal advice, warning letter, statutory nnotices; hygiene improvement notce, detention of food notice, remedial action notice, hygiene prohibition notice, referral for investigations lead to prosections.

Answer 84

``` Farm - veterinary officer Transport - trading standards Slaughter house - OV Further processing - OV audit Retail - EHO Consumption- EHO ```

Answer 85

In all criminal proceedings the prosecution has a legal burden to prove all element of the offence charged and disprove any defences raiesd, beyond reasonable doubt. the prosecution has the evidential burden to produce sufficient evidence on each element of the offence charged to justify a conviction.

Answer 86

Proportionality - applying principles of risk assessment when enforcing legislation, must focus on most serious risks. compliance in low risk activities should be encouraged. Enforcement should be consistent regionally and nationally.

Answer 87

Evidence must be relevant, admissible so that it relates to the facts in issue or circumstances that make those facts probable or improbable and has been properly obtained, of sufficient weight so that reliance can be placed on it by the court.

Answer 88

Contemporaneous notes made at the time, photocopies of acutal leters of advice/warnings sent or formal notices served, photographs/videos to evidence the elements of the offence, witnesses, formal documentation for evidence gathering, formal samples bodies and body parts, animal ear tags, temperature records, data logger readings, computer evidence, companies house records, lab results. In scotland every essential element of an offence that makes up a crime must be corroborated - sample eevidence, continuity of evidence, calibration equipment.

Answer 89

Slaughterhouses, cutting plants and game handling establishments require veterinary control and must be approved by the FSA. Any co located cold stores, minced meat, meat preparation or meat product establishments are also approved by the agency when stand alone these establishments are approved by local authority.

Answer 90

The five otucomes of the FSA aims - food produced or sold in the UK is safe to eat, imported foods are safe to eat, food producers and caterers give priority to consumer interests in relation to food, consumers have the information and understanding they need to make informed choices about where and what they eat. Business compliance is effectively supported because it delivers consumer protection. This will include a focus on effective, risk based and proportionate regulation and enforcement. The core duties of the FSA - meat inspection, hygiene checks, welfare assessment, residue testing, animal health checks, animal identification checks, control of imported meat and liestock, correct disposal of animal by product, cutting plant operation, to license new premises, auditing licensed premises.

Answer 91

An establishment used for slaughtering and dressing animals, the meat of which is intended for human consumption. The origin of of the meat - red meat: voluntary striated skeletal muscular tissue of domestic ungulates ie cattle, pigs, sheep, goats and sollipeds. Poultry meat: farmed birds, lagomorphs: rabbits hares and rodents, wild game: wild ungulates and lagomorphs other mammals and wild birds, farmed game: above species farmed.

Answer 92

Chilled or frozen carcases, large primal pieces or quarters, chilled or frozen offal, retail size poooortions, chilled vacuum packed meats, dried meats, fermented meat, raw or cooked cured products, cooked uncured meat, cooked canned products.

Answer 93

Access to mains water and electricity supply estimated consumption of 10,000 lper tonne. Connected to mains sewage, proximity to main roads and facility of access to large and small vehicles and parking, proximity to skilled labour, freedom from pollution from other industries odours, dust smoke ash and chemicals, ground not prone to flooding, remoteness from local housing, sufficient size for future expansion.

Answer 94

Lairage, slaughter, bleeding and dressing areas, separate room for emptying and cleaning stomachs and intestines, rooms for the refrigerated storage of meat, lockable chillers for the storage of detained meat, separate place for the C&D of livestock transport, separate area for storage of manure or digestive ontent, separate area for storage of animal by products - blood, hides etc and industrial waste. Despatch area: facilities for hygienic loading into lorries, lockable room for the exclusive use of the veterinary service, changing rooms, instruments and equipment of non corrodible and easy to clean material, separate area for storage of chemicals cleaning agents, engineers workshop, maintenance equipment.

Answer 95

Food premises to be kept clean and maintained in good repair. the layour, construction and size of food premises are to permit adequate maintenance and &D, provide adequate working space for a hygienic performance, minimise air borne contamination, protect against the accumulation of dirt, shedding of particles, formulation of condensation or mould on surfaces, pests.

Answer 96

They must be of adequate space for the species/rate processed. The floors must be waterproof, washable and in sound condition, with adequate drainage, avoid materials with high levels of maintenance and must be non slip. Walls must be maintained in a sound condition - easy to C& D, smooth surface, floor to wall junctions - sealed, light coloured ideally. Must have waste water disposal system. Ceilings must be easy to be cleaned, constructed to avoid accumulation of dirt, reduce formation of condensation and mould, can box in overhead fixtures. Windows and doors - opened to the outside environment, fitted with insect proof screen where necessary, constructed to avoid the accumulation of dirt. Surfaces - especially food contact surfaces and equipment, easy to clean, disinfect and maintain, smooth, washable, wood generally not acceptable.

Answer 97

Dirty areas: include lairage, green offal room, unfit meat handling area, animal by products area, c&D area. Transtional areas: stun/stick, slaughterhall, detained meat, equipment wash, staff amenities. Clean areas: dressing rooms, red offal preparation and packing, carcase chill, despatch. Multiple species separation: separated by time or space

Answer 98

Pens or covered space for the reception of the animals and for their inspection. Must be equipped with water and feeding facillities. must have regards for animal welfare (pen size, layout), adequate drainage, adequate lighting, lockable facilities for sick or suspect animals with separate drainage, easy to clean and disinfect.

Answer 99

Slaughter lines over head system (avoid contact between carcases after skin is removed, meat with skin or fixtures). Adequate lighting - natural or artifical but to allow colour of meat to be assessed, 540 lux at inspection points, 220 luxx in work rooms, 110 lux elsewhere. Hygiene facilities - wash basins for staff and knifes with hot and cold running water, wash basins non hand operated, facilities for disinfecting tools (water at >82 degrees C or alternative equivalent methods), positioned closed to working stations, adequate ventilation and steam extraction.

Answer 100

Restrainer at stunning area, hoist at the sticking area, scalding tank at pig & poultry abbatoirs, dehairing and singeing (pig) hide puller, electric brisket saw, feet cutting tools, splitting saw, platforms, conveyor belts.

Answer 101

Facilities for cleaning livestock transport vehicles, impervious hard standing, all weather, drainage adequate, clean running water, equipment to deliver disinfectant, supplies of approved disinfectant, light.

Answer 102

Allows prompt action if injured, contact with lairage staff, monitoring welfare - enforcement of rest period if stressed/fatigued, provision of food/water, segregation of fractious/horned, bulling heifers/young bulls. Assessment of cleanliness - FBO responsible but OV guidance often sought, prevention of contamination of carcasses. ID of animals suspected of substance administration - injection sites. Identification of fevered animals - dull, not slaughtered, treatment? residues? Zoonoses detected - can warn slaughterhouse workers of risk e.g ringworm. Notifiable disease detection - allows prompt notification and minimal contamination of premises.

Answer 103

Useful diagnostic information not available, short time in lairage, time /cost factors prevents full investigation, FCI not always helpful at AMI, at present, little/no feedback to farmers.

Answer 104

Must decide if animals are clean and dry enough, no longer OV responsibility, except to verify. Can take special precautions - slow line, last of day, spaces on line. May use deep bed, blowers, leave overnight or clipping. FBO must also check identification- of individuals and batches, bovine animals over 30 months. Check that animal is accompanied by relevant information from holding: FCI. Check not from areas under disease control unless permitted by the competent authority. Check healthy as far as FBO can judge. Check satisfactory welfare state- must take immediate corrective action if not. Must only accept live animals into premises. A few exceptions are emergency slaughter, animals slaughtered at farm for welfare reasons, wild game. Lairage period - animals must be slaughtered without undue delay, if animals are dead on arrival or in he lairage must be disposed of as animal by product.

Answer 105

In exceptional circumstances only eg wrong type of slaughterhouse, abattoir unable to slaughter. In scotland England and Wales cattle and sheep can move to another slaughterhouse only with a license issued by AHVLA or Scottish government. Animals incorrectly identified cannot leave abbatoirs. animal health must grant a license for any movement. in NI no animals can leave the slaughterhouse alive. no pigs can leave a slaughterhouse alive.

Answer 106

OV must carry out the ante mortem inspection. Meat hygiene inspector may assist the OV with some pre slaughter checks. MHI must alert OV to any abnormal animal. Must be within 24 hours of animals arriving. No more than 24 hours before slaughter. Anytime OV deems necessary.

Answer 107

Lighting, space, access, crush, isolation pen (separate drainage, avoid contaminating other animals), co operative lairage staff, equipment - stethoscope, thermometer, torch, dark coat and green wellies.

Answer 108

Best done at unloading. animals must be seen in motion and at rest. General and individual behaviour observed. General condition and state of cleanliness. Focus on any disease/ abnormality. animal welfare assessment. Pass as fit or declare as suspect.

Answer 109

OV defers slaughter of suspect animals. Must undergo detailed clinical examination to determine if fit for human consumption. FBO must hold animals in isolation pending final OV decision. Animals to have rest before slaughter if under stress. examples of suspect animals - Showing clinical signs of illness, showing clinical signs of a disease transmissible to man or animals, showing clinical signs of a disease likely to make meat unfit for human consumption eg septic metritis diarrhoea and salmonellosis, showing fatigue and or stress (OV can enforce rest period), evidence/suspicion of illegal or unauthorised substance administration - eg growth promotors.

Answer 110

Based on professional judgement, FCI, AMI, history of farmer, other information presented. Can pass for slaughter for human consumption or reject for slaughter for human consumption. If rejected animal can be : killed on welfare grounds, disposed of as animal by product, treated in lairage, or return home (scotland) if welfare not compromsied.

Answer 111

Farmers as primary food producers of food have to ensure that only clean and healthy animals are presented for slaughter. however even on farms with very high standards animals will suffer accidents or become ill. If animal welfare is compromised, emergency slaughter on the farm or in the lairage must be considered.

Answer 112

From 2006 some of the possible options that were available to the farmers in case of an animal welfare problem are limited by EU legislation. Under reg 853 not all emergency slaughtered animals can go for human consumption. Options for a farmer in case of a diseased or injured animal - veterinary treatment, if animal fit to be transported it can be sent to slaughter, if not can consider emergency slaughter and send body to abattoir for processing, or kill and dispose of as fallen stock.

Answer 113

An otherwise healthy animal that has suffered an accident that prevented its transport for welfare reasons. Fractious animals (too wild to handle), water buffalo and bison as their anatomy prevents approved stunning methods.

Answer 114

Animals suffering from a chronic condition, animals that following veterinary examination are unfit for human consumption eg systemic disease, cachexia etc. Animals with drug withdrawal period not respected. Cattle born in the UK or imported before 1st august 1996.

Answer 115

For vets - no requirement to have a certificate of competence to carry out emergency slaughter provided the animal has to be slaughtered or killed immediately for welfare reasons.

Answer 116

All animals slaughtered on farm have to be sent to the Abbatoir accompanied by a declaration completed by the farmer and his/her private veterinarian. Parts of the declaration - owner details, holding details, contact details, animal detilas: ID, breed, age sex, reason for slaughter, treatment administered by vet, slaughterhouse to receive carcase, vet details, time and date of emergency slaughter, drugs given in the last 6 months and withdrawal periods, TB restrictions, brucellosis restrictions? zoonoses / residues in meat.

Answer 117

Slaughtered and bled animals must be transported to the slaughterhouse hygienically and without delay. if the time between slaughtering and arrival at the slaughterhouse is more than two hours then the carcass must be refrigerated where climatic conditions so permit active chilling is not necessary. Removal of stomach and intestines from emergency slaughter animals is allowed but they must accompay the animal to the slaughterhouse and must be identified as belonging to the animal.

Answer 118

OV to contact producers veterinary surgeon for clarification/information, carcass declared unfit for human consumption. Very important - any bovine over 28 months of age sent as emergency slaughter requires its brain stem to be sampled in order to be tested for BSE.

Answer 119

diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animals and man. It is a limited definition as it excludes intoxications eg shellfish poisoning due to toxin not infection and shellfish are invertebrates. Some diseases are considered zoonotic but are not - malaria is not zoonotic - mosquito is vector but the reservoir concerns affected humans. Most zoonotic pathogens also cause disease in animals. Zoonotic pathogens have the ability to cause disease in more than one species. Ease of transmission of pathogen determines the significance of the disease. Environmental organisms may be considered zoonotic if animals are efficient transmitters of infection.

Answer 120

Direct- contact with infected body fluids into open wounds, inhalation of infected aerosols, ingestion of infected material - faecal material, food borne zoonoses, contamination of food or water. Indirect contact - i.e physical contact with a previously infected object or surface = a fomite. Vector- Fleas, mosquitoes, lice, ticks. Prevention by controlling the vector.

Answer 121

Those with regular animal contact - owners, handlers, farmers, abattoir staff, veterinarians. Those with decreased resistance to infection - neonates and children, elderly, immune suppressed or compromised people, pregnant women.

Answer 122

Legislation and mandatory inspection, produce loss, personnel loss, monitoring/surveillance and eradication programmes, investment in research and education, healthcare costs, difficulty in diagnosing. Public impact - morbidity and mortality, food scares and dietary change, increase legislation and consumer producer cost, political change, concerns among animal owners, disease control costs in animals, losses due to disease and costs of control can be major issue in developing world.

Answer 123

About 80% of new diseases are zoonotic. Increased research identifies new links between animals and human disease e.g mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis and Crohn's disease. Time lag between cause and effect can prevent identification of relationship. Organism must have ability to cross species barrier and opportunity to do so. Genetic mutation - confer zoonotic ability. Climate changes, farming practices, trade practices, animal and human movement, air transportation, wildlife reservoir are risk factors that increase opportunity for transfer. Re emerging /neglected zoonoses - eg influeza, west nile, echinococcus multilocularis.

Answer 124

RNA virus from the family orthomyovirus which is highly mutagenic, new strains appear by genetic re assortment, types A B and C. A subtypes, haemagglutinin - H & neuraminidise -N. (H5N1, H7N7). It is a virus carried asymptomatically by wild fowl. It affects birds, pigs, humans, horses through inhalation of the infected aerosol and causes fever, rapid onset, cough, respiratory distress, mucus and nasal discharge. treatment is via symptomatic control. severe strains: anti virals. A pandemic: new subtype to emerge which is able to infect humans causing serious illness, spreads easily and sustainably among humans - eg H5N1 in the UK. Prompt response necessary - identification of the agent, Biosecurity measures, culling of poultry at the site of the outbreak, 3km protection zone, poultry kept indoors and tested. no movement of poultry except for slaughter.

Answer 125

Caused by toxoplasma gondii. the Cat is the definitive host. feral cats/farm cats/ raw meat diets are risk factors. Oocysts shed in faeces for 3 week period after initial infection, sporulation of oocyst takes 1-5 days, sporozoites in oocyst develop to tachyzoites or bradyzoies after ingestion. Tissue cysts formed in the intermediate host in the muscle or brain. Ingestion of cysts in intermediate host by cat completes life cycle. Transmission by ingestion of sporulated oocyst from intermediate host (all mammals including humans) from faeces of infected cats, contaminated soil, unwashed vegetables/viable cysts in muscle, Transplacental to neonate. Transmission to humans via shedding cat relatively unlikely but extra care should be taken if pregnant. mostly asymptomatic but if symptomatic - fever, malaise etc. Pregnant women exposed during pregnancy - abortion, congenital defects. Control by daily litter cleaning, cook meat thoroughly, feed cooked cat food, hand washing, pregnant women avoid contact with cat litter and sheep at lambing.

Answer 126

Tapeworms or cestodes the adult is either echinococcus granulosis or E mutilocularis in dos. Larval stage; hydatic cyst in ruminants and humans. Transmission to humans is via consumption of viable eggs from dogs faeces with contaminated food or water, fomites, hand to mouth. There is slow growth of cyst, swelling and compression, anaphylactic shock if ruptures. Treatment is with surgical removal or albendazole. Prevention: deworming dogs, control of stray dogs, avoid feeding dogs with sheep offal, abattoir inspection ontrols, hygienic measures and education.

Answer 127

Caused by hookworms eg ancylostoma, A. caninum. reservoir is infected animals (dogs and cats), transmitted to humans by penetration of skin by larvae. the symptoms relate to migration of larvae through skin - itching, pain, local inflammation. children at greater risk. Control is through regular de worming, don't walk barefoot, removal of faeces.

Answer 128

Causative agent is toxocara canis (dogs) and toxocara cati (cats). Reservoir is infected animals which shed large numbers of eggs >100,000 eggs/female/day. Reactivation of latent infection in pregnant bitches results in transplacental infection - assume all puppies infected.

Answer 129

Found in cats, dogs, cattle and horses. Causative agents include fungi trichophyton spp, microsporum spp, 90% of asymptomatic cats may carry M canis. 50% of human cases of ringworm are of animal origin. Clinical signs in humans - classic circular lesion, generalised disease possible in the immune compromised. Transmission to humans is via direct contact or indirect contact with infective spores. Spores remain infective in environment for years - the circular appearance is caused by the healing of the central area as the fungi proliferate outwards. Fungus in the hair follicles causes hair loss. Lesions are red, scaly itchy and inflamed, oozing and crusted. Diagnosis is with ulvtraviolet light and culture. Treatment with topical or systemic antifungal agents. Control - clean and disinfect environment thoroughly, treat appropriately, hand hygiene.

Answer 130

Caused by burkholderia mallei - reservoir is infected equidae in africa asia central and South America. Acute and chronic forms of disease in horses. Transmission is to humans via discharges from infected horses. Entry via skin abrasions, mucous membranes or aerosols. symptoms - localised and systemic forms, cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules that ulcerate are characteristic. Control: cull affected animals. It is a notifiable disease. Melioidosis caused by B pseudomallei - an environmental agent not zoonotic

Answer 131

Causative agent is West Nile virus ( a flavivirus), found in specific locations worldwide. The reservoir is birds. Vector borne; by various species of mosquito. clinical infections can be seen in several mammals but most infections are asymptomatic. in some cases horses might manifest incoordination, weakness, partial paralysis, encephalitis, mass death in birds. No evidence of transmission between animals and humans.

Answer 132

The parasite trichinella spiralis - associated with pigs, humans and horses, rats, wild carnivores as reservoirs. Transmission is through consumption of raw/undercooked meat. symptoms include muscle pain fever and swelling of eyelids. Most common sites; diaphragm, ribs tongue and jaw. treatment is symptomatic and support. prevention through cooking of meat at least 75 degrees, pest control of rats and wild animals in pig units, hygienic measures including isolation and removal of sick individuals, inspection of meat samples: diaphragm, cold treatment (freezing) of meat.

Answer 133

Caused by coxiella burnetti, cattle sheep and goats common reservoir, animals usually asymptomatic but outbreaks of abortion may occur in late term pregnancy. Excretion of organism in urine faeces and milk, high levels in amniotic fluid, placenta, survives in environment. Transmission to humans via direct contact and inhalation of aerosols. People at risk: farmers, vets, abattoir workers, pregnant women, immunocompromised people. 50% asymptomatic. Acute signs: flu like illness, fever, malaise. Complications: pneumonia, hepatitis, myocarditis, abortion. Treatment is with doxycycline. control - avoid contact with infected tissues and fluids. isolate or eliminate sick animals. Use of PPE when handling abortion. cleaning and disinfection of abortion area. burn aborted materials and infected PPE, pasteurization of milk

Answer 134

Caused by brucella abortus in cattle. other species : b melitensis, B canis, B suis. reservoir - reproductive tract of infected animals. It causes abortion, still weak borns, placentitis and infertility in affected animals. organism shed in large amounts in foetal fluids and milk. transmission to humans via ingestion, direct contact and inhalation. Acute and chronic presentations in humans: severe flu like illness (undulant fever), osteomyelitis, arthritis, abortion. Complications include: endocarditis, hepatits, arthritis. treatment not recommended - animals should be culled. control and prevention; investigation of abortions and premature calving, elimination of infected animals, disinfection of abortion area, correct disposal of infected materials, use of PPE when handling abortion, milk pasteurisation, cattle vaccination with strain s19 in high prevalent areas.

Answer 135

Causative agent: salmonella enterica subsp enterica serovars especially S typhimurium. Reservoir - intestinal tract of all animals. shedding by subclinical and clinical cases. Transmission is faecal oral. Environmental contamination and survival. clinical cases are most common in cattle, poultry are subclinical. In human disease it causes enteritis, fever, septicaemia. infection is self limiting but can be treated with antibiotics if necessary, maintain good environmental hygiene, wash hands after handling animals, avoid reptiles as pets for children

Answer 136

Caused by a spirochete borrelia burgdorferi in mainly deer. transmission is through the bite of a tick ixodes ricinus. The life cycle of the tick and borrelia spp are closely linked. Tick must stay attached for 24-72 hours. Animals manifest unspecific symptoms including fever, lethargy, lameness, anorexia. Humans: erythema migrans (red expanding skin reaction), flu like symptoms with fever, malaise, headache. Days to weeks: widespread EM lesions, neurological, meningitis, cranial nerve damage and facia paralysis and chronic arthritis. Treatment with antibioticcs. Prevent tick attachment to large mammals and humans. control undergrowth around footpaths. inspect and treat livestock for ticks.

Answer 137

The concept that food is produced in a sustainable way, accessible to all, available at all times, wholesome (balanced diet, nutritious and safe).

Answer 138

The concept that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and or eaten according to its intended use. Food safety is a major concern of all food industries. Food borne illness present major problems both in health and economic terms. Legislation requires all food businesses to demonstrate a commitment to food safety through an appropriate management strategy consisting of comprehensive control procedures - a food safety strategy to ensure the production of and trading in safe food of high quality.

Answer 139

A mandatory regulatory activity of enforcement by national or local authorities to provide consumer protection and ensure that all foods during production, handling, storage, processing and distribution are safe, wholesome and fit for human consumption; conform to safety and quality requirements and are honestly and accurately labelled as prescribed by law.

Answer 140

Food quality means that a product or service is of a defined characteristic and is fit for its intended purpose. Quality is very important issue for consumers and food producers of goods and services: expectation, safety.

Answer 141

Hazard, analysis, critical, control, point. A system which identifies evaluates and controls hazards which are significant for food safety. Internationally recognised as the most effective way to maximise food safety. regulation EC 852 - food business operators shall put in place implement and maintain a permanent procedure or procedures based on the HACCP principles.

Answer 142

Drawbacks of traditional methods - control is reactive, expertise needed to interpret results, testing can be slow, sample testing is expensive, controls are remote, not completed by workers doing the job on the line, limited number of samples can be assessed, not all potential hazards taken into account. Control is transferred from end product testing to monitoring at critical control points on the production line with a structured preventative system. The operation is controlled by operatives working on the production line and involve all level of staff. Control is cheap and forms part of a due diligence defence. Traditional MI is aimed at combating classical foodborne disease e.g tuberculosis, cystercercosis. Traditional MI fails to identify contamination of foods with micro organisms e.g campylobacter, salmonella or E. coli.

Answer 143

Structure and maintenance, water quality, cleaning, pest control, personal health and hgiene, training, temperature controls, suppliers and raw materials, waste and ABP management, wrapping and packing, transport hygiene, traceability and recall, calibration, document controls.

Answer 144

1. Conduct a Hazard analysis 2. Determine the critical control points 3. Establish critical limits 4. Establish a monitoring system 5. Establish a corrective action system 6. Establish verification system 7. Establish documents concerning all procedures and records.

Answer 145

Must be reasonably foreseeable hazards. Consider shift in hazards of public health significance. examples of plant specificity. Describe hazards (Presence, introduction, growth, survival). Conduct risk analysis to determine which hazards are of such a nature that their prevention, elimination or reduction to acceptable levels is essential to the production of safe food. Identify control measures.

Answer 146

Action or activity that can be used to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level. Identify process controls at each step.

Answer 147

A process consisting of three interconnected components; Risk assessment, risk management, risk communication. Risk assessment; release assessment, exposure assessment, consequence assessment, risk estimation.

Answer 148

Hazard identification and definition based on: scientific background, expert opinions. Hazard characterization - more in depth hazard definition, dose response assessment. Exposure assessment - the qualitative and or quantitative evaluation of the likely intake of biological chemical and physical agents via food as well as exposures from other sources if relevent. risk attribution - source( from meat products), reservoir (animals reservoir of infetion), exposure (from the environment or consumer behaviour). Risk characterisation - detailed description of the risk (nature and magnitude). Qualitative risk assessment - a risk assessment based on data which while forming an inadequate basis for numerical risk estimations , permits risk ranking or separation into descriptive categories of risk. Quantitative risk assessment - A risk assessment that provides numerical expressions of risk and indication of the attendant uncertainties.

Answer 149

risk is a function of the probability of an adverse health effect and the severity of that effect consequential to a hazard. Risk has tow independent components: impact, likelihood. Risk (X) = impact (Z) + likelihood (Y).

Answer 150

High impact = potentially catastrophic effect or accident eg death, hospitalization etc. Low impact - only minor effect or first aid e.g very mild symptoms of disease. Medium impact = simply not the other two e.g symptoms of disease with rest at home etc. Impact factors: scientific background.

Answer 151

high likelihood - virtually certain to occur Low likelihood - small chance of occurring, likely to occur only in the long term. Medium likelihood - simply not the other two. likelihood factors - epidemiology, experience, knowledge of the process, people site.

Answer 152

TRAP Terminate: stop activity where it is too risky and not part of core activities. Reduce: either impact or likelihood orboth. Accept: this is what we are Pass on : outsource or insure.

Answer 153

The prerequisites to an effective risk management are; validity, reliability, comparibility. the process of weighing policy alternatives in consultation with interested parties, considering risk assessment and other legitimate factors to select the most appropriate preventative and control options.

Answer 154

The interactive exchange of information and opinion throughout the risk analysis process as regards hazards and risks, risk related factors and risk perceptions, among all interested parties, including the explanation of the risk assessment findings and the basis of risk management decisions.

Answer 155

The step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level. EG in an abattoir - examples of CCPS include, intake of animals, FBO carcase quality control point, temperature controls in chillers.

Answer 156

the legislation requires FBOs to adopt a HACCP based system to ensure admitted animals are: properly identified, accompanied by FCI, not from a restricted area or holding, clean, Healthy as far as FBO can judge, and in a satisfactory state of welfare.

Answer 157

Critical limits are established to determine whether a CCP remains in controls. If a critical limit is exceeded or violated, the products affected are deemed to be potentially unsafe. Must meet minimum legal requirements. Monitoring at CCPs - a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess whether a CCP is under control or to assess whether control measures are operating as intended.

Answer 158

Scheduled minimum annually. Following internal changes (line alteration, altered pre requisite programme etc), following external changes (new legislation, new information on hazards, following external audit etc.

Answer 159

Systematic, independent and documented process for obtaining audit evidence and evaluating it objectively to determine the extent to which audit criteria are fulfiled. As defined by regulation 882/2004 - systematic and independent examination to determine whether activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives. Auditing is about assessing an organisations compliance against a set standard. Although non conformity or non compliance ma y be found this is not the primary objective of an audit. The compliance audit establish wether what is actually done conforms to what is said to be done.

Answer 160

They promote continuous business imrpovement, no score rating, aimed at finding strengths and weakensses, applicable to all areas of business, as opposed to NEGATIVE - promotes conformance with a standard, fear of audits and their results, score based, aimed at finding weaknesses

Answer 161

This is the audit which an organisation carries out on itself and plays a vital part in ensuring that the quality management system is effective. internal audits can provide a line of communication throughout the company ad be a formal outlet for improvement and suggestions. Internal audits may be undertaken by trained member of an organisations own staff or by hired professional auditors. the main purpose of first party audits are to determine if the management system audited continues to conform to the requirements, to ensure the management system has been effectively implemented and maintained, to review the efficiency and effectiveness of its processes, To identify opportunities for improvement within the same organization.

Answer 162

A second arty audit is an audit carried out by one Organization on another for example carried out by a customer on their supplier. The main purpose is to evaluate the degree of conformance to customer product and service requirements, to evaluate the effectiveness of the suppliers food safety management system, to identify opportunities for improvement of a supplier.

Answer 163

This is carried out by an independent organisation for example by FSA, BRC, UKAS. The main purpose is to provide objective evidence of conformance by an independent party with the requirements of a standard. to provide objective evidence of the degree of effectiveness of a standard by an independent party, to identify opportunities for improvement.

Answer 164

Organization provides safe food when it is prepared and eaten according to its intended use. Consistently meet the organizations food safety policy and objectives, ensure the integrated activities and elements of a food safety management system are working towards a set of mutually agreed and understood objectives, evaluate the overall effectiveness of the organisations food safety management, provide a basis for continual improvement, employees demonstrate a quality attitude towards food safety, The primary purpose of a food safety management system is to enable the transition from a reactive to a proactive preventative approach, reduces waste and cost.

Answer 165

United Kingdom accreditation service is the sole national accreditation body recognised by government to assess organisations that provide certification, testing, inspection services. Accreditation by UKAS demonstrates the competence, impartiality and performance capability of these evaluators. Accreditation is the formal recognition by an accreditation authority to the technical and organisational competence of conformity assessment body to carry out a specific service.

Answer 166

The procedure by which a third party gives written assurance that a product, process, system or person conforms to specified requirements. Performed by UKAS accredited certification bodies.

Answer 167

Specifies requirements for a food safety management system where an Organization in the food chain needs to demonstrate its ability to control food safety hazards in order to ensure that food is safe at the time of human consumption. Applicable to all organisations involved in any aspect of the food chain and want to implement systems that consistently provide safe products. Is a voluntary standard.

Answer 168

Food assurance scheme which covers production standards on safety, hygiene, animal welfare and the environment. sets standards that apply to farms and to different links in the the UK food chain. non Profit organization run by an independent board. There are red tractor assurance for arable, fruit, veg, chicken, pig, milk, beef and lamb, pork

Answer 169

Ethical conduct - the foundation of professionalism, the role of the auditor is one of trust, integrity, confidentiality and discretion. Fair presentation - the obligation to report truthfully and accurately audit findings audit conclusions and audit reports that reflect truthfull. Due professional care - application of diligence and judgement in auditing. Auditors exercise care in accordance with the importance of the task they perform and the confidence placed in them by audit clients and other interested parties. Having the necessary competence is an important factor. Independence - auditors are independent of the activity being audited and free from bias. Evidence based approach - audit evidence is verifiable. Based on samples of the information available since an audit is conducted during a finite period of time with finite resources.

Answer 170

Audit preparation, opening meeting, on site visit, document review, closing meeting, prepare an audit report, audit follow up. Audit preparation - determine organisations goals and objectives, conflicts of interest and scope of the audit, review audit standards, obtain and review the organizations documentation, product and operational performance records, understand the FSMS framework, determine product realisation processes, develop an audit plan and check lists, communication.

Answer 171

Introductions, confirmation of the objectives, scope and criteria of audit, confidentiality statement/sample, confirmation of audit plan, outline the audit process and approach, explain the reporting method, confirmation of availability and roles of guidelines, provide any clarifications which may be required.

Answer 172

Qualitative or quantitative information records or statements of fact pertaining to the safety of the product or service, to the existence and implementation of a food safety management system requirement which is based on observation, measurement or test and which can be independently verified. Gathering by observation - people, product and service, processes, information systems. questions - open, closed, hypthetical, obvious, answered.

Answer 173

The absence of or the failure to implement and maintain one or more FSMS requirements or a situation which would on the basis of available objective evidence raise significant doubt as to the safety of the product the Organisation is supplying. A non conformity exists where there is evidence of a failure to comply with a requirement of a product or servie, customer requirement, statutory and regulatory requirement, process and procedure, food safety management system requirement. What are the typical root causes of non conformities - organisation structure, management system standard, education and training, resources, adherence to defined processes and procedures, management leadership and support.

Answer 174

Major non conformity: total breakdown or absence of objective evidence to satisfy one or more FSMS requirements or a situation which would raise significant doubt as to the safety of the product. Minor non conformity: defined and documented system which generally satisfies one or more FSMS requirements or a situation which would raise concern as to the potential safety of the product. Observation for improvement - is a remark by an auditor as to improve the overall effectiveness and or efficiency of the organizations FSMS.

Answer 175

The cleaning schedule: what - are all areas and equipment covered?, how - rinse, detergent, disinfectant, rise? When - frequency, who - cleaners? clear instruction on dilution, use, storage? cleaning checklists, results of reality check, records on corrective actions taken, results of micro test on surfaces (listeria), other verification techniques.

Answer 176

Water policy: water source, water distribution plan, sampling programme. Basic testing requirements - yearly and monthly tests, total viable count at 22 degrees after 72 hours. total viable count at 37 degrees after 28 hours, coliform bacteria (total), E. coli, enterococci, clostridium perfringens (including spores), cryptosporidium, legionella. guideline figures are TVC at 22 degrees - up to 100 per ml, TVC at 37 degrees after 48 hours - up to 20 per ml. Coliform bacteria - expected levels are less than 1 per 100ml. If levels are above 3 per 100ml of water this may indicate contamination in the water distribution system and urgent action must be taken. E. coli - if detected in water this is evidence of contamination by animal or human faeces and urgent action must be taken - same with enterococci and clostridium perfringens.

Answer 177

Bait plan, pest control schedule, pest control checklist and records, COSHH, external contractor qualification, what pests are covered, results of reality check, records on corrective actions taken.

Answer 178

Red meat including large game <8

Answer 179

Purpose - to verbally present the audit teams findings and conclusions and to agree if appropriate on the time period for the auditee to present a corrective action plan. The audit team lead auditor should attend and the auditors who observed. Re statement of audit objectives, scope and criteria, representative sample statement/confidentiality, aduit conclusion - executive summary,audit findings - detail. Follow up activities, obtaining ownership and commitment, reporting, questions.

Answer 180

The principal purpose of post mortem inspection is to supplement ante mortem inspection and to detect; Disease of public health significance, diseases of animal health significance, residues or contaminants in excess of the levels allowed by legislation, non compliance with microbiological criteria, other factors which might require the meat to be declared unfit for human consumption or restrictions to be placed on its use. Special attention should be taken in the case of animals having undergone emergency slaughter. Visible lesions that are relevant to animal welfare such as beating or long standing untreated injuries.

Answer 181

Inspect all carcases and accompanying offal. Keep correlation of carcases and offal at all times. must be carried out without undue delay after slaughter. Avoid contaminating meat - minimal handling. Speed of line and number of inspection staff must allow for PMI and recording. Particular attention on zoonoses and notifiable diseases.

Answer 182

OV - technical team leader of the inspection team at abattoirs, 200 hours of practical training, has the final responsibility to diagnose disease and take final decisions concerning meat. Meat hygiene inspectors / official auxilliaries - training in meat inspection, detects abnormalities. the OV need not to be present at all times during post mortem inspection if an MHI carries out post mortem inspection and puts aside abnormal meat with uncommonly occurring conditions. NB carcases of animals from emergency slaughter animals must be inspected by the OV.

Answer 183

AMI - lameness, mastitis, joint lesions, tumour/papillomas, abscess PMI - fasciolasis, kidney lesions, pleurisy, pneumonia, abscess, lung lesions.

Answer 184

LAmeness, pneumonia, foot rot, skin condition, eye condition. PMI - c tennuicollis, fascioliasis, coontamination, pleurisy/pneumonia, abscess

Answer 185

AMI - lameness, hernia, fighting wound, abnormal breathing, coughing. PMI - milk spot, septicaemia, toxaemia, abscess, metritis, nephritis.

Answer 186

Cattle sarcocystis - uncommon - inform OV. Higher incidence in older cattle. Depending on degree of infestation - partial or total rejection. Ovine caseous lymphadenitis - Uncommon - inform OV for diff dx. Increasing incidence. 1% of condemnations.

Answer 187

Until PMI completed, all parts of a slaughtered animal must remain identifiable as belonging to a given carcase, must not come into contact with any other carcase or offal, must not be washed. FBO must ensure dressing of carcase does not ihinder inspection, no carcase cut up until inspected, no destroying evidence of disease, no body part except hide/skin removed from premises till PMI completed except penis if not for HC and head if no part for HC (in sheep/goats)

Answer 188

Skinning - all carcases and body parts intended for human consumption must be completely skinned. Exceptions; pigs (hair removed), and feet of sheep/goats/bovines. Spleen - completely removed (whole), presented correlated to carcases. Specified risk material in sheep. Delayed uteri removal - to allow grading of cows/heifers. Must be removed before release for HC.

Answer 189

Space and lighting, access to top of carcases: platforms. Presentation of offal: exposed eg kidneys & correlation. Splitting of carcases: horses, bovines < 4 weeks. OV can allow derogation (pigs) but can request any Carcase or head to be split if necessary to inspect.

Answer 190

Visual, palpation, or incision. Avoid contamination - minimal handling.

Answer 191

Cut surfaces of bone and muscle, carcase exterior, pleura and diaphragm should be observed: condition, efficiency of bleeding/colour/evidence of bruising, cleanliness/contamination, odours. If neecessary, palpation and incision of parts, e.g muscle for C bovis. Thoracic and abdominal cavities inspected for: inflammation, abscesses, actinobacillosis or tuberculosis. Lymph nodes of a cattle carcase to be observed: superficial inguinal, external and internal iliac, renal lymph nodes.

Answer 192

From 1st june 2014 in the UK, carcases and offal of pigs of all ages are to undergo visual inspection procedures only. Further inspection procedures (palpation and incision) can be carried out when one of the following indicates a risk to public health, animal health or animal welfare: Checks on the FCI, checks on any other data from the holding of provenance, ante mortem or post mortem findings. Further inspection can also be carried out if gathering of evidence is required for enforcement purposes e.g welfare investigation.

Answer 193

1. No pathologies or abnormalities detected. Pass meat as fit for HC. Health mark applied. 2. Local pathologies/abnormalities detected: partially unfit for human consumption. Part of carcase/offal disposed off. Rest health marked. 3. Generalised conditoion: totally unfit for human consumption. Health mark must not be applied. FO asked to voluntary surrender. If total rejection= all body parts including blood and hide must be disposed of. 4. Detain meat for further examination - Under control of OV, correlation essential, off line detention facilities.

Answer 194

Meat derives from animals that have not undergone AMI or PMI or which are dead before slaughter, sitllborn or slaughter under 7 days of age, affected by a generalised disease (septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia or viraemia) or are emaciated. Meat indicates: pathophysiological changes, anomalies in consistency, insufficient bleeding except for wild game, organoleptic anomalies in particular a pronounced sexual odour, shows parasitic infection, positive sampling for BSE, trichinella, residues/contaminants sampling, meat results from the trimming of sticking points, contains foreign bodies (except bullet for wild game), shows soiling, faecal or other contamination, in the opinion of the OV it may constitute a risk to public or animal health and is for any other reason not suitable for human consumption.

Answer 195

It is applied directly on red meat carcases and game meat including carcases of animals from emergency slaughter at the farm. Indicates that the meat is fit for human consumption. The health mark shape and size is oval and atleast 6.5cm wide and 4.5 cm high. It must contain the country of origin, the plants approval number, the community mark. Applied by OV/MHI only at slaughterhouses. If the carcase is cut into half quarters or wholesale cuts each part bears a health mark, up to 6 marks may be required. The slaughterhouse should inform the OV/MHI as to how many cuts will be made if they want minimal health marking. It should be applied at the time of PMI, food safe dye used, can be hot branded. Blurred health marks are unacceptable - can apply only one at PMI, complete health marking once carcase is dry (in chill).

Answer 196

If animal or carcase did not pass AMI or PMI. Carcases presented for inspection with visible contamination or gross pathology. Carcases produced in a slaughterhouse in which the water supply is found to be contaminated and a risk to public health exists, inadequate facilities for inspection: risk that a carcase with visible contamination or gross pathology will be health marked, Carcases suffering from a notifiable disease, meat declared unfit.

Answer 197

It must be kept in secure lockable facilities when not in use. anyone possessing or using health mark equipment without the authority of the OV is committing an offence. To prevent fraudulent use: all stamps recorded in the FSA daybook, time of issue , number of HM, time stamps returned. OV responsible for the security of the HM.

Answer 198

Applied on wrapping or packaging of poultry meat, retail cuts of red meat, other foods of animal origin. Indicates that the meat has been produced in an approved premises in accordance with legislation. Identification mark shape and size: oval shape, no requirement of size As long as legible and characters decipherable. Must contain the country of origin, plant approval number, community mark. Applied by the FBO.

Answer 199

Meat means edble parts of domestic bovine, porcine, ovine, caprine animals, domestic solipeds, poultry, rabbits, farmed game and wild game. Carcass means a body of an animal after slaughtering and dressing. Offal means fresh meat other than the carcass including the viscera and blood. viscera means the organs of the thoracic abdominal and pelvic cavities as well as the trachea and oesophagus.

Answer 200

Muscle pH=7.2. Anaerobic glycolysis starts and lactic acid is produced. the Ca2+ pump is unbalanced. Muscles start stiffening as proteins lock. Glycogen turns into lactic acid, pH falls to around 5.5. Actin and myosin form actomysin bond. After 24 hours rigor gradually disappears. Before rigor mortis - pH 7.2, dark surface colour, absence of fluid, sticky on mincing, high electrical resistance, slow penetration of salts/sugars. After rigor mortis - low pH 5.5-5.8. Light colour, exudes fluid, not sticky on mincing, low electrical resistance, rapid penetration of salts and sugars.

Answer 201

Pork 8 hours final ph 5.6-5.8 Chicken 1.5 hours Beef 18-25 hours final pH 5.5-5.8. Lamb - 16 hours, final pH 5.9-6.2

Answer 202

Ante mortem - physical stress/fatigue and rest pre slaughter, health status, genetics, exercise training. Post mortem : time/temperature chilling, hot boning, carcass suspension, electrical stimulation.

Answer 203

Caused by chronic pre slaughter stress e.g transport, disease, diet etc. AM stress - low glycogen > high pH > 6.2 and above. Advanced spoilage, same nutritive value but tough and tasteless. High pH > oxygen debt > dark meat (static muscle haemoglobin) > high pH> poor quality. Mainly longissimus dorsi or whole carcase. Used for manufacturing puroses, loss of value.

Answer 204

Seen in all species but most common in pigs. Acute stress - rapid glycolysis at 40-42 degrees C. rapid fall in pH (5.5 reached in 1 hour). Changes in muscle proteins (loss of water binding) protein changes = excessive drip = increased weight loss. Refractive index changes = pale. Tougher on cooking. Downgrading or condemnation, loss of value.

Answer 205

Myoglobin oxygenated = blooming. DFD turgid muscle and poor penetration of oxygen. Paleness is caused by increased scattering of light within the meat. Paleness inversely proportional to the pH - as pH declines increased paleness.

Answer 206

Jaundice, diet (eg fish powder), muscle degeneration, myopathies (vitamin E, heavy metals), melanosis, melanoma, gangrene, bruising and haemorrhages, injection sites, parasites. The colour of fat depends on the species - sheep - white, hard, Pig - white, softer, Horse - yellow, oily, Cattle - cream/yellow, firm. Age - older cows - yellower (accumulated carotene), feeding - barley beef - pure white, grass beef - yellower, Cod liver oil - orange (pigs).

Answer 207

``` Species - e.g goat, mutton. Sexual odours and boar taint. Uraemia Abscess Diet eg fish, turnip, cod liver oil Gangrene (black leg) Drugs, abnormal metabolism eg acetonaemia, chetosis Absorption of odours (fat). ```

Answer 208

To induce immediate insensibility b y administering a severe blow to the skull of the animal. The animal must then remain unconscious until it dies as a result of bleeding.

Answer 209

When a sharp heavy blow is applied to the skull it produces a rapid acceleration of the head causing the brain to impact against the inside of the skull. there is a disruption of the normal electrical activity resulting from a sudden massive increase in intra cranial pressure, followed by an equally sudden drop in pressure. The consequent damage to the nerves and blood vessels causes brain dysfunction and destruction and impaired blood circulation.

Answer 210

The initial effect on the animal is immediate insensibility accompanied by what is known as tonic activity. the animal collapses stops breathing and becomes rigid with its head extended and its hind legs flexed towards the abdomen. this period of rigidity normally lasts for 10-20 seconds following stunning. The forelegs may be flexed initially then gradually straighten out. This tonic activity is followed by a period of involuntary kicking movements which gradually subside. If an animal immediately shows paddling or kicking movements on collapse, it is almost certain that it has not been effectively stunned and it should be re stunned immediately.

Answer 211

The animal collapses, no rhythmic breathing, fixed glazing expression in the eyes, no corneal reflex, relaxed jaw, tongue hanging out.

Answer 212

They have a mushroom headed bolt which impacts with the skull but does not enter the brain. this type of stunner causes insensibility due to concussive forces alone. It is only recommended for use on cattle aged between 8 and 30 months. Non penetrative stunners are always trigger fired.

Answer 213

They range from 1.2 grains for small animals such as lambs to 3.0-4.0 grain for large cattle and mature bulls.

Answer 214

Passive head restrains such as the fixed shelf are fitted at the front of the stunning box, these prevent the animal from lowering its head but do not hold the head fast or involve any moving parts. the performance of this type of device is improved if used in conjunction with a tail push which prevents the animal moving backwards. Passive head restraints are recommended as they improve stunning accuracy without increasing stress on the animal. Active head restrains are of two types. The first is the neck yoke system consisting of one or two vertical bars which grips the animals neck within the stunning box. The bars then retract against the sides of the box when not in use.

Answer 215

For penetrative captive bolt - In the middle of the forehead at the crossing point of two imaginary lines drawn between the eyes and the centre of the base of the opposite horns. For non penetrative captive bolt - a non penetrative stunner should be positioned approx 20 mm above the position used for a penetrative captive bolt and the animal must be bled within 30 seconds. The use of non penetrative concussion stunners is not recommended for cattle of less than 8 months of age, for mature stock bulls or for aged cows.

Answer 216

In deer the brain is situated high in the head. The ideal point for stunning is in the middle of the forehead at the crossing point of two imaginary lines drawn from the eyes to the tops of opposite ears. In stags this spot is found between or in some cases just behind the antlers.

Answer 217

The brain is situated high in the head. The ideal site for stunning is in the middle of the forehead. Take two imaginary lines drawn from the eyes to the opposite ears stun the animal approximately 10mm above the point where they cross. The muzzle of the stunner should be tilted, if necessary so that the bolt is directed through the upper brain towards the brainstem.

Answer 218

The correct position for stunning sheep depends on whether the animal is polled or horned. For polled sheep the muzzle of the stunner should be placed on the highest point of the head and on midline aiming straight down. For horned sheep the muzzle of the stunner should be placed on the midline behind the ridge between the horns and aimed towards the base of the tongue.

Answer 219

All goats should be treated as though they have horns . therefore the muzzle of the stunner should be placed behind the bony mass on the midline and aimed towards the base of the gonue. the reason for this is that the large bony mass on top of the skull will absorb much of the energy from the bolt and may prevent bolt penetration through to the brain cavity.

Answer 220

Target area very small. The brain lies deep in the head with a mass of sinuses lying between the frontal bone and the brain cavity. Captive bolt stunners can be used on most pigs but it is recommended that the heaviest cartridge available for the equipment is used and the animal is either bled or pithed immediately to ensure rapid death. The site is 20mm above eye level on the midline of the forehead. Adult pigs should where possible be stunned electrically or destroyed by use of a free bullet humane killer or shotgun.

Answer 221

To prevent risk of recovery animals must be bled as soon as possible after stunning ideally whilst still in the tonic phase. bleeding involves severing the carotid arteries and jugular veins or the blood vessels from which they arise. the animal then dies from loss of blood. it is important that all major blood vessels are severed. If one carotid only is cut then the animal may take over a minute to die.

Answer 222

Sticking should be carried out by an incision made with a sharp knife in the jugular furrow at the base of the neck, the knife being directed towards the entrance of the chest to sever all the major blood vessels arising from the heart. In the interest of hygiene two knives should be used. In sheep and goats an incision may be made with a knife not less than 120mm long close to the head severing both carotid arteries and both jugular veins i.e with a cut made across the throat. A knife with a sharp blade not less than 120mm long should be inserted in the midline of the neck at the depression in front of the breast bone for pigs. When penetration has been made the knife handle should be lowered so that the blade is in a near vertical position and pushed upward to sever all the major blood vessels.

Answer 223

A maximum stun to stick interval of 15 seconds is recommended for all species int he field. In an abbatoir all pigs sheep and goats should also be stuck within 15 seconds. On the majority of cattle lines the maximum stun to stick interval of 60 seconds for the penetrative captive bolt and 30 seconds for non penetrative captive bolt are acceptable. When stunning cattle it is essential that equipment is well maintained and that stunning is carried out accurately using the correct cartridge to ensure animals are effectively and irreversibly stunned.

Answer 224

Physical destruction of the brain to ensure rapid death following captive bolt stunning no longer practised in UK slaughter houses. BUT is effective and legitimate means of ensuring rapid death of animals not destined for human or animal consumption eg casualties, emergencies or those not destroyed during disease control operations. Pithing involves inserting a flexible wire or polypropylene rod through the hole in the head made by the captive bolt then thrust it towards the tail, through the brain to the level of the brainstem and if it is long enough into the spinal cord.

Answer 225

To enable accurate placement and maintain contact the fork tong should only be used when stunning animals held in a restrainer. The electrodes are usually longer than those found on scissor tongs to allow for variation in the size of animals, and are connected to a single handle by insulated arms.

Answer 226

As well as the major blood vessels supplying the brain cattle and calves have additional connections from the vertebral artery. these blood vessels lie close to and above the spinal cord and will continue to supply blood directly to the brain even if the main carotid arteries of the neck are cut, provided some cardiac output is maintained. therefore it is important to stick cattle and calves close to the heart at the brachiocephalic trunk. sticking should be carried out by an incision made with a sharp knife in the jugular furrow at the base of the neck, the knife being directed towards the entrance to the chest to sever the major blood vessels close to the heart. In the interest of good hygiene, two knives should be used.

Answer 227

For a rapid bleed out it is recommended that sheep and goats be stuck close to the heart in a manner similar to pigs. sticking may be done by making a deep transverse cut across the throat close to the head to sever the four major blood vessels in the neck. This is only acceptable in sheep and goats because there is no direct blood supply from the vertebral artery to the brain.

Answer 228

The knife should be inserted in the midline of the neck at the depression in front of the breastbone. The skin should be raised with the point of the knife using light pressure and a lifting movement. when penetration has been made the knife handle should be lowered so that the blade is pointing towards the tail of the animal and pushed upwards to sever all the major blood vessels which arise from the heart.

Answer 229

Carbon dioxide partly acts by displacing oxygen so that the brain cannot function and brain death ensues. however carbon dioxide also has a direct anaesthetic effect which results in loss of consciousness more quickly than with some other low oxygen gas mixtures such as argon and nitrogen mixtures.

Answer 230

Only new, group loading systems, which drop into a high level of carbon dioxide at the first stage should be considered. Older systems do not always provide a high gas concentration at the first stop. this means pigs will be exposed to gas at levels which will cause discomfort but not rapid unconsciousness. newer systems use a series of automatic gates with pressure sensors to prevent crushing, to move the pigs forward then load them into the gas system. this avoids the need for handling by staff and also the need for handling aids. the gas machine consists of a number of gondolas which rotate down into a chamber and then rotate up to the top to release the stunned animals.

Answer 231

no more than 30 seconds must elapse after a pig has entered the chamber before it is in a gas concentration of 85% or more.Each part of the cycle should be no more than 25 seconds. Uk law requires pigs are not removed from the system until they are dead or irrecoverably stunned. to ensure animals cannot return to consciousness a dwell time of two and a half minutes is required. it is important that pigs show no corneal reflex after exiting the system. If pigs do not have sufficient dwell time they will start to recover when they exit the machine with the risk that they may be bled whilst conscious.

Answer 232

No rhythmic breathing - agonal breathing may be seen. Recumbency - the animal carcase should be relaxed with the jaw open and tongue may be hanging out. No voluntary movements - an unconscious or dead animal can still display random or uncoordinated movements. Pink prick - in the nose should not produce a reaction. corneal reflex - should not be present or suggests system not working.

Answer 233

in beef and lambs muscles, pH must be below 6.2 before chilling. the effect of low temperature on chemical reactions and membrane transport. high concentration of Calcium ions in myofibrils = muscle contraction. Preventative measures with electrical stimulation, pre chilling techniques: temperature not to fall below 10 degrees C within 12 hour from slaughter. Carcase temperature should half every 8 hours.

Answer 234

Electrical currents are pulsed through meat. Electrode in the neck and nose earthed on overhead rail. Stimulates the muscle to contract = glycogen/ATP used up = pH falls. Speeds up rigor, meat ages faster. The benefits are - accelerates tenderness and reduces ageing times. Reduces storage times and weight loss. Avoids cold and thaw shortening. Allows rapid chilling. Promotes better flavour and colour. Allows hot boning = rapid chilling of cuts.

Answer 235

advantages - more efficient and quicker refrigeration of meat, reduced evaporative weight loss (up to 1%), less dripping in vac pack, better colour. Disadvantages - synchronize slaughter and boning, fat difficult to trim, high hygiene standards, electrical stimulation required.

Answer 236

Stretching - tenderising. Shortening - toughing. Meat is suspended from hook in obturator foramen. Limb relaxed, muscles do not shorten. Suspended within 90 minutes of slaughter. minimum of 24 hours. Accelerates tenderness by 3 weeks at 2 degrees C. The effect of Tender stretch hanging varies with cut and carcass quality.

Answer 237

It is influenced by electro static charge of proteins. At low pH proteins fails to attract water. PSE meat can release considerable drip. DFD meat can become turgid. with falling pH, the fibrillar structure shrinks and water moves to the sarcoplasm. Water is freely mobile but is kept inside the still intact cellular membrane. Water loss 16% at 18 days.

Answer 238

The process of meat maturation that occurs through the action of endogenous enzymes; beef - 2 weeks, veal - 1 week, sheep 4days, pork 2-4 days, poultry 8 hours, turkey 12 hours. Factors affecting ageing include conditioning, electrical stimulation, pelvic suspension, storage temperature/freezing, packaging.

Answer 239

Tenderness - amount and chemical nature of connective tissue/fat in the muscle (breed, age, sex, diet, activity etc). The amount of shortening during rigor mortis, the extent of meat ageing and conditioning, water holding capacity, AM and PM injections. Succulence and juiciness affected by fat content and the amount of water left in cooked meat. Over lean carcasses can fail to self baste. cooking type affects flavour & succulence and depends on the meat cut, breed and diet too.

Answer 240

That the milk is tendered in accordance with the rules of first milk. That the milk satisfies all legislative requirements. That the milk has no abnormal smell taste or appearance That the milk has butterfat content of not less than 3%, has a protein content of not less than 2.75%, has no measurable presence of antibiotic residues in the milk, the freezing point depression is not less than 0.509%,, bactoscan count does not exceed 200,00ml, somatic cell count does not exceed 400,000/ml, maximum temperature of the milk does not exceed 5 degrees C, milk is farm assured in accordance with ADF.

Answer 241

This is defined as the heating of every particle of milk to a specific temperature for a specified period of time without allowing recontamination of that milk or milk product during the heat treatment process. Pasteurization of milk is performed for two main reasons; public health - to make milk and milk products safe for human consumption by destroying all bacteria that may be harmful to health, improved keeping quality - to improve the keeping quality of milk and milk products. pasteurization can destroy some undesirable enzymes and many spoilage bacteria. Shelf life can be extended to 7,10,14 or up to 16 days.

Answer 242

based on requirements for the most heat resistent pathogen found in milk - coxiella burnetti (Q fever). To ensure destruction of all pathogenic micro organisms, time and temperature combinations of the pasteurization process are highly regulated. Vat pasteurisation - 63 degrees C for not less than 30 minutes. High temperature short time HTST - 72 degrees for not less than 15 seconds.

Answer 243

The batch method uses a vat pasteurizer which consists of a jacketed vat surrounded by either circulating water, steam or heating coils of water or steam. In the Vat, the milk is heated and held throughout the holding period while being agitated. The milk may be cooled in the vat or removed hot after the holding time is completed for every particle. This method has very little use for liquid milk but is use extensively in ice cream as well as cheese, yoghurt and buttermilk.

Answer 244

the continuous method has several advantages over the vat method, the most important being time and energy saving. for most continuous processing a high temperature short time HTST pasteurizer is used using a plate heat exchanger. Cold raw milk at 4 degrees is drawn into the pasteurizer where it is warmed to approx 60 degrees C by heat given up by hot pasteurized milk flowing in a counter current direction on the opposite side of the heat exchanger. The raw milk is then forced through the heater section where hot water on opposite sides of the plates heats the milk to a temperature of at least 72 degrees. the milk then passes onto the holding section where it is kept at 72 degrees for at least 16 secs. The pasteuriser contains a flow diversion device which is an automatic safety device that is capable of automatically diverting the flow of any milk which has not reached a temperature of at least 72 degrees C. the warm milk passes through the cooling section where it is cooled to 4 degrees C or below then on to a storage tank prior to packaging.

Answer 245

Raw milk contains enzyme alkaline phosphatase which is destroyed by pasteurisation. So pasteurised milk should have a negative reaction for phosphattase, and this is used as a test for efficient pasteurisation. Another milk enzyme, peroxidase, is denatured at 78 degrees C and thus HTST milk is usually peroxidase positive. Plate counts and coliform numbers - usually indicates poor plant hygiene and cleanliness. extraneous water in the milk - associated with contamination of the milk with water & freezing point depression. Chemical composition - butterfat and solids not fat content. Taints - usually by feedstuffs or chemicals used in the processing plants eg cleaners, sterilisers. Bitty cream - looks like fat globules caused by bacillus cereus, usually indicates problems with disinfection of the plant. Milk MUST b e phosphatase negative, peroxidase positive, with a low plate cunt test and low coliform test.

Answer 246

while pasteurization effectively eliminates potential pathogenic micro organisms it is not sufficient to inactivate the thermoresistant spores in milk. the term sterilization refers to the complete elimination of all micr organisms. Milk can be made commercially sterile by subjecting it to temperatures in excess of 100C and packaging it in air tight containers. The milk may be packaged either before or after sterilization. This method is the bases of ultra high temperature milk. Milk that is processed this way using temperatures exceeding 135 permitting a decrease in the necessary holding time to a 2-5 sec enabling a continuous flow operation. High quality product due to very short times needed for heat treatment, long shelf life, greater than 6 months without refrigeration, reduced costs due to lower packaging and storage costs problems with ensuring the sterility of equipment and packaging and danger of overcooking the product.

Answer 247

Nutrient content - milk and dairy products generally very rich in nutrients providing an ideal growth environment. Moisture content. pH - most micro organisms have apprximately a neutral pH for optimum growth ph 6-7.5. Milk has a pH of 6.6 which is ideal for the growht of many micr organisms. Available oxygen. biological structures - milk is a fluid product with no barriers to the spreading of microorganisms throughout the product. Antimicrobial constituents - milk has several non immunological proteins which inhibit the growth and metabolism of many micro organisms.

Answer 248

micro organisms with optimum growth temperatures 20-30 capable of growth at temperatures less than 7 degrees C. specifically important in the spoilage of refrigerated dairy products.

Answer 249

microorganisms with optimum growth temperatures 30-40 degrees C, do not grow at refrigeration temperatures.

Answer 250

Microorganisms with optimum growth between 55 and 6 degrees C.

Answer 251

They ferment lactose to lactic acid. they are normally present in the milk and also used as starter cultures in the production of cultured dairy products such as yoghurt. examples include lactococci. (streptococcus lacti, strep cremoris) and lactobacilli (lactobacillus casei, lactobacillus lactis and lactobacillus bulgaricus).

Answer 252

These are indicator organisms they are closely associated with the presence of pathogens but not necessarily pathogenic themselves. they also can cause rapid spoilage of milk because they are able to ferment lactose with the production of acid and gas and are able to degrade milk proteins. They are killed by HTST treatment, therefore their presence after treatment is indicative of contamination.

Answer 253

Starter cultures are those microorganisms that are used in the production of cultured dairy products such as yoghurt and cheese. The natural microflora of the milk is either inefficient, uncontrollable and unpredictable or may be destroyed altogether by the heat treatment given to the milk. simple or defined: single strain or more than one in which the number is known. Mixed or compound - more than one strain providing its own specific characteristics. Starter cultures may be organised as mesophilic or thermophilic.

Answer 254

they are viruses which attack the bacteria. They are ubiquitous but generally enter the milk processing plant within the farm milk. They can be inactivated by heat treatments of 30 mins at 63 degrees - 88 degrees or by the use of chemical disinfectants. They are of most concern in cheese making where they attack and destroy most of the lactic acid bacteria which prevents normal ripening.

Answer 255

Leads to deterioration of a foods texture colour odour or flavour to the point where it is unappetizing or unsuitable for human consumption. Microbial spoilage of food often involves the degradation of protein, carbohydrates and fats by the micro organisms or their enzymes. In milk the micro organisms that are principally involved in spoilage are psychrotrophic organisms. Most are destroyed by pasteurization temperatures. Some like pseudomonas fluorescens, pseudomonas fragi can produce proteolytic and lipolytic extracellular enzymes which are heat stable and capable of causing spoilage. Some species and strains of bacillus, clostridium, cornebacterium, arthrobacter, lactobacillus, microbacterium, micrococcus and streptococcus can survive pasteurization and grow at refrigeration temperatures which can cause spoilage problems.

Answer 256

Hygienic milk production practices, proper handling and storage of milk and mandatory pasteurisation has decreased the threat of milk borne diseases such as tuberculosis, brucellosis and typhoid fever. there have been a number of food borne illnesses resulting from the ingestion of raw milk or dairy products made with milk that was not properly pasteurised or poorly handled causing post processing contamination. The following pathogens are of concern; bacillus cereus, listeria monocytogenes, yersinia enterocolitica, salmonella spp, e Coli, campylobacter Jejuni. Also moulds, aspergillus, fuasrium and penicillium can grow in milk and dairy products. These moulds may produce mycotoxins which can be a health hazard.

Answer 257

Incorrect milk withholding time used. may be due to a simple miscalculation or due to a dry cow calving early. Incorrect cow identification - may be due to a dry cow bing milked by mistake a treated cow being milked, relief milker unaware of cow being treated or newly purchased cow that has been treated.

Answer 258

Mechanical failure eg leaking valves, contamination of equipment eg after treated cow milked into dump bucket via recorder jars.

Answer 259

Off label may include change of duration of treatment eg more than 3 tube used, change of frequency of administration eg using once a day tube every 12 hours, change of dose eg double tubing a cow, there has been some debate over the use of two or more authorised products at the same time eg using injectable and intramammary antibiotics to treat mastitis. Off label use of a product requires the use of minimum standard withhold periods (7 days milk, 28 days meat).

Answer 260

Using the delvotest SP - this is a microbial inhibition test using bacillus stearothermophilus var calidolactis and is used to detect a wide range of antibiotics. sensitivity of the test depending on the antimicrobial. It can detect penicillin G at a level of 0.0025 parts per million. Routinely used by milk purchasing companies to test bulk tank but may also be used on individual cow samples to avoid bulk tank failures eg freshly calved cows before their milk goes into the tank. If the bulk tank fails an inhibitory substance test then the sample is usually retest to confirm the failure along with a duplicate sample.

Answer 261

Food safety act 1990 The dairy products amendment regulations 1996 The dairy products hygiene regulations 1995

Answer 262

After milking raw milk must be stored at a temperature lower than 8 degrees for daily collection or 6 degrees for every other day collection. Most milk purchasers state that the milk must be cooled to 4 degrees prior to collection.

Answer 263

Cssation of ongoing behaviour patterns, vocalisation or lack of vocalisation, locomotion or freezing, urination or defeccation, frustration induced aggerssion, avoidance, reduction in behaviour (play, feeding, sexual), chronic - sterotypy, anhedonia, cognitive bias, learned helplessness.

Answer 264

Acute - handling, restraint, unexpected noise, novelty, predator eg dg, moixing, short term isolation, acute pain. Chronic - un stimulating housing, space restriction, behavioural restriction, physical discomfort, noise, heat or cold stress, mixing, subordination, pain, injury, disease.

Answer 265

Perception of a challenge, activates the amygdala, which activates the sympathetic nervous system, innervation of the adrenal gland (medulla), release of adrenaline, increases heart rate, glycogenolysis, lipolysis, helps animal to deal with challenge. SAM axis is quick to respond (neural) but response is short lived.

Answer 266

Perception of a challenge activates the hyptohalamus, releases corticotropin releasing hormone which activates the anterior pituitary to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone into the blood which activates teh adrenal gland which releases cortisol into the blood. the HPA axis uses the endocrine system - transportation of hormones via the blood. therefore it is slower to respond but the response is more sustained. cortisol/corticosterone are glucocorticoids - catabolic hormones, increase glycogenolysis, lipolysis, protein breakdown, increase metabolite supply to help animal deal with challenge.

Answer 267

Stress causes trauma and biochemical changes in muscle. E.g fearfulness results in bruising and poor tenderness. Stress affects meat quality through the extent of glycogen depletion in liver and muscles affecting pH decline. Acute stress - adrenaline > glucose converted to lactic acid > rapid early pH fall > PSE meat. Chronic stress > depletion of glycogen > inadequate lactic acid production > high ultimate pH > DFD meat, spoilage.

Answer 268

High dry matter diets produce cleaner animals. diet change to reduce the moisture content of the faeces should be done gradually to prevent scouring. Mineral/salt intake should be controlled. Adhering to an animal health plan for the farm with effective veterinary regimes to reduce infection with pathogens. Appropriate husbandry and therapy to prevent endoparasite and ectoparasite infestation. good ventilation, adequate straw bedding changed as frequently as necessary, large wood chips can be considered as an alternative material to straw bedding, appropriate stocking densities, well designed feeding/drinking areas to prevent concentration of dung in these areas and contamination of the feed or water. Immediately prior to transport - bringing livestock indoors onto clean dry bedding, withdrawal of feed prior to transport to decrease gut fill and reduce overall faecal contamination. Clipping to remove gross contamination from the underside i.e brisket and abdomen, legs, rump and tail (timed to prevent recontamination closer to the skin).

Answer 269

Brisket and abdomen, flank, ribcage, hind legs, fore legs, neck, rectal area.

Answer 270

Retained in lairage on clean bedding till clean /dry, clipped to remove contaminated wool/hair, sent home only on exceptional circumstances, killed in lairage - Carcase disposed, slaughtered with decreased line speed. Dirty animals put hygienic operation at risk. food business operator has a responsibility for only accepting clean dry animals for slaughter. OV must verify this is complied with: has powers to stop production if hygiene is compromised.

Answer 271

1 or 2 knives technique - one to cut skin, second to cut blood vessels. Single incision only made in pigs - small stick wound reduces contamination from the scald tank. Clean sterilised knife for each animal - knives washed before placing in steriliser. stick wound trimmed to remove contamination. do not cut oesophagus and trachea. If not carried out hygienically - microbiological contamination: into blood stream, into meat surrounding wound. Reduced shelf life. abnormal colour and odour.

Answer 272

removal of the viscera. Don't after skinning, without undue delay and recommended within 45 minutes of slaughter. Gut tract removed in such a way that no ingesta faeces or gut content escapes i.e in one piece with no leakage at either end. to seal ends: roding of the oesophagus, tie a knot, bunging of the anus, bagging of the anus.

Answer 273

The carcass of the affected animal must be officially detained for further inspection and moved into a designated area to avoid cross contamination. An enhanced PMI must be carried out by the OV and in particular to include, vertebrae, rbs, sternum and spinal column. The following lymph nodes must be examined; udder, supramammary/superficial inguinal and prescapular. Inform the local DVM and follow their instruction if samples need to be collected. all meat from animals in which PMI revealed localised TB in a number of organs or a number of areas of he carcase are to be declared unfit for HC. when a TB lesion has been found in the lymph nodes of one part of the carcase, only the affected organ or part of the carcass and associated lymph nodes need to be declared unfit.

Answer 274

Food borne pathogens that may contaminate the carcase are often found on the hides of cattle presented for slaughter for human consumption. The major risk to public health are pathogen micro organisms such as E. coli, salmonella enterica and campylobacter jejuni species. The FBO should identify and separate dirty animals at arrival in the lairage according to t heir HACCP procedures, put in place corrective actions as appropriate to avoid cross contamination (kill last of the day, reduce slaughter line speed, kill animals with gaps in between, clipping, await we animals to dry, send back to farm when possible. The FBO should also inform the farmer or the market in writing that dirty cattle should not be delivered to slaughterhouses. It is a legal requirement that FBO have procedure in place according to their HACCP principles to guarantee that animals accepted onto the slaughterhouse are clean. A clean livestock policy should be in place.

Answer 275

Avian influenza - notifiable and zoonotic Newcastle disease - notifiable Pasteurellosis, mycoplasmosis, chlamidiosis (zoonotic). Inform the divisional veteriary manager at the local animal health office and follow strictly there instructions. Declare the affected birds unfit for HC at ante mortem inspection. Meat is to be declared unfit for HC if derives from animals affected by a generalised disease such as generalised septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia or viraemia or if derives from animals affected by an OIE (world organisation for animal health) List A or where appropriate OIE List B disease.

Answer 276

Taenia solium intermediate stage cysticercosis cellulosae - both stages are zoonotic. Taenia hydatigena - intermediate stage cysticercosis tenuicollis and neither are zoonotic. Echinococcus granulosis intermediate stage hydatid cysts that is responsible for zoonotic infection in humans. the hydatic cysts transmitted to humans by ingestion of proglotids of eggs from the adult worm living in the intestine of a dog. In all these cases the criteria are based in the localized or generalised presentation of these organisms with partial rejection in the first case and total rejection in generalised cases.

Answer 277

Meat infecteed with cysticerus is to be declared unfit for HC. However, whent he animal is not generally infected with cysticercus the parts not infected may be declared fit for HC after having undergone a cold treatment. Partial rejection of the affected meat and freeze the rest of the carcase for at least 3 weeks at -7 degrees or 2 weeks at -10. Cysticercosis is a zoonosis that is present in the UK and the final stage of its life cycle is the taenia saginata in the human digestive system. Meat with generalised infection of cysticercus is declared unfit for human consumption. If infection is not generalised the parts not infected may be declared fit after cold treatment. When sole finding is one or more calcified or non cystic caseous lesions - diagnosis of C bovis is not justified.

Answer 278

The purpose of ante mortem inspection is to determine whether there is any sign of any condition which might adversely affect human or animal health, to enable to OV to make the decisions as to whether the animal can be slaughtered for human consumption, to determine whether any test should be carried out in relation to disease diagnosis or for residues of veterinary medical products, to determine whether welfare has been compromised. Particular attention should be given when zoonotic or notifiable diseases are a possible diagnosis. The principle of PM inspection is to supplement ante mortem inspection and detect diseases of publich ealth significance, diseases of animal health significance, residues or contaminants in excess of the levels allowed by legislation. The risk of non visible contamination, other factors which might require the meat to be declared unfit for HC or restrictions to be placed on its use. visible lesions that are relevant to animal welfare such as beating or long standing untreated injuries.

Answer 279

Conduct a hazard analysis - to idetify potential hazards associated with food production at all stages and assess their likelihood of occurrence and identify measures for their control. Determine the critical control points - the operational steps; processes etc at which hazards can be controlled to eliminate or minimise likelihood of occurence. Establish critical limits for these critical points- numerical values/other criteria which must be met to indicate this point is under control. Establish a system for monitoring whether these critical points are under control - a series of scheduled tests/measurementsobservations. Establish a corrective action system - remedial actions to be executed when monitoring indicates that a critical control point is not under control and in danger of exceeding critical limits. establish a process for the verification that implemented HACCP systems are working to effectively control the hazards and is operated in agreement with the HACCP pla. Establish documents concerning all procedures and records appropriate to these principles and their application in order to facilitate review of the plans effectiveness over time and demonstrate due diligence on HACCP and food safety matters.

Answer 280

Dicrocoelium dendriticum is a small lancelate liver fluke which causes disease in sheep in a few islands off the west coast of scotland.

Answer 281

Cysticercus ovis in the muscle of sheep, numerous 1-2mm diameter white cysts, final host is the dog, the infective dose for dogs is one viable cyst. Some cysticerci survive up to 2 years. affects sheep of all ages.

Answer 282

Cysticercus tenuicollis in the abdominal cavity, final host is the dog. up to 8cm diameter in the peritoneum, associated with the surface of the liver, very common incidental finding at post mortem, occasionally numerous 1cm greenish subcapsular noodules in the liver are associated with massive infection and death of developing cysticerci.

Answer 283

Hydatic cysts mainly in the liver and lungs, final host dog and wild canids, cysts with diameter up to 20cm in the liver or lungs occasional enormous cyst in the peritoneum, cyst capsule contains brood capsules. Sometimes cysts branch to form daughter cysts. sheep 75% in lungs, 25% in liver, usually no clinical signs - found at slaughter, important zoonosis

Answer 284

Bovine - meat light redd, fat consistent and light yellow, shorter neck, 13 thoracic vertebrae, rib cage less curved, sternum 7 bones and more straight. Equine - meat dark blueish red, fat is less consistent and yellow, longer neck, 18 thoracic vertaebrae, rib cage more rounded, sternum 6 bones and curved.

Answer 285

Sheep - round and well fleshed withers, barrel shaped thorax, fairly broad tail, short and broad scapula, superior spine bent back and thckened, pale red and fine in texture flesh. Goat - sharp back and withers with little flesh, flattened thorax laterally, thin tail, possesses distinct neck, spine straight and narrow, dark red coarse flesh with goaty odour.

Answer 286

Difficult to be precise by Carcase inspection alone. Dentition useful in cattle and sheep. Presence of cartilage indicates a younger animal. Progressively ossifies, vertebrae, between joints of sternum, intercostal bones. Bone marrow turns from red to yellow.

Answer 287

female - triangular carcase, gracillis muscle bean shaped, wide pelvic cavity (cow), udder white, can see evidence of fat if removed in cow, and conformation. remains of broad ligament of uterus. Male - massive carcase and cret (bull), muscular, gracillis muscle triangular, narrow pelvic cavity, ventral fat conformation, root of penis and bulbocavernosus muscle present.

Answer 288

E (excellent) very rounded, wide and very thick back, up tot he shoulder, very rounded shoulder.). U (very good)- rounded, back wide and thick, up to the shoulder, shoulder rounded. R(good) - well developed round, back still thick but less wide at the shoulder, shoulder fairly well developed. O (fair) average development to lacking development, average thickness to lacking thickness, average development of shoulder to almost flat. P (poor) - round poorly developed, back narrow with bones visible, shoulder flat with bones visible. Additionally degree of fat cover ; 1 (low) - no fat within the thoracic cavity 2 (slight) within the thoracic cavity the muscle is clearly visible between the ribs. 3( average) within the thoracic cavity the muscle is still visible between the ribs. 4(high) the seams of fat on the round are prominent, within the thoracic cavity the muscle between the ribs may b infiltrated with fat. 5 (very high) the round is almost completely covered with fat so that the seams of fat are no longer clearly visible, within the thoracic cavity the muscle between the ribs is infiltrated with fat.

Answer 289

``` 60% and above - S 55-59% - E 50-54% - U 45-49%- R 40-44% - O 39% or less - P ```

Answer 290

Ability to trace and follow a food, food producing animal, through all stages of production, processing and distribution. holding information about suppliers and consumers means in an event of a food safety emergency food can be traced backwards and forwards. can withdrawal/recall food quickly. FBO must identify suppliers and customers - at least one step back and one forwards. Meat chain traceability includes requirements for animal ID information, ear tag records, food chain information, supplier declarations, veterinary certificates, correlation of Carcases and offal, health and id marking of product.

Answer 291

Meat, including fragmented meat with foodstuffs, seasonings or additives added but insufficiently processed to modify internal muscle fibre structure. including - ground meats, sausage meat, raw sausages, patties, seasoned steaks, burgers. Made from trimmings and meat left on bones after butchery. Additives - fat, extenders (soy protein), dried milk, cereal products (bread crumbs, rusk), salt and pices, chilled or frozen after production, must be thoroughly cooked before consumption.

Answer 292

Large bacterial load - trimmings from carcases stored for several days, extra handling results in an increase in the total aerobic flora and enterobacteriaceeae, specific hazards including E. coli, L monocytogenes, salmonella spp. During mincing, microorganisms originally present on the surface are distributed through the ground meat. Grinding increases the temperature of the meat, grinding increases the total surface of exposed meat susceptible to contamination, grinder can be source of contamination if not cleaned/maintained properly. possible introduction of microbiological, chemical and physical contamination.

Answer 293

Skeletal muscle includng adherent fatty trimmings. no scraps, MSM bone fragments r skinhead meat except masseter, linea albla, diaphragm, carpal and tarsal meat, bone scrapings. Frozen or deep frozen meat can be used but must be de boned before mincing. Slaughter to mincing time must be 3 days in poultry no more, other animals 6 days after slaughter. Does not apply where mince used for heat treated product. Do not refreeze mince after thawing.

Answer 294

Product obtained by removing meat from flesh bearing bones after boning or from poultry carcases using mechanical means resulting in loss or modification of the muscle fibre structure. Types of MSM - high pressure, the carcase or meat parts are pressed through a machine like sieve. Low pressure - the meat is mechanically scraped from the carcass. Microbiological hazards present similar to those for non MSM. Allowed meats - poultry, pork. Cannot use feet neck skin or head of poultry. For other animals - bones of head tail and legs from including femur or humerus down not alowed, beef and sheep meat not allowed. Calcium content to not exceed 0.1%.

Answer 295

EC regulations state that at least one member of a hunting team should have sufficient knowledge and training to undertake an initial on the spot examination. this person is referred to as the trained hunter. Approved game handling establishments should only accept large and small game that has been examined by a trained hunter who can provide evidence that they have undergone training provided to the satisfaction of the FSA or who is known to the operator as having the required knowledge.

Answer 296

Hunters have to observe the game and not eany abnormal behaviour prior to shooting - level of alerness, general condition, carriage of the head, quality of movement, limbs. Culled deer must be examined without undue delay; age and sex of deer, state of nutrition of the deer evidence of bruising or haemorrhage, indications of faecal contamination or decomposition, local or general oedema, efficiency of bleeding, any swelling, deformity or other abnormality of bones, joints or musculature, any abnormality in consistency or colour, condition of the pleura and peritoneum.

Answer 297

If a trained person inspects the body and viscera they must attach a numbered declaration to the animals body. the head and viscera need not accompany the body except in species susceptible to trchinosis. in this case the head except tusks and diaphragm must accompany the body. If there is no trained person - the head and all the viscera except stomach and intestines must accompany the body. If the trained person is not able to complete the declaration - all the viscera except stomach and intestines must accompany the body, the trained person must inform the competent authority of the circumstances that prevented the completion of the declaration, the AGHe should only accept large wild game without a trained persons declaration in exceptional circumstances.

Answer 298

Must be killed during hunting season, not road kill but killed by hunting activity, properly idetified, large wild game with a trained hunter declaration, or if THD is not available or not signed off must be accompanied by red offal and head, at a temperature of at least 7C or 4C (small game), clean for what is possible and free from contamination from animals and pests when game is being taken away from the shoot and stored in the larder. must be presented for and pass PM inspection.

Answer 299

To check the traceability and correlation of the carcass/offal, through labelling tagging and game dealer records, check the trained hunter declaration, inspect unskinned carcases prior to the start of processing in order to determine cause of death, degree of contamination (not compulsory but considered best practice). Perform the PM inspection after the carcass is fully skinned with the respective offal where available. - visual inspection and palpation of the carcase and red offal, evaluate carcase/offal for degree of shooting/damage, contamination and any signs of disease.

Answer 300

Tuberculosis, all abscessed lesions must be treated as suspect TB, brucellosis, FMD, anthrax, epizootic haemorrhagic virus diseas,e warble fly (hypoderma bovis), aujeszkys, chronic wasting disease (CWD).

Answer 301

48% soils, 32% ruminant livestock (enteric fermentation) 10% manure management, 10% energy use in buildings and machinery.

Answer 302

Several TSEs known to occur in animals and humans; Cruedzfeld jakob disease, BSE in cattle, scrapie in sheep, chronic wasting disease in deer, transmissible mink encephaloopathy. TSEs are a progressive neurological disease with a long incubation period 2-8 years, non inflammatory, non immunogenic, fatal, uncertain agent (prion), notifiable diseases.

Answer 303

These agents are small proteinaceous infectious particles lacking nucleic acid, prion protein (prPC) is a component of the normal cell and encoded by the host genome, the scrapie associated prion protein (PrPSC) has a similar amino acid structure but an altered 3-D confirmation. This confers resistance to protease digestion and the ability to convert normal PrPC to PrPSc by a form of chain reaction. this abnormal isoform accumulates in the brain in insoluble aggregates giving rise to symptoms.

Answer 304

All ages - tonsils including part o the tongue, intestines from duodenum to rectum, mesentery. Over twelve Months - skull excluding mandible and including the brain and eye, spinal cord. Over thirty months (vertebral column including the dorsal root ganglia but excluding the vertebrae of the tail spinous and transverse process of the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae of the median sacral crest and wings of the sacrum.

Answer 305

all ages -the spleen and ileum | Over 12 months - skull including brain and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord

Answer 306

Bovine animals over 48 months if emergency slaughter or sick at AMI, bovines not for human consumption, some ovines/caprines slaughtered for HC, ovines/caprines not for Hc, monitoring of infected flocks (scrapie). Sampling done by removal of brain stem. FBO is responsible for sampling and costs. materials used are clinical waste.

Answer 307

Entire bodies or parts of animals or products of animal origin referred to as category 1, 2 or 3 material NOT intended for human consumption. Edible co products are parts of the slaughtered animal, unsuitable for human consumption when they are produced at the slaughterhouse but in which can later be processed for use in human food.

Answer 308

Carcases and associated parts suspected or confirmed a being infected with A TSE. specified risk material from non suspect animals. Catering waste from airports and ports. Products derived from animals which substances prohibited have been administered and products of animal origin containing residues of environmental contaminants and other substances. Must be stained with patent blue V. label as cat 1 for disposal only.

Answer 309

Carcasses or materials that are not presented for or fail ante mortem or pm inspection or show signs of communicable diseases to humans or animals, products of animal origin containing residues of veterinary drugs and contaminants, manure and digestive tract content. Must be stained with black PN.

Answer 310

Includes those materials which have been subjected to ante mortem or PM inspection and passed but for a variety of reasons are not intended for human consumption, includes unwanted trimmings, quality failure eg colour, minor contamination that does not pose a risk, also offal affected by mild lungworm and fluke. No stain needed, label as category 3 material not for HC.

Answer 311

``` By maximising edible co product returns, wastage is reduced and improved margins for FBO, can be divided into four groups; 1. animal fats and greaves, 2 stomachs, bladders, intestines 3. Gelatine 4. Collagen ``` rendering means extracting fat from meat by melting (heat treatment). Greaves are the protein residue of the rendering process after separation of fat and water. Sources of fat include peri renal fat, brisket fat, omental fat etc. Examples of renderedfat for HC include lard, beef dripping.

Answer 312

Tripe - edible co product from the stomach of domestic animals Blanket - rume Book/bible - omasum Honeycomb - reticulum Reed - abomasum Maws - pork tripe runners - intestines which have been separated from stomachs and mesentery and have had their contents removed.

Answer 313

runners which have been processed to remove all the layers of the intestines apart from the submucosa (mainly collagen and elastic fibres). casings are used primarily in the production of sausages. Cattle intestines are SRM and must not be used for the production of casings. Sheep and goat ileum is SRM and must not be used fo the production of casings.

Answer 314

the large intestine and often the stomach of the pig that are cooked and used as food.

Answer 315

``` BOD is used to show the polluting strength of livestock manures and organic wastes. it is a measure of the amount of oxygen needed by micro-organisms to break down organic material. Crude sewage has a BOD of 200-300mg/litre and can severely damage surface waters. Milk 140,000mg /litre silage effluent 30,000-80,00 Pig slurry 20,000-30,000 Cattle slurry 10,000-20,000mg/litre Dirty water - 1000 to 5000mg/litre ```

Answer 316

Test commonly used to indirectly measure the amount of organic pollutants found in surface water e.g in lakes and rivers. it is expressed in milligrams per litre which indicates the amount of oxygen consumed to oxidise an organic compound to carbon dioxide, ammonia and water.

Answer 317

Any waste that may be harmful to human health or the environment - all types of asbestos, some veterinary medicines, fluorescent light tubes, lead acid batteries, oily sludges, pesticides and herbicides, solvents. Some packaging has hazard warning labels about the contents. tihs does not mean that the packaging is automatically considered hazardous waste. Examples of packaging wastes that have these types of labels but are not necessarily hazardous waste include - properly emptied tripe rinsed and drained pesiticide containers, non contaminated pesticide cardboard outer boxes, emptied, dry and shaken ammonium nitrate fertiliser bags. Farmers have a legal duty of care to look after their waste and ensure that it doesnt cause any environmental problems or end up being fly tipped. when wastes are passed to someone else they are authorised to take it and complete and give the a waste transfer note and keep a copy for two years.

Answer 318

Waste can be stored for up to 12 months while arrangements are made for collection and disposal. if the waste is to be recycled, it can be stored for up to three years. composting is an example of waste recovery. If wastes are stored for longer than 12 months, then the site will be classed as a landfill and an environmental permit is required. unlimited amounts of farm non hazardous waste can be stored but it must be stored securely. hazardous waste can be up to 23,000L if liquid an 80 cubic metres if solid.Prevent liquid waste from escaping into drains, train staff and keep records, store waste types separately and label.

Answer 319

The national fallen stock company provides a scheme for farmers that offers a reliable low cost means of collecting and disposing of carcasses. the scheme is open to all farmed livestock owners and businesses but is not compulsory. If the farmer arranges disposal of carcasses by itself must ensure that they go to an animal healths approved renderer or licensed knackers yard. incinerator licensed under the animal by products regulations or animal health approved hunt kennel for use as dog feed. Farmers must not bury animal carcasses or parts of animal carcasses on the farm. Animal carcasses may not only be buried in very limiited circumstances for example for emergecy disease control or if they are located in areas designated as remote areas. Animal health must be consulted or the local council trading standards department before burying animal carcases. Never allow animal carcases to be fed to pigs, dogs, cats and other carnivores present on the farm - echinoccocus, tuberculosis, trichinellosis, salmonellosis. On farm incinerators that burns carcasses must be approved by animal health. If the incinerator has a capacity to incinerate more than 50kg of carcasse per hour an additional environmental permit is required from the environmental regulator.

Answer 320

Animal healthy mau authorise to burn carcasses but a number of steps to reduce environmental impact must be taken. avoid producing dark smoke by placing primary fuel in the base of the fire and the carcasses on top designing the pyre to allow burning to take place up and through the material rather than from the top own (this creates a much higher temperature and reduces the risk of creating dark smoke). never burn plastics or tyres as fuel. Supervise burning at all times. only burn carcasses in daylight hours. contact your local fire brigade to let them know you are burning before lighting the fire. Problems - dioxins, PCBS, soot, grease, H&S, huan illness. Burial problems: anthrax, taint, BSE/ CJD.

Answer 321

Livestock manures and organic wastes including sewage and sludge and green waste compost are referred to collectively as organic manures. dilute washings from dairy and milking parlous and run off from lightly contaminated yard areas to which animals have regular access are referred to as dirty water. Nitrogen and phosphorous may be lost from the soil into groundwater and surface waters. Ammonia nad gasses are released from organic manures and wastes during handling, storage and both during and after application to land.

Answer 322

Within 10 metres of a watercourse, within 50 metres of a well, spring or borehole that supplies drinking water for HC or provides water for dairies, on steeply slopiing fields where there is risk of run off, on waterlogged or compacted land, when fields are frozen or snow covered, when the soil is cracked down to field drains or has been pipe or mole drained in the last 12 months. Adequate storage will allow better timing and use of manure nutrients, reduce amount of fertiliser,

Answer 323

The management and handling of livestock manures particularly the length of time they are stored are important factors in the survival of microorganisms. On farms where cryptosporidium parvum has been diagnosed, reduce the risk of contaminating surface waters with viable oocysts by storing slurry for as long as practically possible and solid manures for at least 2 months before spreading to land.

Answer 324

Composting - solid manures reduces the quantity to be spread and the odour that is released during and after spreading. mechanical separation of slurry removes some solids and provides a liquid that can be pumped. biological or mechanical treatment reduce odour, polluting potential. Anaerobic digestion of slurry often with other organic bio degradable materials can produce biogas.

Answer 325

any substance not intentionally aded to food which is presented in such food as a result of the production including operations carried out in crop husbandry, animal husbandry and veterinary medicine, manufacture, processing, preparation, treatment, packing, transport or holding of such food or as a result of environmental contamination. for example - veterinary medicines, growth promotors, heavy metals, pesticides (insecticides, anthelmintics), herbicides, natural toxins (mycotoxins) environmental contaminants (dioxin), radioactive contaminants.

Answer 326

Almost all chemicals administered knowingly or unknowingly to animals result in some trace residue remaining in the food. Residue of substances having a pharmacological action of their metabolites and of other substances transmitted to animal products and likely to be harmful to human health. Concerns due to Drug resstance, short and long term toxicity, potential allergy, interference with further food processing, cross contamination of feding stuffs. There is no possibility of Zero residue. For permitted substances - it is important to differentiate between safe and unsafe residual concentrations in food - use the No observed effect level - NOEl, acceptable daily intake ADI, tolerable daily intake TDI, maximum residue limits MRL, detection limit.

Answer 327

For all chemicals which may produce residues it is essential to establish an acceptable level in the diet. ADI is an estimate of the amount of a food additive expressed on a body weight basis that can be ingested daily over a life time without appreciable health risk. Calculation of the ADI depends on the toxicology of the compound and its NOEl. toxicology effects are determined by acute and chronic studies involving genotoxicity, carcinogenicity, mutogenicity etc.

Answer 328

The maximum concentration of a residue expressed in mg/kg which may be accepted by the European community to be legally permitted or recognised as an acceptable in a food. It is based on the type and amount of residue considered to be without any toxicological hazard for human health as expressed by the ADI that utilizes an additional safety factor. it also takes into account other relevant public health risks as well as food technology aspects.

Answer 329

The time which passes between the administration of the last dose of a medicine and the time when the level of residues in the tissues or products falls below the MRL. medicine withdrawal period must be observed at all times. an animal or its products must not be sold for human consumption before the withdrawal period has been elapsed. NOAh issues withdrawal periods tables for medicines. In those tables it will specify if a medicine is indicated for use in a particular species and its withdrawal period. veterinary sugeons may use or prescribe the use of a medicine even if it is not indicated for the species in which it will be used. in such case they must specify a withdrawal period that is not less than the standard withdrawal period.: 28 days for meat, 500degree days from fish, 7 days milk, 7 days eggs.

Answer 330

The FSA collect red meat and poultry meat samples from carcasses at slaughterhouses. the animal health/VLA office collect samples from live animals, animal feed and milk from farms. CEFAs collect salmon and trout samples from fish farms. Defras egg marketing inspectors collect egg samples from packing stations, the VMD will request ifferent samples (liver, kidney, muscle, milk, fat, bood, serum) based on: pharmacokinetic of the residue, type of lab to carry test out. Selection of animals in the lairage must be random not from same producer/same animal etc or if ov SUSPECT has evidence that animlas have been treated with unauthorised substances or residues of authorised substances above the MRL.

Answer 331

Where high concentrations of authorised substances or unauthorised substances are detected an investigation will be undertaken by an investigation officer from defras legal department. the VMD may prosecute if there is sufficient evidence of misuse of an authorised product or use of an unauthorised substance.

Answer 332

Mainly looks at the use of banned or unauthorised substances in imported meat, farmed fish and honey. the surveillance is funded by defra and carried out at border inspection posts, in the course of the year intelligence is received from the rapid alert system for food and feed stuff and other sources from which trends can be identified.

Answer 333

Substances having anabolic effects and unauthorized substances, residues in food of drugs which are toxic or have side effects in humans are unacceptable, antibiotics: peptides, sulphonamides, chloramphenicol. FungicideS: malachite green. Coccidiostats: nitroimidazoles, nitrofurans.

Answer 334

Pronounced secondary sexual characterisics, crest development, teat development, restlessness, do not settle in lairage, behavioural changes, mounting, aggression, an even level of finish in a group of cattle of different breed/types. The following signs may indicate the illegal use of hormones in a carcase - presence of implants or pellets, injection site, if detected an oily adjuvant is present or when the site is in an unusual place the possibility of the presence of an injectable hormone should be considered.

Answer 335

Good conformation with little fat, hyperaesthesia and tachycardia may be present, increase of body temperature of 1C, muscle tremors, dry coughing, reduced weight of some organs, flaccidity of the trachea, DFD meat.

Answer 336

ruminants are more commonly affected than other species: acute disease with accumulation in the liver and kidney or chronic disease with accumulation in the bones. Lead can accumulate in the tissue of animals at grazing close to smelting plants, ingesting paints or substances with high lead content, contaminated water supply, can be shed in milk. small wild game might be contaminated by lead shots.

Answer 337

Animals may be exposed to inorganic or organic arsenic compounds with feed, forage or liquid contaminated with arsenical herbicides, rodenticides or inscticides. chronic disease with accumulation in liver, kidney and bone. minimal accumulation in muscle usually under the MRL. Arsenic poisoning can be seen in swine due to an overdose of organoarsenicals which are often used as feed additives to promote growth and to control swine dysentry.

Answer 338

Cases of mercury intoxication are very rare in cattle but pigs can be more affected (contamination of feeding stuff), fishery products more at risk, mercury is very slowly elimianted from the body giving concerns on its long term accumulation in animal tissues. methilmercury is the major source of organic mercury, it works its way up the food chain through bio accumulation in the environment, reaching high concentrations among populations of some species. Top predatory fish, such as tuna or swordfish are usually of greater concern.

Answer 339

Melamine is an organic base and is used to manufacture melamine formaldehyde resin, a type of plastic known for its flame retardant properties and commonly employed in countertops, dry erase boards etc. Melamine itself is nitrogen rich and is sometimes illegally adde to food products in order to increase their apparent protein content (milk and milk products). it has also been employed as a non protein nitrogen, appearing in soy meal, corn, gluten meal and cottonseed meal used in cattle feed. MElamine is known to cause renal and urinary problems in humans and animals when it reacts with cyanuric acid inside the body, sometimes present in drinking water and animal feed so its use in food production is universally. banned.

Answer 340

A type of mycotooxin produced by aspergillus species of fungi such as A flavus and A parasiticus. there are four different types of mycotoxins produced which are B1 B2 G1 and G2. Afltatoxin B1, the most toxic, is a potent carcinogen and has been directly correlated to adverse health effects such as liver cancer in many animal species. Aflatxins are laregely associate with commodities produced in the tropics and subtropics such as cotton, peanuts, spices, pistachios and maize. Liver and kidney retain detectable quantities for longer period. Dairy products are considered to be the most vulnerable to residue accumulation and transmission of toxic amounts into human food through meat products.

Answer 341

A mycotoxin that comes in three secondary metabolite forms A B and C. all are produced by penicillium and Aspergillus species. Aspergillus ochraceus is found as a contaminant of a wide range of commodities including beverages such as beer and wine.

Answer 342

A toxin that was first isolated from penicillium citrinum but has been identified in over a dozen species of penicillium and several species of aspergillus. Some of these species are used to produce human foodstuffs such as chese, sake, miso and soy sauce.

Answer 343

A toxin produced by P expansum, aspergilluus, penicillium and paecilomyces fungal species. P expansum is especially associated with a range of mouldy fruits and vegetables in particular rotting apples and figs.

Answer 344

``` Broilers 40-60 days Laying hens - over 2 years Turkeys - 6 months Ducks 40-60 days Geese- 10-14 weeks Partridges Pheasants Quail 32-35 days guinea fowl, capon. ```

Answer 345

Reduction of the prevalence of salmonella enteritidis and typhimurium in broilers remaining positive to 1%. Regulation no 2073/2005 on microbiological criteria for foodstuffs requires poultry abattoirs to undertake microbiological testing for salmonella on 5 samples a week. Official control sampling includes - each year at least one flock of broilers on 10% of the holdings with more than 5000 birds. If a test proves positive for salmonella the laboratory must immediately report the result to the appropriate government official as required under the zooonoses order 1989. Fresh poultry meat from broilers may not be placed on the market for human consumption unless it is salmonella: absence in 25 grams.

Answer 346

The FBO must retain the affected batches and slaughter them at the end of the prorduction day, after slaughter undertake a full cleansing and disinfection of all the equipment and machinery including changing the water in the scalding tanks and renewing the water in spin chillers. where a positive batch has been processed in the middle or the end of a production run (in error or welfare grounds) then the production run should be stopped as soon as the affected batch has been processed and a full clean down as above take place before any further processing commences. following production, in the absence of any relevant AM or PM findings the carcases can enter the food chain as normal.

Answer 347

the FBO should take the following action: retain the affected batch and slaughter them at the end of the production day or if this is not possible on welfare grounds, at the end of a production run. If slaughtered at the end of a production run, a thorough cleaning of the plucking and evisceration rooms must be undertaken after processing the batch and before any further processing takes place. Where a positive batch has been processed in error or in the middle of production run then the production run should be stopped as soon as the affected batch has been processed and a thorough cleaning of the plucking and evisceration room undertaken before any further processing ocmmences. After the finish f production for the day a full cleansing and disinfection of all equipment and machinery including changing the water in the scalding tanks and renewing water in spin chillers must be undertaken. Following production in the absence of any relevant AM or PM findings the carcases can enter the food chain as normal.

Answer 348

Accurate AMI should include listening to the birds and oobservation of a random sample checking posture, wattle colour and cleanliness and consider the information available from the FCI. If the birds show clinical signs of a disease they may nto be slaughtered for HC, however killing of these birds on the slaughter line may take place at the end of the normal slaughter process. IF precautions are taken to avoid the risk of spreading pathogenic organisms and to clean and disinfect the facilities after killing. Suspect animals are to undergo detailed AM examination in order for the OV to make a decision whether the animla is fit for slaughter for human consumption. the OV must defer the slaughter of animals suspected of having a disease or condition that may adversely affect human or animal health. the FBO should hold animals in isolation pending the OV final deciiosn. Suspect animals show signs of illness, disease or disorder, a disease transmissible to man or animals, a disease or disorder likely to make fresh meat unfit for HC, fatigue or stress, illegal or unauthorised substances have been administered, veterinary medicines in excess of maximum residue limits present in the animal.

Answer 349

Must protect from adverse weather conditions, must provide with adequate ventilation, must be unloaded from vehicles as soon as possible after arrival, avoiding unecessary delay, FBO must check welfare of animals. Some live bird transport vehicles are equipped with forced ventilation systems, use of a portable fan machine. In cases where there is an unavoidable delay to unloading it may be preferable to keep the vehicle moving as movement of air around an through the vehicle will help to keep the birds cool. Re -direct to another abatoir, enforce schedule of arrival. Crates containing birds must be unloaded from vehicles with care in a calm unhurried manner. the crates should be maintained in the upright position so that the birds are not in an unsettled or excitable state when they are subsequently handled before slaughter. Crates are stacked far enough apart to permit adequate airflow between stacks.

Answer 350

Reduce the stocking density of birds in the crates, install extraction fans which extract humid air and excessive heat from the crates, monitor the effectiveness of fans, and if necessary increase the number of fans to increase the flow of the air, ensure an emergency back up means of maintaining adequate ventilation is available if the original source of ventilation fails. Reduce moisture sources in the lairage, for example by locating crate or lorry washing facilities well away from the lairage.

Answer 351

Required for the following operations; handling and care of animals before they are restrained the restraint of animals for the purpose of stunning or killing, the stunning of any animal, the assessment of effective stunning, the shackling and hoisting of live animals, the bleeding of live animals, the slaughtering of any animal in accordance with religious methods.

Answer 352

Give shackled birds time to become settled into the hanging position 12 seconds for chickens, 25 seconds for turkeys. personnel must be able to gain ready access to shackled b irds in case of an emergency. Birds must not be shackled for more than 3 minutes in the case of turkeys or 2 minutes in the case of any other birds. Ideally all shackles are filled to reduce space between birds. Birds are individually shackled.

Answer 353

Water bath stunners use a low frequency source to stun kill birds or a high frequency AC or pulsed DC source to stun birds. In the case of high frequency electrical stunning birds should receive a stun of atleast 8 seconds duration to be rendered unconscious. if a low electrical frequency AC stunning source is used, birds should be effectively stunned with an application time of 2-4 econds.

Answer 354

No rythmic breathing for 10-20 seconds after leaving the water bath. neck arched with head directed vertically, dilated pupils, absence of a corneal or 3rd eyelid response, no reaction to comb pinch, wings held close to the body, rigidly extended legs, constant body tremors. If the bird has received an effective stun/kill and it is dead - the following signs will be seen: fixed central dilated pupil, no rythmic breathing, no response to any stimuli, limp carcase.

Answer 355

birds may be killed by means of exposure to one of several gas mixtures by carbon dioxide only in two phases, carbon dioxide associated with inert gases, mixture of inert gases such as argon and nitrogen.

Answer 356

'- shackling and inversion of live birds is avoided, no need for live birds to be handled at any time, no pre stun shocks which birds can receive when being stunned in a water bath stunner and all birds are dear prior to bleeding. Fewer broken bones, less damage occurs in the breast meat, further processing of the bird can be progressed more quickly (birds killed using nitrogen /argon mixtures with high nitrogen concentrations maturation times are cut by up to 75%).

Answer 357

More expensive to run than the electrical stunner, there should be a back up system inplace in case of breakdown, difficult to differentiate DOA from stunned/killed birds, health and safety for people in case of a gas leak, higher level of training needed for slaughterman operating the system. birds must be exposed to gas for at least 3 minutes until they are dead. On exiting the system all birds must be checked to ensure they are dead.

Answer 358

A stun to bleed interval of less than 15 seconds is recommended. the cut must sever at least one of the carotid arteries or the vessels from which they arise. more rapid bleed out is achieved if both carotid arteries are cut. A licensed slaughter man must be situated at the site of the neck cutter to make sure it has effectively severed at least one of the carotid arteries of each bir.

Answer 359

51-53C for 3 minutes. May be a spray or water tank. Water contamination/bacterial survival.

Answer 360

the whole bid inspection takes place after plucking and removes diseased birds. inspection can be carried out by trained poultry inspection assistants working under FSA supervisiion. the use of a mirror is sometimes necessary to guarantee full insection. PIA tend to complete the plucking by hand and not to concentrate on possible lesions.

Answer 361

Badly bled, badly bruised, machine torn, ascites, pododermatitis, skin lesions, broken wings, legs, emaciation.

Answer 362

All birds to undergo post mortem (visual inspection onl). the OV is personally to carry out the following; daily inspection of viscera and body cavities of a representative sample of birds minimum 300 birds or 20% of flock. A detailed inspection of random sample from each batch of birds having the same origin or parts of birds, or entire birds declared unfit for HC. viscera or parts of viscera remaining in the carcase except for the kidneys must be removed entirely. if possible and as soon as possible unless otherwise authorised by authority. a hygienic trimming system must be in place if the FBO decides to trim contaminate carcases. the FBO should have a system in place to deal with carcases or offal that fall on the floor.

Answer 363

Poultry carcases do not require a health mark but an ID mark. the ID mark is applied to the products of animal origin by the food business operator before placing on the market. the ID mark demonstrates meat has been produced in accordance with the hygiene regulations and under veterinary supervision. if meat is unwrapped, repackaged or reprocessed, a new ID mark must be applied.

Answer 364

Maximum 2% oxygen by volume. | carbon dioxide 30%.

Answer 365

Spoilage is the process in which food deteriorates to the point in which it is not edible to humans or its quality of edibility becomes reduced. Caused by growth and activities of micro organisms, activity of food enzymes, chemical reactions in food, inappropriate storage temperature for a given food, infestation by parasites, either excessive gain or loss on moisture, reaction with oxygen, light exposure, physical stress, time.

Answer 366

Inactivating or controlling microorganisms, enzymes, reducing or eliminating chemical/physical reactions that cause food spiolage.

Answer 367

Ph - differences between moulds, yeasts and bacteria, Interference with microbial enzymes function and transportation of nutrients. Oxidation reduction potential - Eh - differences between moulds, yeasts, aerobic, anaerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria. Interference with microbiological enzymes function. Water activity - (aw) Interference with microbial cell membrane and transportation of nutrients. Nutrient content - water, sources of energy, sources of nitrogen, growth factors (minerals and vitamins), Antimicrobial constituents - in milk lactoferrin, conglutinin, lactoeroxydase system. in eggs - lysozyme. biological structure Extrinsic factors: ambient temperature, humidity of the enviroment, microbial competition, Co2, O2, O3,

Answer 368

Ambient temperature processing, processing by heat, processing by removal of heat, post processing operation. EG; Heat, cold, drying, acid, sugar, probiotics, bacteriophages, curing, micro filtration, smoke, vacuum packaging, additives, radiation, high pressure.

Answer 369

Heat treatment of 90C for 10 minutes or a time and temperature combination sufficient to kill C botulinum spores. pH of 5 or less in all parts of the food. minimum salt level of 3.5% in the water phase throughout all parts of the food. Water activity of 0.97 or less in all components of the food. combination of the controlling factors can be used at lower levels or with other preservative factors such as nitrite.

Answer 370

Products resulting from he processing of meat or from further processing of such processed products so that the cut surface shows that the product no longer has the characteristics of fresh meat. Cannot use - genital organs (except testicles), urinary organs( except kidneys and bladder) cartilage of the larynx, trachea and extra lobular bronchi, eye and eyelids, external auditory meatus, horns, Poulty: head, oesophagus, crop, intestines, genital organs.

Answer 371

Conduction: transfer of heat from the utensil heat source directly to the utensil, convection: heat transfer by convection requires movement of air or liquids. radiation: transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves. Or any of the above.

Answer 372

Moisture is an effective conductor of heat and penetrates into microbial cells and spores. heat causes denaturation of essential microbial proteins, ribosom denaturation, loss of osmotic function of microbial cell membrane, spores are more heat resistant due to their state of dehydration. Gram +ve bacteria are more heat resistant than gram -ve. Level of bacterial contamination of food influences the efficiency of heat treatment. lag and stationary phases help bacteria to be more heat resistant.

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