VPH Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q
  1. What are the zoonotic risks from sheep during the lambing period? Outline the hazards that these pose to human health, the sources and routes of transmission, and means of prevention. (30)
A
  • toxoplasmosis
    • toxoplasma gondii, protozoa of cats
    • cycles via rodenyts, humans, sheep and pig intermediates
    • 20% of sheep abortions
    • 40% seroprevalence in humans
    • transmission faeco-oral from cat faeces, or from direct contact with aborted material
    • mostly asymptomatic, rare encephalitis unless immunocompromised or pregnant (50% to fetus, 10% get triad- chorioretinitis/hydrocephalus/intracranial calcification)
    • sheep vaccine availiable, not cat vaccine yet- avoid access to sheep and feed raw meat only if frozen.
    • keep pregnant women away from sheep, especially if seronegative. dont allow pregnant women to pick up cat faeces.
  • chlamydophila abortus
    • aka enzootic abortion of ewes
    • 32% of ewe abortions
    • see pneumonitis, conjunctivitis and fever in ewes
    • transmitted through direct contact with aborted matierial
    • if affects pregnent women between 14-36 weeks will abort
    • flu-like symptoms in the immunocompromised
    • dont allow pregnant or immunocompromised women around lambing and vaccinate ewes
  • brucellosis
    • gram negative coccobacilli, facultative intracellular. generally brucella melitensis- late term abortions or brucella ovis- abortions and fertility issues
    • humans see undulating fever over months with low fertility.
    • only seen in N Ireland
  • orf
    • parapox virus
    • direct contact or fomites
    • see pustular lesions on contact area, no scarring
    • handle animals with lesions with gloves, vaccine availiable
  • cryptosporidia
    • cryptosporidiu parvum up to 50% lambs
    • humans see profuse watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, respiratory disease if immunocompromised
    • shed in lamb faeces, occysts survive well in environment, faceo-oral
    • good hygiene for humans and between batches of lambs
  • e coli
    • transmitted faeco-orally in man, formites, food, water.
    • gut commensal in adult ewes, diarrhoea and sepsis in lambs
    • causes profuse haemorrhagic diarrhoea
    • good hygiene to prevent
  • also ringworm, campylobacter, salmonella, listeriosis, q fever, anthrax and scrapie
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2
Q
  1. Describe the current methods for the surveillance and control of bovine tuberculosis in cattle in England. (30)
A

Measures applied across England

  • Combination of statutory and voluntary
  • Applied according to bTB risk in different areas

Surveillance

  • Find infection early
  • Key measures include:
    • For cattle:
      • Statutory testing
      • Slaughterhouse surveillance
    • For other domestic animals:
      • Scanning surveillance
      • Slaughterhouse inspection
      • Targeted testing of at risk animals
    • For wildlife:
      • Scanning surveillance and occasional targeted surveillance in low risk areas

Breakdown Management
Reduce risk of spread of infection
Eliminate infection quickly

  • Movement restrictions
  • Isolation and rapid removal of suspected infected animals
  • Occasional partial or complete herd depopulation
  • Increased testing in infected herds and surrounding herds
  • Tracing source and spread of infection
  • Epidemiological investigations
  • Notification of public and environmental health authorities

Dealing with risk of TB from Badgers
Reduce risk of badger to cattle and cattle to badger infection

  • Scope for privately funded licensed culling projects in areas with high and persistent levels of bTB in cattle
  • Scope for privately funded local projects involving licensed use of injectable badger vaccine
  • Voluntary on farm biosecurity measures to limit cattle and badger contact

Other Disease Prevention Reduce risk of infection spread

  • Advice and guidanceon best practice including statutory obligations
  • Sanctions
  • Statutory pre movement testing
  • Biosecure Approved Finishing Units
  • Voluntary risk based trading
  • Public health protected through milk pasteurisation,TB reactor milk ban,and slaughterhouse inspection
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3
Q
  1. List the conditions that are likely to cause splenic enlargement in pigs identified at post-mortem meat inspection. For two of these conditions describe what you are likely to find on inspection of the carcase and other offal, and what the likely judgement would be regarding fitness for human consumption. (10)
A

.

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4
Q
  1. What are the notifiable diseases of horses in the UK? Indicate which of these are zoonotic. (10)
A
  • Rabies zoonotic
  • Anthrax zoonotic
  • Equine viral arteritis
  • Equine infectious anaemia
  • Equine viral encephalomyelitis
  • Glanders and Farcy zoonotic
  • African horse sickness
  • West Nile virus zoonotic
  • vesicular stomatitis
  • Contagious equine metritis
  • Dourine
  • Epizootic lymphangitis
  • Warble fly
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5
Q
  1. List six zoonotic pathogens associated with dog faeces. For one of these pathogens, describe the clinical implications for humans and your advice for controlling infection in dogs. (10)
A
  • Giardia
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Hookworms (ancylostoma)
  • Roundworms (ascaris)
  • Tapeworm
    • Echinococcus granulosus
    • Taenia solium
    • Taenia saginata
  • Salmonella
  • E coli
  • Shigella
  • Campylobacter

Echinococcus granulosus- dog definitive host, human an intermediate host. Ingest egg, transforms into oncosphere hatches and invades intestinal wall to form hydatid cysts. These can be anywhere e.g. lungs, brain, muscle. Cysts act as SOLs and need removal. Control infection in dogs via regualar worming (fenbendazole and praziquantel) and preventing ingestion of raw offal (sheep carcasses).

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6
Q
  1. Explain why the correct identification of food producing animals is necessary. Describe the legal requirements for identification of cattle in the UK. (10)
A

why?

  • traceability
    • welfare (esp in transport), health and consumer
  • use of antimicrobials and other drug withdrawls
  • appropriate age (for BSE regulations etc)
  • biosecurity- prevents spread of disease/control programmes

Requirements

  • Cattle born after 1st Jan 1998 must be double tagged with DEFRA approved tags with an individual number
  • Born or imported before may be single tagged
  • After 1st July 2000, an all numeric tag with a crwon logo, country code, herdmark, check digit and individual animal number.
  • must be double tagged within 20 days of birth, one tag within 36 hrs (except dairy) (bison up to 9 months)
  • both tags before moving off holding
  • primary tag must be yellow, min size and letter size
  • secondary is button type in different ear.
  • lost tags must be replaced asap (no more than 28 days)
  • passport from british cattle movemen service, must apply for within 7 days of tagging. Must accompany all movements- if none, must only move to knackers yard for destruction, cant slaughter for consumption (may appeal with DNA testing)
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7
Q
  1. Identify five zoonotic pathogens that may occur in un-pasteurised milk with significant potential for transmission to humans, and describe the control procedures that can reduce the zoonotic disease risk. (10)
A
  • Brucellosis- monthly bulk tank monitoring of milking herds, pateurisation, notifiable. NI
  • Salmonellosis,
  • E. coli 0157- faecal contamination at milking, pasteruise, hygiene, chilling milk, mastitis control, disinfection of bulk tank, hygiene during transport, bacteria count on bulk milk
  • Campylobacter,
  • Staphylococcus,
  • Q fever,
  • leptospirosis- vermin control, water supply, vaccination
  • listeria- pregnant women abort, hygiene at milking, pasteurisation, cow health (biosecurity, silage pH)
  • yersinia,
  • Strep zooepidermicus,
  • mycobacterium bovis- notifiable, test and slaughter policy, monitoring at abbatoir, reactors are not allowed to put milk into tank, pasteurisation, interferon gamma milk test
  • Sources of contamination- udder (mastitis, commensal), animal exterior, milk handling equipment, personnel, chemical.
  • EU H1,H2,H3 and regs 2005 under Food Safety Act 1990.
  • On farm- cow health, hygiene in milking parlour, vermin controlled, water supply, handling and storage (max 6oC)
  • Testing- quality (protein, butterfat, lactose), bacteria count (less than 20,000 in raw milk), Ab residue, water (freeing point)
  • Collection- hygiene of tankers, disinfection, Haccp
  • Dairy processing- repeat quality, pasteurise at 72oC for 15s, uht 135oC for 1s or sterilisation, chilled storage at less than 6oC.
  • Retail- chill, package for single use, best before dates
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8
Q
  1. The owner of a large pig slaughterhouse asks you to provide an animal welfare training course for personnel handling and killing animals. Identify the subjects you would cover, briefly describing the key points you would include. (10)
A
  • 5 freedoms
    • from hunger and thirst
    • from discomfort
    • from pain injury and disease
    • to express normal behaviour
    • from rear and distress
  • regulations
    • Welfare of animals (slaughter and killing) regulations 1995 (WASK)
    • no avoidable excitation, pain or suffering caused or permitted
  • stunning
    • causes immediate loss of conciousness that lasts until death. compulsory unless religious excemption
    • once stunned, essential to slaughter asap to prevent recovery
  • mechanical stun
    • percussive blow to skull to produce brain dysfunction (percussive stunner or captive bolt)
    • must not fracture skull as could absorb energy
    • may kill animal but not guarenteed hence stun
    • minimum stun- stick time and monitor animal
    • stun position (2cm above cd eye margin in young pigs, older sows 5cm caudal and slightly off midline)
  • effective stun
    • immediate collapse, fls extended, hls tucked under, no corneal reflex, no rhythmic breathing
    • reasons for ineffective stun (position or gun) and what to do (point caudal and lateral)
  • electrical stunning
    • AC current across brain, may not be immediate eplieptic activity but should be bridged by immediate inhibition.
    • head only vs head to back (cardiac arrest, less reaction but decreased meat quality)
    • correct application and ineffective as above
  • carbon dioxide killing
    • may be killed using >70% co2 mix.
    • causes increase in blood acidity, crosses into CSF and causes loss of conciousness, longer exposure can lead to death
    • welfare contraversial as high concentration causes hyperventillation prior to nconciousness- up to 40 seconds
  • sticking
    • 50-60% total blood loss through exsanguination, lost through gravity
    • throat stick- min one carotid, NOT oesophagus and trachea
    • possible tissue sheath occlusion to blood flow
    • thoracic stick reccommended for pigs
    • severs at brachio-cephalic trunk, rapid loss of BP
    • maximum stun to stick 15 seconds
    • once bleeding no further stim for min 20 seconds or until bleeding ends
      *
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9
Q
  1. One of your dairy clients wishes to diversify and start offering visits to his farm from local school children. What are the potential hazards associated with this, and how can these risks be mitigated? (30)
A

Zoonoses

  • anthrax
  • listerisis
  • e coli
  • ringworm
  • pseudocowpox
  • campylobacter
  • cryptosporidia
  • q fever
  • leptospirosis
  • BSE
  • TB
  • taena saginata
  • brucellosis
  • salmonella

Physical injuries

  • pushed over by animals
  • kicks
  • slipping on faeces
  • slurry pit
  • moving vehicles (tractors)
  • building safety

Reducing Risks

  • allow school teachers to visit and complete their own risk assessments, and require adequate numbers of adults to accompany children
  • trained first aid staff, who can be contacted by any staff and a first aid room
  • assess gates,fencing and buildings for structural stability and to ensure safe containment of the animals
  • plan layouts and routes for visitors that will avoid danger areas and moving traffic as well as dangerous chemicals
  • clear signage and parking areas, including labelling staff only areas
  • maintain roads, prevent pot holes, advise sensible footwear
  • ensure adequate ahndwashing facilities and ensure group leaders responsible for good quality hand washing before eating and warn about risks of petting animals and putting hands in mouths
  • ensure cuts and abrasions covered to reduce entry of biological agents
  • paths, gates and fences regularly cleaned and disinfected, vistor areas kept clean of urine and faeces, farm kept as clean as practicable.
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10
Q
  1. Under the legislation carcase meat produced in abattoirs need to be produced using the principles of HACCP. What do you understand by this statement and who is responsible for HACCP? Using the example of a slaughterhouse killing beef cattle, describe how HACCP is likely to be implemented to ensure food safety. (30)
A

HACCP is hazard analysis and critical control points to ensure food safety. They are ways to reduce the risks to public health associated with food production. The owner of the abbatoir is responsible for implementing HACCP.

  1. idenitfy hazards
  2. idenitfy CCPs
  3. critical limits for CCPs
  4. monitoring systems
  5. corrective action if CCP not controlled
  6. verify working
  7. documentation and records

So a risk anaysis will be performed to identify hazards

  • faecal contamination of carcasses
  • disease infected carcasses
  • hide and fleece contamination
  • aerosols and sprays
  • contaminated hands or equipment
  • spilling of body fluids

identify critical control points

  • recieving animals
    • animals should be clean, can wash any animals that are unclean or leave them on a deep straw bed overnight
    • monitor visually
  • sticking
    • smallest possible cut to minimise contamination, two knife system to allow one to be sterilised (>82oC), clean hands inbetween
    • monitor temperature of water bath, visually check contamination, if not adequate stop slaughter until corrected.
  • hide/fleece removals
    • hygeine when handling skin, remove visible contamination at cut line, prevent contamination
    • monitor visually, wash or trim contamination
  • bunging
    • cut around rectum to free, tied off to prevent spillage of faecal material
    • visually monitor, trim or wash contamination
  • brisket opening
    • clean and sterilise brisket saw/knife between carcases, dont puncture GI tract
    • reject if punctured, monitor temperature of water bath
  • head removal
    • prevent contamination of GI tract, SRM, wash inside surface of head before outside
    • visually assess
  • rodding the weasand
    • closing oseophagus,hyguene and change/sterilise equipment between
    • visually monitor
  • evisceration
    • avoid contamination, avoid puncturing with knives
    • remove contamination quickly
  • carcase splitting
    • clean and sterilise saw between carcases
    • separate carcases well to prevent cross contamination
  • removal of SRM
    • spinal cord, tonsils, intestines, spleen, head and eyes
    • reduces risk of BSE transmisson
    • appropriate PPE when separating out
  • PMI
    • to avoid selling diseased meat to consumers,
    • acts as final CCP check
  • carcase quickly cooled to 7oC
    • in case of microscopic contamination to prevent bacterial growth and meat spoilage
  • a high number of animals faiing PMI would imply that earlier CCPS are not working. Documentation must exist to identify teh slaughtered animals and then each carcase is numbred and identified.
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11
Q
  1. Why are animal by-products (ABP) controlled by legislation? List the categories of ABP, and for each category give two examples of a typical by-product and explain how material in each category should be disposed of. (10)
A

To ensure that no animal product that is potentially dangerous or unfit for human consumption makes it into the human food chain, where it could cause a risk to human health.

  • Category 1- SRM-all mesentry and tonsils if beef, if 12 months then CNS and eyes, brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column, dorsal root ganglia if 30 months or over. Sheep and goats, ileum and spleen with skull, and tonsils and spinal cord if over 12 months. Also carcasses suspected of TSE infection, experimental animal carcasses, international catering waste, carcasses contaminated with illegal treatments.
    • Processed then permanent staining using patent blue then incineration
  • Category 2- animals rejected from abattoirs due to infectious disease, carcasses containing authorised treatment residues, unhatched poultry in shell, carcasses killed for disease control, carcasses of dead livestock, digestive tract content.
    • incineration (must be stained brilliant blue if rendered) can be used for biogas or fertiliser
  • Category 3- carcasses or body parts passed fit for humans to eat at slaughterhouse, withdrawn for commercial reasons, domestic catering waste, hides and skins from slaughterhouse, eggs, egg by products, aquatic animals, feathers
    • can be used for animal consumption, or incinerated
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12
Q
  1. Describe the inspection of an 18 month-old steer in an EC approved slaughterhouse to ascertain if it is fit for human consumption. (10)
A
  • to enable OV to decide if fit for human consumption
  • if not undergone then unfit for human consumption unless wild game
  • Food business operators duties H2 (EC 853/2004)
  • Competent authority MHS requirements H3 EC 854/2004
  • Food chain information must be recieved
  • observe animal moving and at rest
    • neuro signs
    • respiratory signs
    • alimentary abnormalities
    • lameness
    • external abnormalities
    • fatigue/stress (rest min 24hrs)
    • suspicious illegal substances administered
  • more thorough inspection of all abnormal animals
  • need light, space, acess, separation facitilties when needed, isolation pens, staff, time, equipment
  • within 24hrs of arrival at slaughterhouse, less than 24 hours before slaughter (may need to be repeated)
  • can be done by OV on farm if FCI recieved and MHI satisfied no problems
  • must be clean, correctly identifiable
  • incise masseters, palpate tongue, palpate diaphragm, inspect pluck (trachea lungs and heart), incise heart and lungs, inspection of internal cavities for visible lesions. PSE, oedema, sepsis, inspect.
  • health mark
  • cold immediately, freeze if suspicion
    *
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13
Q
  1. Outline the methods used to stun and slaughter sheep in UK slaughterhouses. Assess the methods with regards to hygiene and welfare. (10)
A
  • mechanical stun
    • causes brain dysfunction, cant fracture skull as could absorb some energy and not create adequate trauma to brain
    • will often kill but may not hence stun
    • effective stun see loss of rhythmic breathing, collapse, rigid FLs, tucked under HLs, loss of corneal reflex.
    • position of ideal stun depends if horned or not (highest point of head aiming ventral if hornless, horned- further back aiming to base of tongue, horned animals must be bled within 15 seconds (pith if any doubt)
      • percussive stun
        • force designed to be in excess of required, may not recover
      • captive bolt
        • as percussive
      • risk of ineffective stun if gun problems or poor positioning, must have second gun ready
  • electrical stun
    • puts an electric current across the brain to induce epileptiform activity, this can be slightly delayed but AC induces inhibitory effect
      • head only
      • head to back- may cause cardiac arrest as well, reduced meat quality, less reaction
  • exsanguination
    • maximum stun to stick 15 seconds
      • throat stick
        • aim to sever at least one carotid or long time to loss of responsiveness, cannot incise oesophagus and trachea, possible for muscle sheath to occlude blood flow
        • lack of vertebral artery means much quicker loss of reposniveness (15s)
      • thoracic stick
        • rarely used, severs brachio-cephalic trunk
  • religious slaughter
    • kosher and some halal non stunned
    • must use proper restraint to ensure clean cut and so cant lose posture that aids bleeding out
    • cut from sharp knife painful? worse if cut ragged as cut edges rub together, inconcievable that some pain not felt
  • dont touch after exanguination for 20s or until bled out (whichever is longer)
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14
Q
  1. List five zoonotic infections of relevance when working with breeding pigs, for each of these give a brief statement on the appropriate means of prevention (10)
A
  • Erysipelas
    • vaccinate
  • E coli
    • hygiene, wash hands before eating
  • campylobacter
    • hygiene, wash hands before eating
  • swine flu
    • avoid close contact with infected pigs, appropriate PPE
  • taenia solium
    • dont eat raw meat or cysts, worm pigs with fenbedazole/ praziquantel
  • ringworm
    • avoid contact with lesions, wear gloves
  • listeriosis
  • leptospirosis
    • avoid contact with infectedurine into wounds
  • salmonella
    • hygiene
  • trichonella
    • worm pigs
  • anthrax
    • dont cut into sudden death carcases that could be, methelne blue stain
  • streptococcus suis
    • care handling ill pigs
  • brucellosis
    • care when handling aborted matierial
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15
Q
  1. List the important parasites of dogs, with significance for public health, in the UK. Outline an applicable preventive health programme. (10)
A
  • hookworms (ancyclostoma)
  • roundworms (ascaris)
    • toxacara canis
    • toxacara leonina
    • unchinaria
  • tapeworms
    • echinococcus granulosus
    • echinococcus multilocularis
    • taenia hydatigena
    • diplydium caninum (rarely zoonotic, flea tapeworm)
  • trichuris vulpis
  • lungworm (angiostrongylus vasorum, aerulostrongylus vasorum)
  • heartworm (dirofilaria immitis) not uk
  • fleas
  • sarcoptes scabeii

treatment depends on likely exposure (eg eating snails), some less pathogenic or less likely to be zoonotic

oral vs spot on

fenbendazole (5 day course), praziquantel (good for tapeworms), pyrantel, moxidectin, imidacloprid, milbemycin oxime, lufenuron, pirperazine, selamectin, fipronil often needed monthly

tick repellants

minimise scavenging

treat the house fipronil

raise awareness

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16
Q
  1. State the typical routes for transmission of E. coli O157:H7 to humans (2 marks). Describe the interventions along the food-chain that can reduce human exposure, (22 marks), identifying any relevant pieces of legislation where appropriate (6 marks).
A

.

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17
Q

a) Animal welfare is considered in terms of the “Five Freedoms”. List them. (5 marks) b) Identify the key decision points in determining whether a lame 20-month old bullock can be either transported alive to slaughter or slaughtered on-farm for human consumption. (20 marks) c) What legislation is in place to protect farm animal welfare on farm, in transport and at the slaughterhouse? (5 marks)

A

Freedom from hunger and thirst Freedom from pain injury and disease Freedom from discomfort Freedom to behave normally Freedom from fear and distress Key decision points relate to WATO 2006 - Excemptions- not in relation to economic activity (not here) - to or from vets (not here) -pets or individual animals when accompanied by owner (not here) - farmers transporting their own animals less than 50km (possible) Fitness to travel- No animal must be transported unless fit to travel NOT if- cant walk - open wound/prolapse -(over 90% gestation, parturition in past week or newborn navel not healed) Sick/injured animals may be fit if- - only slightly, and transport WOULD NOT CAUSE ADDITIONAL SUFFERING. Needs to be separate with deep bed and nearest suitable slaughterhouse. -part of research -under vet supervision, following treatment or diagnosis No sedatives unless strictly to ensure welfare Assessed for fitness before journey starts Final responsibility with driver/keeper Basic vehicle- 8 hours max Vehicle requires ramp angle, partition, surface, ventilation, temperature, data monitoring Transporter requires authorisation and documentation as well as written declaration from owner giving details and medical history On farm for human consumption is for emergency slaughter only and the carcass must be sent with a veterinary certificate required by regulation 19 of the fresh meat (hygiene and inspection) regs 1992. Only if transport would cause unnecessary suffering. Needs to be via vet or licensed slaughterer, bled and transported within 1 hour or between 0 and 4oC. It must be generally fit, no sign of systemic disease and the lameness should be of recent onset. Legislation on farm- Welfare of Farmed animals regulations 2007 (under animal welfare act 2006) at transport- Welfare of animals transport (England) order 2006 (WATO) at slaughterhouse- Welfare of Animal Slaughter or killing regulations 1995 (WASK) NOW EU regulation 1099/2009 protection of animals at time of killing with Welfare of animals at time of killing (WATOK) 2013

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18
Q
  1. List the notifiable diseases of pigs. For each one state 1 prominent and typical clinical sign beyond dullness, depression, or mortality. (10)
A
  • anthrax
    • oropharyngitis- swelling of throat that may lead to suffocation
  • rabies
    • excessive salivation, muscular tremors
  • teschen
    • HL paresis progressing to paralysis
  • aujeszkys
    • abortion, pneumonia, nervous signs
  • african swine fever
    • high fever, cyanotic extremities, skin haemorrhages
  • classical swine fever
    • HL paresis, high fever, V, D, purple skin
  • foot and mouth disease
    • vesicle formation on mouth and feet- lameness
  • vesicular stomatitis
    • as FMD, drooling saliva
  • swine vesicular disease
    • as FMD and VS
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19
Q
  1. State the requirements of DEFRA’s Pet Travel Scheme for an owner intending to enter the UK from France with their dog. (10)
A
  • Must be a dog (canis lupis familiaris), not wolf hybrid etc
  • Microchip BEFORE rabies vac
  • Vaccination against rabies, must be over 12 weeks old, boosters in accordance with data sheets
  • A pet passport issued by an OV with unique number
  • A waiting period following primary vaccination of 21 days (vac on day 0)
  • Treatment against Echinococcus Multilocularis tapeworm 24-120 hours before arriving in the UK (praziquantel)
  • Must declare they do not intend to sell or transfer ownership of pet (must use Balai directive instead)
  • Must travel within 5 days of pet movement, vet must record passport number, location of chip, signalment and description name and contact info of owner
  • Fitness to travel may be demanded by courier.
  • Other vaccinations do not have to be filled in.
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20
Q
  1. Identify 3 clinical presentations of anthrax in humans. Identify 2 likely sources of exposure for humans in Africa and 2 possible sources of exposure for humans in the UK. List 3 important steps leading to confirmation of a suspected case of anthrax in a bovid in England. (10)
A
  • cutaneous
    • small blisters/bumps that itch, progressing to ulcer with black centre
  • pulmonary
    • fever and chills
  • gastrointestinal
    • nausea and vomiting, esp haemorrhagic also D
    • swelling of abdomen
    • red face and eyes

Africa

  • drink contaminated water
  • infects a cut
  • close contact with infected livestock

Uk

  • drug user (IV injections)
  • veterinary post mortems

Suspect

  • contact AHPA immediately
    • do not move skin or open carcass
    • disinfect any blood or fluids
    • isolate incontacts
    • dont drink contaminated milk
  • if necessary take a blood smear from superficial vein (one to be stained with methylene blue, two unstained and two swabs) to look for spore forming bacilli
  • seal all orifices with cotton wool soaked in disinfectant
  • AHPA VI will visit to confirm
  • look for cause
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21
Q
  1. Outline the causes, consequences, and corrective actions on detecting ‘pale soft exudative’ meat in a pig carcase in a cutting plant. (10)
A
  • All meat falls in pH after slaughter from 7.5, normally it should fall to 5.5 over 6 hours. PSE occurs when this happens in about 1 hour- due to too much glucose being available in the muscle. If glucose is still available it will contract when chilled- chill slowly.
  • It is not harmful to the consumer, but both customers and processers are likely to avoid it as it looks undesirable and forms poor quality processed products.
  • The most severe PSE pork may come from pigs suffering from porcine systemic stress syndrome normally paler (due to protein degeneration), but less fluidy than PSE from normal pigs.
  • PSE worse in summer with variable climate, affected by handling and stress. A cold water shower before slaughter may cause PSE or severe rough handling or electrical prodding. Want minimal reflex struggling.
  • May not be worth sorting carcasses as costs money. Sort carcasses after 24 hours before cutting to reliably find PSE carcasses
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22
Q
  1. Identify 10 points that contribute to the responsible use of antimicrobials on livestock farms, in the context of minimising antimicrobial resistance. (10)
A
  • work with clients to avoid need for antimicrobial use
    • heard health plans
    • general good management
  • avoid inappropriate use
    • mild viral infections
    • blanket use in healthy animals
  • avoid underdosing
  • complete course
    • client education
  • identify target organisms and predict susceptibility
    • dont just use one drug for all eventualitys
  • monitor sensitivity
  • minimise prohphylactic use
  • minimise perioperative use (clean surgery as far as possible)
  • meticulous records- justify choices
    *
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23
Q
  1. State the clinical appearance of Erysipelas rhusiopathiae infection in humans (2 marks). Which animal species and related gross pathology are likely sources for human infection? (6 marks) What preventive advice would you give to persons who may be exposed to this organism? (2 marks)
A
  • known as erysipeloid
  • infection occurs via contamination of wounds, or nail beds, normally on hands and causes a painful raised cellulitis that is highly puritic, characterised by erythema and oedema.
  • in some cases can infect deeper and cause sepsis, arthritis of fingers
  • mainly from pigs, but also possible from lambs, calves, fowl and dolphins
  • shed in faeces from infected pigs, also in their environment, water supply, urine, naso-oral secretions
  • can see haemorrhagic disease including diamond shaped skin disease
  • primarily via direct contact with infected animals- occupational zoonoses for vets, abbatoir worers and fishermen
  • also possible by eating undercooked pork
  • cover cuts on hand, wear gloves around suspected animals, wash hands regularly
  • if suspect infection seek medical attention
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24
Q

100 pigs were delivered to a slaughterhouse and on arrival the Official Veterinary Surgeon noticed that around 15% were severely tail bitten. In addition some were lame. What further actions are necessary a) at the slaughterhouse and b) in terms of advice to the producer? (30)

A

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25
Identify the 2 brucella species most likely to be associated with human disease, diagnosed in the UK. For each species describe the most likely route of exposure and how the zoonotic risk is managed. (30)
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26
Write short notes on the diagnosis, management and human health implications of Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) psittaci in birds. (10)
* parrot fever or chlamydiosis caused by intracellular chlamydophila psittaci * Transmission is through inhalation of dust, dander and nasal secretions of infected birds * respiratory disease of birds, nasal/ocular discharges and diarrhoea * possible to show no signs and be a carrier * leukocytosis, anaemia, evelvated SGOT, LDH and ALT * faecal analysis, blood analysis, immunoflourescence testing, PCR * treat using tetracyclines on a long course, monitor calcium * In humans: abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, loss of appetite, shortness of breath, malaise, myalgia, and conjunctivitis * prevent by quarentine, avoid inhaling dust/ dander of potentially ill birds
27
Write short notes on the reduction of human infection by E coli 0157 H7 from minced beef (10)
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28
List 3 bite associated zoonotic infections. For each infection, identify the typical reservoir species and highlight any specific veterinary public health issues relating to that infection (10)
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29
Identify 3 Leptospira serovars that are able to infect humans. For one of these describe the clinical presentation in the reservoir species, its mode of transmission to humans, and give advice on reducing the public health risk (10)
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30
A 20 mnth old bullock is submitted to the abattoir as a positive reactor in the herd intradermal tuberculin test. As OVS inspecting the carcase, what gross pathology will you be seeking, where might the pathology be located, and what judgement options are available for the carcase. (10)
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31
Outline your response on suspicion of anthrax in a 6 month old bullock found dead. (10)
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32
Describe the State Veterinary Service's current methods for the surveillance and control of bovine tuberculosis in cattle in the UK. Identify the two most important routes by which infection may be transferred to humans, and describe appropriate control measures. (30)
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33
describe the seven principles of Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points (HACCP) plan and the generic means by which such a plan is implemented. Explain how implementation of HACCP can reduce contamination of fresh pig meat by salmonella. (30)
* identify hazards * identify critical control points * establish acceptable limits for CCPs * establish appropriate corrective actions * establish monitoring for CCPS * establish verification procedures * correct documentation
34
Your local district council, in herefordshire, has asked your practice to contribute written justification for their anti-dog fouling policy. List six zoonotic pathogens associated with dog feaces. For one of them, descibre the clinical implications for humans and your advice on controlling infection in dogs. (10)
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35
why must veterinarians use antimicrobials prudently? List four considerations relating to the prudent selection and four considerations relating to prudent implementation, of antimicrobial treatments. (10)
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36
List the clinical features of Listeriosis in sheep. How would you confirm your diagnosis? List the steps you would advise in order to protect public health. (10)
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37
Taking into account the entire food chain, list five most likely routes for transmission of Salmonella from cattle (and their products) to humans. For each route identify a means for control (10)
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38
Give two examples each of clinical waste and special waste material generated in veterinary practice. What constitutes the veterinarians 'duty of care' with respect to these terms? (10)
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39
how does erysipelothric rhuisopathiae present in humans? Identify four non-human reservoir species. For two of these species, describe the typical presentation of infections and how transmission to humans might be minimized. (10)
* known as erysipeloid * infection occurs via contamination of wounds, or nail beds, normally on hands and causes a painful raised cellulitis that is highly puritic, characterised by erythema and oedema. * in some cases can infect deeper and cause sepsis, arthritis of fingers * mainly from pigs, but also possible from lambs, calves, fowl and dolphins * shed in faeces from infected pigs, also in their environment, water supply, urine, naso-oral secretions * can see haemorrhagic disease including diamond shaped skin disease * acute sepsis- fever anorexia vomiting lethargy * polyarthritis in lambs and calves * bluecomb sepsis in turkeys * primarily via direct contact with infected animals- occupational zoonoses for vets, abbatoir worers and fishermen * also possible by eating undercooked pork * cover cuts on hand, wear gloves around suspected animals, wash hands regularly * if suspect infection seek medical attention
40
The national farmers union have asked you to address one of their monthyly meetings with the title "dealing with casualty animals - akaing decisions based on legal requirements" Outline the points you would cover in your talk. (30)
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41
Following an outbreak of sickness and diarrhoea after a school visit to two local farms, your fellow governors at a large comprehensive school have asked you to draw up a discussion document detailing (1) disease agents of most concern on open farms, (2) their significance and (3) the precautions that you recommend should be applied to future visits where the children come into contact with farm livestock. (30)
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42
An outbreak of food poisoning involving over 100 people, two of whom have died, was found to be due to Salmonella Typhimurium.. The finger of suspicion is pointing at a Food Business producing, along with other products, cooked whole chicken. Outline the likely steps invovled in the Food Business's internal investigation. (10)
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43
List the measure used to control Taenia saginata and Taenia solium in Britain. Outline the reasons for the continued presence of T.saginata in Britiain, the absence of T.solium and the likelyhood that T.solium could return to and cycle like T.saginata in Britain. (10)
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44
A small country slaughterhouse has for some time had problems with its water supply. Mains water is not available and the owner relies on two wells which in summertime struggle to provide enough water. In the past he has supplemented the supply of water by taking limited amounts from a nearby stream. Indentify five possible hazards to food safety and outline your advice based on the legal considerations. (10)
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45
A local farmers discussion group has asked you to address on eof their monthly meetings on "the disease risk to farmers and farm livestock from the farm dog". List five hazards you would include and , for each, give one sentence on prevention. (10)
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46
A bovine carcase is presented in a small country slaughterhouse. There is engorgement of the superficial veins and the carcases appears a fiery red colour. In addition there are ecchymoses throughout the body tissues and a large haemorrhagic spleen. Give two possiblities, outlining the actions and consequences for protecting human or animal health in each case. (10)
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47
Identify (a) five zoonotic pathognes occurring in un-pasturised milk with significant potential for transmission to humans and (b) for each named pathogen identify the applicable methods employed to protect consumer health. (10)
Brucellosis, Salmonellosis, E. coli 0157, Campylobacter, Staphylococcus, Q fever, leptospirosis, listeria, yersinia, Strep zooepidermicus, mycobacterium bovis Sources of contamination- udder (mastitis, commensal), animal exterior, milk handling equipment, personnel, chemical. EU H1,H2,H3 and regs 2005 under Food Safety Act 1990. On farm- cow health, hygiene in milking parlour, vermin controlled, water supply, handling and storage (max 6oC) Testing- quality (protein, butterfat, lactose), bacteria count (less than 20,000 in raw milk), Ab residue, water (freeing point) Collection- hygiene of tankers, disinfection, Haccp Dairy processing- repeat quality, pasteurise at 72oC for 15s, uht 135oC for 1s or sterilisation, chilled storage at less than 6oC. Retail- chill, package for single use, best before dates
48
1. What is the Pet Travel Scheme (PETS)? (5 marks) List the pathogens the scheme specifically aims to prevent, describing their clinical signs and routes of transmission (15 marks). What are the requirements of the scheme and explain how they prevent the introduction of these pathogens into the UK (10 marks).
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49
2. For each of the following zoonotic disease scenarios briefly describe the clinical signs found in animals, the risks of transmission to, and clinical signs in humans. What advice would you give to the clients in each of the cases? a) A married couple with 2 young children (aged 4 and 6) present a 10 week old kitten with ringworm on its paws and face. (10 marks) b) A 120 cow dairy herd has several animals diagnosed with Salmonella Typhimurium. (10 marks) c) An elderly client presents with a parrot recently diagnosed with psittacosis. (10 marks)
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50
List ten factors involved in the emergence (re-emergence) of novel zoonotic infections. (10)
* Environmental changes * increases in temperature allowing vector movement and survival * increased international travel and trade * allows exposure of naive people/animals and to bring infection home * pathogen changes * antigentic drift/shift eg influenza, recombination in different animals * changes in farming practice * increased intensity, expanding into wild environments * uncontrolled urbanization * people moving to live closer to the tropics, exposed to animals and vectors that they werent before * poor sewage control * allows for quick spread of faeco-oral disease, mixing of animal waste * food habits * raw foods, cultural delicacies/ medicines * religious beliefs * slaughter methods, delicacies * increasing populations * people libing in more confined spaces * antibiosis causing resistance and driving disease change
51
Outline the principles of the “cascade” in prescribing veterinary medicinal products for food producing animals in the UK. (10)
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52
4. List the diseases of cattle that are notifiable in the UK. (10)
* Anthrax * Rabies * Aujeszkys * Bovine TB * Warble fly * FMD * Vesicular stomatitis * Bluetongue * Rinderpest * BSE * Brucellosis (abortus) * contagious bovine pleuropneumonia * enzootic bovine leukosis * lumpy skin disease * rift valley fever
53
. Animal Welfare. a) List the “five freedoms”. (3 marks) b) Briefly explain (in one sentence) the aims of animal welfare legislation. (2 marks) c) What legislation is in place to protect farm animal welfare on farm through to the slaughterhouse? For each piece of legislation, name the competent authority responsible for enforcement. (5 marks)
* from hunger and thirst * from pain injury and disease * to express normal behaviour * from fear and distress * from discomfort * aims to prevent any unreasonable suffering , applicable to living vertebrates under a persons control and allows preventative action * Farm * Welfare of farmed animals in england 2007, covered by AHPA * Transport * WATO 2006, EC 1/2005 covered by TSO * Slaughterhouse * WASK 1995 (now covered by EC 1099/2009 and WATOK 2013 to be implemented soon), covered by AHPA and FSA
54
Give five basic requirements of the Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations 2002, in the context of a small animal practice. (10)
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55
.You are presented with an outbreak of sudden onset increased mortality on a 200 bird organic free range poultry farm. a) State two possible notifiable diseases that should be excluded. (2 marks) b) What diagnostic investigations would be required to confirm these two diseases and which competent authority is responsible for this work? (3 marks) c) For one of these diseases, give five bullet point sentences to describe the steps following positive diagnostic confirmation. (5 marks)
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56
One of your clients reports abortions in his sheep. List the zoonotic pathogens that you consider in this context in the UK. Briefly describe the clinical signs in sheep and humans and propose control options to reduce the risk of infection in sheep and humans in the event of pathogen confirmation both in the current and future lambing seasons. (30)
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57
Following an outbreak of sickness and diarrhoea after a school visit to a local dairy farm, the school’s principle has asked you to draw up a discussion document detailing: the most likely disease agents and their significance in humans and animals the precautions that you recommend should be applied to future visits where the children come into contact with farm livestock, and are there any legal obligations placed on the farmer or the school? (30)
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58
Describe the action required at routine post mortem meat inspection on finding: a) Over-scalding in poultry b) Emaciated sheep carcase c) Ox liver with chronic fascioliasis d) Badly bled pig carcase e) Badly bruised deer carcase (10)
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59
List the zoonotic pathogens that may be shed in faeces of healthy dogs in the UK? For one of them, describe the clinical implications for humans and your advice on controlling infection in dogs (10)
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60
What are the seven principles of the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) system? Briefly describe how the application of HACCP ensures food safety. (10)
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61
How does Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae infection present in humans? Identify potential non-human reservoir species in the UK and describe the typical presentation of infection in each of these species. How might transmission to humans be prevented? (10)
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62
Why must veterinarians use antimicrobials prudently (with careful judgement)? List four considerations relating to prudent selection and four considerations relating to prudent implementation of antimicrobial treatments. (10)
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63
Briefly outline the public health concerns associated with Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE). What are the differential diagnoses for this disease in cattle? What steps are in place in the UK to reduce the possibility of human consumption of BSE-infected products? (10)
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64
A single lame bullock, aged 23 months, arrives in a cattle trailer at the abattoir where you work as Official Veterinarian (OV). The animal is reported to be lame on both hind legs. What steps will you take in evaluation of this case? Present 2 differential diagnoses for the cause of lameness, discussing the consequences in each case. (30)
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65
. The Senior Partner at the mixed practice where you work has asked you to prepare an information sheet for the Practice Website (Zoonoses Section) on the topic of Toxoplasma. Outline the hazard it poses to human health, the sources and routes of transmission, and means of prevention. (30)
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66
A lorry carrying 5000 broilers in crates has arrived at the abattoir where you are OV. When unloaded it is clear that a significant number of the birds are sick. Over 10% are already dead and many of the remainder are dull, dyspnoeic, and have profuse nasal discharge. Avian influenza is suspected. List 10 steps that should be taken, each with an explanatory sentence, from the point of suspicion through to repopulation of the farm. (10)
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67
Write short notes on veterinary public health aspects of animal bites in the UK, considering the causes, consequences, and prevention of 3 examples. (10)
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68
Cryptosporidium was reported as a cause of intestinal disease in more than 5,000 people in 2005. What are the primary sources and routes of infection for humans. What steps may be taken to prevent infection. (10)
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69
Why are animal by-products controlled by legislation? List the categories of animal byproduct. For each category, give 2 examples of a typical by-product and explain how material in each category should be disposed of. (10)
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70
. The Principal of the local agricultural college, concerned about Health and Safety, asks you to evaluate the infectious risks to students when working on their pig breeding unit. List 5 zoonotic infections of relevance, giving a brief statement on appropriate means for prevention in the students. (10)
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71
Write short notes on the human health implications of Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) psittaci transmitted from birds. How is the disease diagnosed in birds and what are the key aspects of management. (10)
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72
A client, whose 8 year old child is due to undergo liver transplantation, calls you for advice about the safety of continuing to keep the family’s 2 year old Labrador as a family pet. Describe your response. (30 marks)
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73
. Your local branch of the National Farmers’ Union in Cornwall has asked you to speak at its next meeting on the subject of ‘Farm-gate sales of unpasteurised milk: a risk based approach to hygienic supply’. Describe your approach. (30 marks)
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74
Identify the subjects and briefly describe the key points you would include in a welfare training course for personnel handling and killing animals at a large pig slaughterhouse. (10)
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75
Identify the key decision points in determining the eligibility of a lame 20 month old bullock for on-farm emergency slaughter. (10)
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76
Taking into account the entire food chain, list the 5 most likely routes for transmission of Salmonella from cattle (and their products) to humans. For each route, identify a means for control. (10)
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77
List the clinical features of Listeriosis in cattle. How would you confirm your diagnosis? List the steps you would advise in order to protect public health. (10)
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78
List the three most important sources of infection with Trichinella spp. in the EU indicating the broad geographic areas in which you might find each source. Discuss control of Trichinella giving due consideration to differences between the variety of countries in the EU from eastern through to western Europe. (10)
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79
Clinical signs, possibly indicating Foot and Mouth Disease, are noted in a group of pigs being unloaded for slaughter at an abattoir. What initial actions would you expect from the Official Veterinarian? What subsequent actions would you expect to be taken if Foot and Mouth Disease is confirmed at the premises? (10)
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80
The Senior Partner at the mixed practice where you work has asked you to prepare an information sheet for the Practice Website (Zoonoses Section) on the topic of Toxoplasma. Outline the hazard it poses to human health, the sources and routes of transmission, and means of prevention. (30)
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81
100 pigs were delivered to a slaughterhouse and on arrival the Official Veterinary Surgeon noticed that around 15% were severely tail bitten. In addition some were lame. What further actions are necessary (a) at the slaughterhouse, and (b) in terms of advice to the producer? (30)
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82
Why are animal by-products (ABP) controlled by legislation? List the categories of animal byproduct. For each category, give two examples of a typical by-product and for each category give the required method of disposal. (10)
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83
The Principal of the local agricultural college, concerned about Health and Safety, asks you to evaluate the infectious risks to students when working on their pig breeding unit. List five zoonotic infections of relevance, giving a brief statement on appropriate means for prevention in the students. (10)
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84
Write short notes on the diagnosis, management, and human health implications of Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) psittaci in birds. (10)
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85
Why is immunosuppression an important factor in the emergence and transmission of zoonotic diseases? List three clinical features that might result from underlying immunosuppression. List five possible causes of immunosuppression. (10)
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86
Identify three Leptospira serovars that are able to infect humans. For one of these describe the clinical presentation in the reservoir species, its mode of transmission to humans, and give advice on reducing the public health risk. (10)
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87
A 20 month old bullock is submitted to the abattoir as a positive reactor in the herd intradermal tuberculin test. As an OVS inspecting the carcass, what gross pathology will you be seeking, where might the pathology be located. What are the judgment options available for the carcass and offal.(10)
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88
Discuss the pathogenesis and zoonotic potential of toxoplasmosis. How can this be controlled?
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89
How can therapy dogs present a zoonotic risk for owners , what factors determine the likelyhood of shedding and transmission and what advice would you give to owners to prevent this disease
* bacterial GI disease * salmonella * cryptosporidium * giardia * campylobacter * e coli * viral GI disease * rotavirus * coronavirus * parasitic disease * ancyclostoma * toxacara canis (or leonidea) * echinococcus granulosus * echinococcus multilocularis * taenia hydatigena * other * tick associated disease (erhlichiosis, borelliosis, q fever) * ringworm * ectoparasites (fleas, sarcoptes scabeii) * leptospirosis * leihmaniasis (if travelled abroad) * skin bacerial infections * MRSA * staphs * streps * pseudomonas many of these produce mild disease if any in normal people, but therapy dogs are more likely to be associated with people with various levels of immunosuppression and thus risk causing severe disease. factors determining likelyhood of shedding- stress, disease level of the dog, level of contact prevent via * appropriate contact (no licking face etc!) * minimise stress for dog, one person at a time, naturally friendly dog, allow to choose not to interact., regular rest * wash hands after handling * clean bedding, regular anthelminitcs, no foreign travel, minimial contact with vermn etc, no concurrent disease causing dog immunosupression or well treated, regular vet checks, vaccinations, keep away from unvaccinated dogs, dont take if any signs of ill health, especially vominting and diarrhoea
90
Discuss the zoonotic diseases associated with rats in small animal and farm practice.
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91
Discuss the zoonotic idseases of rabbits.
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92
Discuss the zoonotic diseases of reptiles and how you would minimise them?
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93
Discuss the causes of ewe abortion that can be zoonotic and list appropriate actions when an abortion occurs
* toxoplasmosis * listeria monocytogenes * salmonella * EAE * klebsiella * keep any pregnant women away from the ewes, also immunosuppressed * isolate aborted ewe and treat to reduce shedding * achieve an appropriate diagnosis and act accordingly to protect the rest of the flock * change equipment and clothing and dont take anything off the site
94
Discuss the potential tick bourne diseases
* borellosis (boriella burgdorferi in UK) * Q fever * babesia * erlichiosis (anaplasma) * tick bourne encephalitis * tuleraemia * crimean congo fever * staphs
95
Discuss the principles of certification
1. A veterinarian should be asked to certify only those matters which are within his own knowledge, can be ascertained by him personally. 2. Should not sign anything relating to matters which cannot be verified by the signatory. 3. Veterinarians should not issue when there is a possible conflict of interest 4. All certificates should be written in terms which are as simple and easy to understand as possible. 5. Certificates should not use words or phrases which are capable of more than one interpretation. 6. Certificates should be: a. produced on one sheet of paper or, where more than one page is required, in such a form that any two or more pages are part of an integrated whole and indivisible; b. given a unique number, with records being retained by the issuing authority of the persons to whom certificates bearing particular numbers were supplied. 7. Certificates should be written in the language of the veterinarian signing them, and accompanied by an official translation if neccessary. 8. Certificates should identify animals individually. 9. Certificates should not require a veterinarian to certify that there has been compliance with the law of the European Union or a third country unless the provisions of the law are set out clearly on the certificate or have been provided to him by the issuing authority. 10. Where appropriate, notes for guidance should be provided to the certifying veterinarian by the issuing authority. 11. Certificates should always be issued and presented in the original. Photocopies are not acceptable unless clearly marked copy or duplicate. 12. When signing a certificate, a veterinarian should ensure that: a. he signs, stamps and completes any manuscript portions in a colour of ink which does not readily photocopy, ie a colour other than black; b. the certificate contains no deletions or alterations, and any must be initialled and stamped by the certifying veterinarian; c. the certificate bears not only his signature but also, in clear lettering, his name, qualifications and address and (where appropriate) his official or practice stamps; d. the certificate bears the date on which the certificate was signed and issued e. no portion of the certificate is left blank .
96
What should you do on presentation of a bovine heart with small white cysts
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97
Notifiable diseases in pigs and a clinical signs associated with each.
African Swine Fever - High fever and depression, coughing and respiratory distress, diarrhoea (occasionally bloody), nervous disease and haemorrhages throughout the body. Anthrax - Painful swelling in the throat, anorexia, sudden death. Aujeszky's Disease - Baby piglets tend to show nervous disease (inco-ordination and shivering) and high mortality. Weaners and growers present with respiratory disease. Adults can show respiratory disease but also produce a range of reproductive problems including stillbirths, mummifications and abortion. Bovine TB - Asymptomatic, maybe some mild pulmonary signs. Classical Swine Fever - High fever and depression, congenital tremors in newborns, coughing and respiratory distress, diarrhoea (occasionally bloody), nervous disease and haemorrhages throughout the body Foot and Mouth Disease - Acute lameness with a reluctance to stand, depression and inappetance. Blisters on coronary band. Swine influenza - sneezing, coughing and difficulty breathing, abortions (in some cases), increased discharge from eyes or nose, high temperature loss of appetite, weakness, swollen and red eyes. Swine Vesicular Disease - Vesicles between toes and on the coronary band. Teschen Disease - Pyrexia, anorexia, incoordination and weakness, bruxism, convulsions, paralysis. Vesicular Stomatitis - Pyrexia, Vesicles in the mouth, feet, snout lips and tongue.
98
Notifiable diseases in horses and the clinical signs.
African horse sickness - Pyrexia, respiratory distress, coughing, nasal discharge, head swelling, colic, sudden death. Anthrax - Swelling around the larynx, sudden death but slower than farm animals. Aujeszky's disease - CNS signs Contagious equine metritis - Stallions are silent carriers, mares can exhibit uterine inflammation and vulval discharge but also can be silent carriers. Dourine - Trypanosoma equiperdum, localised inflammation of the genetalia, cutaneous plaques, neurological signs. Epizootic lymphangitis - Histoplasma facrimonosum, Suppurating skin eruptions. Equine infectious anaemia - Pyrexia, depression, tachycardia/tachypnoea, haemorrhage, ataxia, oedema, jaundice, weight loss, anaemia/thrombocytopaenia, silent carriers. Equine viral arteritis - Pyrexia, lethargy, depression, limb oedema, conjunctivitis (pink eye), periorbital/scrotal/mammary gland sweling, nasal discharge. Equine viral encephalomyelitis - Pyrexia, inappetance, hypersensitivity, muscle fasciculations, somulance, hyperexcitement, blindness. Glanders and Farcy - Pyrexia, depression, nasal discharge, coughing, ulceration of nasal mucosa, nodules beneath skin, septicaemia, death. Rabies - Lameness, hyperaesthesia, ataxia/paralysis, altered behaviour, colic, pyrexia. Vesicular stomatitis - Pyrexia, vesicles around the mouth, coronary band and less commonly skin. Warble fly - Subcutaneous nodules caused by larvae. West Nile Virus - Pyrexia, anorexia, depression, colic, ataxia, recumbency.
99
Notifiable diseases in cattle and their clinical signs.
Anthrax - Sudden death, pyrexia, colic, anorexia, agalactia. Bluetongue - Ulcerative stomatitis, pyrexia, inappetance, oedema of lips and muzzle, discolouration of the tongue due to haemorrhage. BSE - Apprehension, hyperaesthesia, weakness, head held low, subcutaneous tremors, excessive nose licking, agression, poor production, weight loss. Brucellosis (abortus) - Abortion, premature calving. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia - Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides, pyrexia, anorexia, tachypnoea, moist cough, recumbency, opistotonus. Enzootic bovine leukosis - Progressive weight loss, weakness, anaemia, agalactia, anorexia. Foot and Mouth - Pyrexia, vesicles in mouth and feet. Lumpy skin disease - Decreased milk yield, pyrexia, nodules on the skin, lesions on tongue, cheeks, hard palate and gums. Salivation and nasal discharge. Rabies - Hyperaesthesia, behaviour change, apprehension, dumb and furious forms, loss of rumination. Rift Valley Fever - fever, excess salivation, abortion. diarrhoea, loss of milk Rinderpest - grain-like bumps in the nostrils and inside the lips and cheeks that often develop into ulcers, discharge of watery mucus from eyes and nostrils, occasionally including blood, rapid breathing, reduced milk production in cows, loss of appetite, pyrexia. Bovine TB - Swollen lymph nodes, weight loss, chronic mastitis, moist cough. Vesicular Stomatitis - Pyrexia, blisters on the lips, tongue, inside the mouth, lameness. Warble Fly - Large soft painful swelling on the back.
100
Notifiable diseases in sheep and goats.
Anthrax - Sudden death Aujeszky's disease - Intense pruritus Bluetongue - Mouth ulcers, mucus discharge from mouth and nose, swelling of the mouth, head and neck, fever, lameness, respiratory problems. Brucellosis (melintensis) - Abortion, swollen udders and lymph nodes, nervousness and pyrexia. Contagious agalactia - weight loss, swollen joints abortion, yellow and separated milk, shrivelled or swollen udders, less milk yielded, swollen or infected eyes, pyrexia. Contagious epididymitis (ovis) - Fever, depression and swelling of the skin on the testes. FMD - As per usual. Pest des petits - fever, discharge from the eyes and nose, which can form a crust, making breathing difficult and forcing eyes shut, coughing, very bad smelling breath, diarrhoea Rabies - Usual, loss of rumination Rift Valley Fever - abortion and fever in adult sheep or goats, lambs can die of sudden death, stomach pain and diarrhoea. Scrapie - becoming excitable, drooping ears, increased nervousness or fear response, lagging behind, aggression, depression or vacant stare, skin irritation, trembling, recumbency, incordination, weight loss. Sheep and goat pox - female animals produce less milk and have abortions, fever, nodules (bumps) in the skin, mouth and nose that cause pain, swollen and tender udder or testicles, tongue lesions (damage to the skin), salivation, discharge from the nose and eyes, swollen lymph nodes Vesicular stomatitis - Like FMD
101
Notifiable diseases of poultry/birds
Avian influenza - swollen head, blue discolouration of neck and throat, loss of appetite, respiratory distress such as gaping beak, coughing, sneezing, gurgling, rattling diarrhoea, fewer eggs laid, increased mortality. Newcastle disease - respiratory distress such as gaping beak, coughing, sneezing, gurgling, rattling, nervous signs characterised by tremors and paralysis and twisting of the neck, unusually watery faeces (diarrhoea) that are yellowish-green in colour, depression, lack of appetite. Paramyxovirus of pigeons - nervous sings, including trembling wings and heads, and twisting of the neck partial paralysis of wings and legs (birds may fall over on landing and be unable to feed), unusually wet and liquidy faeces (diarrhoea) that are often greenish in colour, quietness, loss of appetite and reluctance to move.
102
Notifiable diseases of deer
Epizootoic haemorrhagic disease - fever, weakness, lack of appetite, more salivation than usual, bleeding, swollen red skin near hooves, swollen lining of the mouth. Bovine TB Warble Fly Chronic Wasting Disease - Transmissable encephalopathy.