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vtne exam ?'s > VTNE practice test C > Flashcards

VTNE practice test C Flashcards

1
Q

The daily maintenance energy requirement (kcal) for a 4 kg cat is:

A. 150.
B. 220.
C. 300.
D. 360.

A

B. 220

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2
Q

Which of the following is used primarily to vent waste gasses?

A. Flush valve
B. Vaporizer
C. Scavenger
D. Flow meter

A

C. Scavenger

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3
Q

When the symbol above (Rx) is seen on a drug description, it indicates the drug:

A. contains radioactive materials and must be handled as a biohazard.
B. is a potential abuse drug and may require special record keeping and storage.
C. has been manufactured to standards approved for use in North America.
D. is available only by prescription from a licensed veterinarian.

A

D. is available only by prescription from a licensed veterinarian.

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4
Q

Isopropyl alcohol is most effective as a germicidal agent when used in aqueous solution at a concentration of:

A. 50%.
B. 70%.
C. 95%.
D. 100%.

A

B. 70%.

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5
Q

In a dog, assessment of the gingival sulcus depth should be performed during the dental prophylaxis with:

A. the point of the curette.
B. an ultrasonic scaler tip.
C. a periodontal probe.
D. dental radiography.

A

C. a periodontal probe.

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6
Q

he canine cervix is located between the:

A. ovaries and the horn of the uterus.
B. vagina and the vulva.
C. vagina and the body of the uterus.
D. ovaries and the uterine tubes (oviducts).

A

C. vagina and the body of the uterus.

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7
Q

Arterial blood gas may provide erroneous results if it is:

A. allowed to clot.
B. ran immediately.
C. stored on ice for 1 hour.
D. void of room air.

A

A. allowed to clot.

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8
Q

The type of fracture that commonly affects young, growing animals and can result in limb deformities is called:

A. comminuted.
B. transverse.
C. Salter-Harris.
D. T-Fracture.

A

C. Salter-Harris.

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9
Q

Mandibular molars are commonly radiographed using which technique?

A. Lateral cranial
B. Bisecting angle
C. Caudorostral oblique
D. Parallel

A

D. Parallel

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10
Q

Which of the following collection techniques will provide a urine sample that is free of contaminates for bacterial culture?

A. Free flow
B. Cystocentesis
C. Catheterization
D. Manual expression

A

B. Cystocentesis

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11
Q

Which active ingredient controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage?

A. Selamectin
B. Fipronil
C. Imidacloprid
D. Lufenuron

A

D. Lufenuron

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12
Q

The benefit of selective COX-2 inhibitors in the treatment of inflammation is they:

A. have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.
B. are antiemetic and antidiarrheal.
C. cause platelet aggregation.
D. do not cross the placenta.

A

A. have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.

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13
Q

The most appropriate position to recover cattle from general anesthesia is:

A. sternal recumbency.
B. dorsal recumbency.
C. right lateral recumbency.
D. left lateral recumbency.

A

A. sternal recumbency.

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14
Q

A rodenticide that can depress clotting factors for 3-4 weeks is:

A. brodifacoum.
B. warfarin.
C. bromethalin.
D. cholecalciferol.

A

A. brodifacoum.

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15
Q

A rabbit presents with otoacariasis. Which of the following is the most likely causitive agent?

A. Psoroptes cuniculi
B. Otodectes cynotis
C. Cheyletiella yuasguri
D. Sarcoptes scabiei

A

A. Psoroptes cuniculi

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16
Q

During a manufacturing shortage of Dichlorvos, which of the following drugs could a veterinarian prescribe as a substitute in the same drug class?

A. Milbemycin oxime
B. Levamisole
C. Trichlorfon
D. Pyrantel pamoate

A

C. Trichlorfon

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17
Q

Which is the best option for long term pain management of hip dysplasia in an 8-year-old golden retriever with Cushing’s Disease?

A. NSAIDs
B. Opioids
C. Alpha 2 agonists
D. Corticosteroids

A

A. NSAIDs

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18
Q

The proper needle placement for a lumbar myelogram is between the:

A. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae.
B. 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.
C. 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae.
D. 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae.

A

D. 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae.

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19
Q

Which of the following is the most likely source of bovine viral diarrhea in a herd of cattle?

A. Wildlife
B. Contaminated feed
C. Persistently infected animals
D. Contaminated water

A

C. Persistently infected animals

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20
Q

Which exposure factor primarily controls the quantity of x-rays produced?

A. time
B. kVp
C. mA
D. SID

A

C. mA

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21
Q

Which bacterial disease is spread by contaminated humans or objects and is easily transmitted between horses?

A. Strangles
B. Tetanus
C. Thrush
D. Piroplasmosis

A

A. Strangles

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22
Q

If a fentanyl transdermal patch is being used to deliver long term analgesia, which of the following would inhibit the analgesic effect?

A. Butorphanol
B. Hydromorphone
C. Morphine
D. Dexmedetomidine

A

A. Butorphanol

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23
Q

Sedation ordered for a 13-lb (5.91 kg) cat at 11 mg/kg is supplied as a liquid with a concentration of 100 mg/mL. What volume is needed for this patient?

A. 0.65 mL
B. 0.88 mL
C. 1.25 mL
D. 1.43 mL

A

A. 0.65 mL

5.91kg*11mg/kg=65.01mg
65mg/100mg/mL=0.65mL

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24
Q

The Coggins test is used to detect which equine disease?

A. Equine influenza
B. Viral arteritis
C. Viral encephalitis
D. Infectious anemia

A

D. Infectious anemia

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25
Q

The average gestation period in a hamster is approximately:

A. 9 days.
B. 16 days.
C. 24 days.
D. 30 days.

A

B. 16 days.

26
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is considered continuous?

A. Vertical mattress
B. Cruciate
C. Horizontal mattress
D. Ford Interlocking

A

D. Ford Interlocking

27
Q

Which of the following could be seen in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Hyperinsulinemia, increased potassium levels
B. Hypoinsulinemia, decreased potassium levels
C. Hyperglycemia, alkalosis
D. Hypoglycemia, acidosis

A

B. Hypoinsulinemia, decreased potassium levels

28
Q

How often should a geriatric dog with chronic osteoarthritis be evaluated?

A. Every month
B. Every six months
C. Every 12 months
D. Evaluation not needed

A

A. Every month

29
Q

Long-acting barbiturates are administered to dogs and cats as:

A. anthelmintics.
B. analgesics.
C. anticholinergics.
D. anticonvulsants.

A

D. anticonvulsants.

30
Q

The part of the control panel on a standard X-ray machine that provides manual adjustment of the transformer to allow for inconsistent electrical output is the:

A. voltage compensator.
B. kilovoltage selector.
C. timer.
D. exposure button.

A

A. voltage compensator.

31
Q

Which would be an appropriate action to take if a patient is hypothermic (less than 35° C/95° F) during anesthesia?

A. Administer an anticholinergic.
B. Increase the intravenous fluid rate.
C. Decrease the oxygen flow to the minimum requirement.
D. Increase manual ventilations to the patient.

A

C. Decrease the oxygen flow to the minimum requirement.

32
Q

In a dog or cat, the spleen is located on the:

A. left side of the abdomen dorsal to the kidney.
B. right side of the abdomen just caudal to the liver.
C. right side of the abdomen ventral to the bladder.
D. left side of the abdomen just caudal to the stomach.

A

D. left side of the abdomen just caudal to the stomach.

33
Q

Where is the best site to administer intramuscular injections to swine?

A. Lumbar muscles
B. Muscles of the neck caudal to the ear
C. Hamstring muscles
D. Pectoral muscles

A

B. Muscles of the neck caudal to the ear

34
Q

A dorsoventral intraoral skull view is indicated for examination of the:

A. temporomandibular joint.
B. mandible.
C. foramen magnum.
D. maxilla.

A

D. maxilla.

35
Q

On a Gram-stained smear, Streptococcus equi organisms appear as:

A. Gram-negative rods.
B. Gram-positive cocci.
C. Gram-negative cocci.
D. Gram-positive rods.

A

B. Gram-positive cocci.

36
Q

After a horse has been sedated with xylazine, the veterinary technician should instruct the owner to:

A. remove lead shanks and any other form of physical restraint from the horse.
B. avoid the rear of the animal because the horse may still kick if stimulated.
C. not feed hay for 12 hours after the initial administration of the sedative.
D. avoid lifting the head up because it may cause the horse to lose balance.

A

B. avoid the rear of the animal because the horse may still kick if stimulated.

37
Q

Hypoxemia occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood (PaO2) is:

A. <80 mmHg.
B. <100 mmHg.
C. <150 mmHg.
D. <200 mmHg.

A

A. <80 mmHg.

38
Q

Which bone can be stabilized using a spoon splint?

A. Radius
B. Scapula
C. Humerus
D. Femur

A

A. Radius

39
Q

Which of the following diagnostics should detect adult Dirofilaria spp.?

A. Knott’s filter test
B. Direct blood smear
C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D. Buffy coat examination

A

C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

40
Q

A veterinary technician should consider an anesthetized animal recovered when the:

A. patient is conscious, has intact reflexes, and can maintain sternal recumbency without support.
B. swallowing reflex has returned and the patient has been extubated.
C. anesthetic (injectable or inhaled) administration is discontinued.
D. surgical procedure has been completed and the anesthetic has been shut off.

A

A. patient is conscious, has intact reflexes, and can maintain sternal recumbency without support.

41
Q

Which of the following is associated with left-sided heart failure?

A. Jugular distension
B. Pleural effusion
C. Ascites
D. Pulmonary edema

A

D. Pulmonary edema

aka. fluid in the lungs

42
Q

Which of the following species is prone to laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation?

A. Pigs
B. Cattle
C. Horses
D. Sheep

A

A. Pigs

43
Q

The canine teeth of horses are:

A. removed in order to avoid interference with the bite.
B. commonly absent in mares and fillies.
C. where the Galvayne’s groove is located.
D. low-crowned brachyodont teeth.

A

B. commonly absent in mares and fillies.

44
Q

When taking a caudocranial radiograph of the feline stifle, the distal boundary is the:

A. joint space of the stifle.
B. distal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.
C. proximal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.
D. distal 1/3rd of the femur.

A

C. proximal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.

45
Q

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be safely collected from a healthy 950 gm (0.95 kg) macaw?

A. 0.095 ml
B. 0.95 ml
C. 9.5 ml
D. 95 ml

A

C. 9.5 ml

1% of the total body weight is generally the maximum recommended volume of blood to be collected.
950gm*0.01=9.5mL

46
Q

Which of the following hormone concentration changes is consistent with an uncontrolled hyperthyroid cat?

A. Decreased T3, decreased TSH
B. Increased T3, increased TSH
C. Decreased T4, increased TSH
D. Increased T4, decreased TSH

A

D. Increased T4, decreased TSH

47
Q

Recommendations to prevent transmission of Borrelia species to pets and owners should include:

A. rodent control and cleaning up food scraps.
B. daily tick inspections and use of tick control products.
C. use of mosquito control programs.
D. avoiding consumption of unfiltered stream water.
.

A

B. daily tick inspections and use of tick control products

48
Q

If the concentration of available trimethoprim-sulfadiazine solution is 50 mg/mL, and the veterinary technician has been directed to administer 20 mg to a 9 lb (4.1-kg) cat, what volume of the drug, in milliliters, is needed?

A. 0.04 mL
B. 0.40 mL
C. 4.00 mL
D. 40.00 mL

A

B. 0.40 mL

20mg/50mg/mL=0.4mL

49
Q

The antidote for acetaminophen poisoning is:

A. N-Acetylcysteine.
B. atropine.
C. ethanol.
D. 4-Methylpyrazole.

A

A. N-Acetylcysteine.

50
Q

Exodontic therapy should be recommended for which of the following conditions?

A. Oblique crown and root fracture
B. Crown fracture with pulp exposure
C. Apical root fracture with pulp exposure
D. Horizontal subluxation of the root

A

A. Oblique crown and root fracture

51
Q

The most appropriate way for a small, in-house laboratory to check the accuracy of its blood chemistry analyses is to periodically:

A. allow all laboratory staff to run the test and average their results.
B. analyze control samples with in-house equipment to check accuracy.
C. run multiple samples of unknown values and average the results.
D. obtain dry reagent strips, run the test using a strip, run the test using the chemistry instrument, and compare the results.

A

B. analyze control samples with in-house equipment to check accuracy.

52
Q

When dealing with a client in the anger stage of grief from losing their pet, the technician can help by:

A. actively listening and letting the client know they understand.
B. becoming defensive and arguing with the client.
C. encouraging the client to get a new pet as soon as possible.
D. by validating the client’s guilt that more could have been done.

A

A. actively listening and letting the client know they understand.

53
Q

When collecting blood to perform a manual WBC differential, which blood tube type is preferred?

A. Blue top
B. Lavender top
C. Grey top
D. Green top

A

B. Lavender top

54
Q

Rehabilitation therapy can be used to help prevent skeletal muscles from undergoing:

A. dystrophy.
B. hypomyotrophy.
C. hypertrophy.
D. atrophy.

A

D. atrophy.

55
Q

During a pre-admission discussion with a client, what is the best way to confirm that a patient has been fasted ahead of a surgical procedure?

A. “When did your dog last eat?”
B. “Is your dog fasted?”
C. “You haven’t given any food since last night?”
D. “Your dog has been fasted, correct?”

A

A. “When did your dog last eat?”

56
Q

Which type of contrast is desired for radiographs of the abdomen, and how can it be achieved?

A. low; use a low kVp technique
B. low; use a high kVp technique
C. high; use a high kVp technique
D. high; use a low kVp technique

A

B. low; use a high kVp technique

57
Q

Seizures may result in:

A. hyperthermia and pulmonary edema.
B. dehydration and hyperglycemia.
C. hypoglycemia and hypothermia.
D. hyperthermia and overhydration.

A

A. hyperthermia and pulmonary edema.

58
Q

Which of the following effects would a parasympatholytic drug have on an animal?

A. Bradycardia
B. Mydriasis
C. Ptyalism
D. Hypotension

A

B. Mydriasis

aka. dilation of the pupil of the eye

59
Q

Which class of reproductive drug can be potentially dangerous to pregnant females?

A. Prostaglandins
B. Gonadotropins
C. Estrogens
D. Progestins

A

A. Prostaglandins

60
Q

Psoroptes ovis is generally diagnosed using:

A. a direct smear.
B. fecal sedimentation.
C. a skin scraping.
D. fecal flotation.

A

C. a skin scraping.

61
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated regarding anesthesia in avian patients?

A. Mask induction
B. Cuffed endotracheal tubes
C. Pre-anesthetic analgesia
D. Air sac intubation

A

B. Cuffed endotracheal tubes

62
Q

A urine sample collected from a dog with a urinary tract infection reveals urease-producing bacteria. What is the expected pH of this patient’s urine?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

A

D. 8

vtne exam ?'s (4 decks)

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