W2 Respiratory A Flashcards
(205 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A
Gas exchange.
Cells require a continuous supply of oxygen for metabolic processes and need to excrete carbon dioxide to prevent acid-base imbalances.
2
Q
What are the key respiratory disorders covered in this eBook?
A
- Asthma
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
- Pneumonia.
These conditions are explored in terms of pathophysiology and clinical manifestations.
3
Q
What is asthma characterized by?
A
Chronic airway inflammation and variable expiratory airflow limitation.
Symptoms include wheeze, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough.
4
Q
What percentage of the Indigenous population in Australia is affected by asthma?
A
Over 60%.
Asthma is the second most common illness among Indigenous Australians.
5
Q
What are the key pathophysiological concepts of asthma?
A
- Airway inflammation
- Airway hyperresponsiveness
- Mucus hypersecretion.
These factors result in airflow obstruction.
6
Q
What triggers an asthma attack?
A
Exposure to allergens or other triggers leading to mast cell degranulation.
Common mediators released include histamine and leukotriene.
7
Q
What are the common clinical manifestations of an asthma attack?
A
- Wheeze
- Dyspnoea
- Chest tightness
- Coughing.
Symptoms may become more pronounced with worsening airway narrowing.
8
Q
Define Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).
A
A progressive, chronic lung disease characterized by irreversible obstruction of the airways.
COPD includes Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema.
9
Q
What are the key features of Chronic Bronchitis?
A
- Hypersecretion of mucus
- Productive cough for more than 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years.
Mainly caused by cigarette smoking and inhalation of harmful particles.
10
Q
What is emphysema characterized by?
A
Abnormal and permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways and destruction of alveolar walls.
Loss of elastic recoil is a major mechanism of airflow limitation.
11
Q
What are common symptoms of COPD?
A
- Persistent cough
- Dyspnoea
- Recurrent pulmonary infections
- Barrel chest
- Digital clubbing
- Fatigue.
Additional symptoms may include haemoptysis and pneumothorax as the condition progresses.
12
Q
What is pneumonia?
A
An acute infection of the lung parenchyma.
It can be caused by various microorganisms including bacteria and viruses.
13
Q
What are the four main classifications of pneumonia?
A
- Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)
- Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)
- Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)
- Aspiration pneumonia.
Each classification has different causative organisms influencing clinical presentation and treatment.
14
Q
What is the aim of the interprofessional team in managing respiratory conditions?
A
To collaborate in the assessment, management, and evaluation of care for patients with impaired respiratory function.
Each member of the team plays a vital role in patient care.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: Asthma is defined as a heterogeneous disease characterized by ______.
A
chronic airway inflammation.
It includes symptoms that vary over time and intensity.
16
Q
True or False: The assessment process for respiratory disorders is unique for each condition.
A
False.
While findings may vary, the assessment process and nursing care considerations are similar.
17
Q
What are the pharmacological options for treating respiratory disorders?
A
- Bronchodilators
- Corticosteroids
- Mast cell stabilisers
- Leukotriene receptor antagonists
- Antihistamines
- Mucolytics
- Antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, tetracyclines).
These options focus on various aspects of respiratory care.
18
Q
What is the most common cause of Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Other causes include Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
19
Q
What is the definition of Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
A
An acute infection of the lung occurring in patients who have not been hospitalized or resided in a long-term care facility within 14 days of the onset of symptoms.
20
Q
List some organisms that may cause Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP).
A
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Respiratory viruses
- Oral anaerobes
- Fungi
Examples of respiratory viruses include chlamydophila pneumoniae and coxiella burnetti.
21
Q
What is Medical-care-associated pneumonia (MCAP)?
A
A type of pneumonia that encompasses hospital-associated pneumonia, ventilator-associated pneumonia, and healthcare-associated pneumonia.
22
Q
Which organism is the most common cause of Medical-care-associated pneumonia (MCAP)?
A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
23
Q
What conditions may increase the risk of Aspiration pneumonia?
A
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Difficulty swallowing
- Nasogastric intubation
Conditions include seizures, anesthesia, head injury, stroke, and alcohol intake.
24
Q
What characterizes Opportunistic pneumonia?
A
It occurs in individuals with a depressed immune system.
25
List some organisms that may cause Opportunistic pneumonia.
* Pneumocystis jiroveci
* Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
* Other previously identified viruses and bacteria.
26
What are common defense mechanisms that may be bypassed by microorganisms leading to pneumonia?
* Upper airway defenses
* Compromised systemic defense mechanisms
* Impaired mucociliary clearance
* Impaired cough reflex
* Alveolar macrophages
* Accumulation of secretions.
27
True or False: Pneumonia can lead to dyspnea and hypoxia.
True
28
What is the second leading infectious killer worldwide as of 2022?
Tuberculosis (TB)
29
What is the causative agent of tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
30
Identify the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis.
Respiratory droplets
31
What are the stages of tuberculosis?
* Initial Infection
* Immune Response
* Lesion Formation
32
What are the clinical manifestations of active pulmonary TB?
* Chronic cough
* Sputum production
* Loss of appetite
* Weight loss
* Fever
* Night sweats
* Fatigue
* Chest pain
* Hemoptysis.
33
Fill in the blank: The definitive diagnosis of TB involves several tests, including a _______.
Chest x-ray
34
What is the nursing assessment key element for respiratory conditions?
Core assessments should be performed.
35
What is the focus of asthma management?
Medications and prevention through education.
36
What is the first action in acute asthma management?
Assessing severity while starting bronchodilator treatment.
37
What should be monitored if oxygen saturation falls below 92% in adults during an asthma attack?
Administer oxygen therapy.
38
List some add-on treatments for asthma.
* Inhaled ipratropium bromide
* IV magnesium
* IV salbutamol
* Aminophylline
* Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
* Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation.
39
What is a common symptom of a primary tuberculosis infection?
Almost always asymptomatic
40
What is a key aspect of first aid for asthma?
Managing asthma in the community.
41
What is non-invasive positive pressure ventilation used for?
Consider if the patient is starting to tire or shows signs of respiratory failure
42
What is the most important aspect of asthma management?
Preventative care with patient education and an individualized asthma action plan
43
What does asthma primarily represent?
A chronic inflammatory disease
44
List key considerations for patient education on asthma management.
* Understanding asthma as a chronic inflammatory disease
* Defining inflammation and bronchoconstriction
* Identifying triggers and reducing exposure to them
* Reducing the risk of airway infections
* Recognizing early signs and symptoms of acute asthma
* Understanding the purpose and action of each medication
* Adhering to the prescribed medication regimen
* Practicing proper inhalation technique
* Monitoring peak flow
* Implementing an action management plan
* Knowing when and how to seek assistance
* Consulting with a healthcare professional to regularly update asthma action plans
45
What are the goals of asthma action plans?
* Control or elimination of chronic symptoms
* Normalization or near-normalization of lung function
* Restoration or maintenance of normal activity levels
* Reducing or eliminating recurrence of exacerbations
* Reducing or eliminating emergency department presentations and acute hospitalizations
* Reducing or eliminating medication side effects
46
What does COPD-X stand for?
* Case finding and confirm diagnosis
* Optimise function
* Prevent deterioration
* Develop a plan of care
* X Manage eXacerbations
47
What is the first step in optimising function for COPD management?
Assessing baseline functional status using a validated assessment tool
48
What is the most significant risk factor for COPD?
Smoking
49
What are key non-pharmacological strategies for COPD management?
* Smoking cessation
* Pulmonary rehabilitation
* Regular physical activity
50
What are the two main goals of pharmacological therapy for COPD?
* Treatment of symptoms
* Reduction of severe exacerbations or deterioration
51
Name common medications used in COPD management.
* Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABA)
* Short-acting muscarinic antagonists (SAMA)
* Long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA)
* Long-acting beta2-agonists (LABA)
* Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) combined with LABA
52
What should nurses ensure COPD patients understand?
* Non-pharmacological therapies
* Pharmacological therapies
* Correct inhaler techniques
* Health literacy
* Medication costs and payment options
* Treatment for co-morbidities
53
What is critical to preventing deterioration in COPD?
Smoking cessation
54
What vaccinations should be encouraged for COPD patients?
* Influenza
* Pneumococcal
55
What characterizes a COPD exacerbation?
A change in baseline dyspnoea, cough, and/or sputum beyond normal variations
56
What is the most common causative organism for pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
57
List groups at increased risk of complications from pneumonia.
* Infants and children under 5 years old
* Individuals with chronic lung disease
* Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people under 50 with medical conditions
* All Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people aged 50 years and over
* People aged 70 and over
58
What is the gold standard treatment for tuberculosis (TB)?
Antibiotic therapy for a minimum of six months
59
What are key nursing considerations for managing TB?
* Droplet precautions
* Education for the patient and family/carers
* Support with Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)
* Ongoing monitoring
60
True or False: Single-drug therapy is used for treating tuberculosis.
False
61
Fill in the blank: The treatment regimen for TB is based on drugs to which _______ is sensitive.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
62
What is an important practice for limiting the spread of TB?
Using tissues for sputum
## Footnote
This helps reduce the aerosolization of infectious droplets.
63
What should be practiced after handling upper airway secretions?
Hand hygiene
## Footnote
This is crucial for preventing infection transmission.
64
Why is it important to complete the full course of medication for TB?
To ensure full recovery
## Footnote
Stopping medication early can lead to relapse and resistance.
65
What is the role of nurses in managing respiratory conditions?
Assist with asthma action plans and provide education
## Footnote
Nurses work closely with GPs or respiratory physicians.
66
Who provides education on medications for respiratory disorders?
Pharmacists
## Footnote
They play a vital role in medication management.
67
What can dietitians help optimize for patients with chronic respiratory conditions?
Caloric intake
## Footnote
They educate on higher energy foods and supplements.
68
What is the role of social workers in managing respiratory diseases?
Assist with financial support and community services
## Footnote
They help connect patients with necessary resources.
69
How do physiotherapists support individuals with chronic respiratory conditions?
Provide education on airway clearance techniques
## Footnote
They also run pulmonary rehabilitation programs.
70
What do occupational therapists provide for patients struggling with ADLs?
Education on energy conservation strategies
## Footnote
They also offer equipment to support daily living.
71
When are respiratory specialists involved in patient care?
When there are difficulties with diagnosis or disease progression
## Footnote
They assist with complex cases and management.
72
What does a General Practitioner do for patients with asthma and COPD?
Develop management plans and initiate treatment
## Footnote
They also refer patients to specialists when necessary.
73
What is crucial for infection control in respiratory conditions?
Involvement of the infection control team
## Footnote
This ensures proper PPE use and environmental safety.
74
What is the main focus of bronchodilator medications?
Increase airway diameter
## Footnote
This reduces airway resistance and improves gas exchange.
75
What are the two types of β2-adrenergic agonist medications?
Short-acting and long-acting
## Footnote
They are commonly used for relief of bronchospasm.
76
Name a short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist medication.
Salbutamol
## Footnote
It is often referred to as a rescue medication.
77
What is the role of anticholinergics in respiratory therapy?
Prescribed for those who cannot tolerate SABAs
## Footnote
They can be used in combination during severe exacerbations.
78
Which medication family includes corticosteroids?
Anti-inflammatory medications
## Footnote
They are used to manage inflammation in respiratory conditions.
79
Name one common corticosteroid used in respiratory therapy.
Prednisone
## Footnote
It is a widely used anti-inflammatory medication.
80
What types of medications are mucolytics and expectorants?
Medications that help clear mucus
## Footnote
Examples include acetylcysteine and bromhexine.
81
Which class of antibiotics is commonly used for respiratory infections?
Penicillins
## Footnote
They include medications such as amoxicillin and ampicillin.
82
What should patients do if they are allergic to antibiotics?
Obtain a MedicAlert bracelet
## Footnote
This informs healthcare providers of their allergy.
83
Why should patients complete the entire course of antibiotics?
To prevent antibiotic resistance
## Footnote
Stopping early can lead to treatment failure.
84
What should patients do if they experience severe side effects from antibiotics?
Seek immediate medical advice
## Footnote
This includes symptoms like difficulty breathing or severe rash.
85
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange.
86
Which by-product of metabolism, if not excreted, can lead to acid-base imbalances?
Carbon dioxide is a by-product of metabolism that, if not excreted, can lead to acid-base imbalances.
87
True or False: Respiratory disorders can impair oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal, leading to life-threatening conditions.
True
88
Which of the following is a critical reflection opportunity in nursing practice? A) Time management B) Clinical skills development C) Personal health maintenance D) Improving communication with patients
B) Clinical skills development
89
What is the pathophysiology of asthma characterized by?
Asthma is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to difficulty breathing.
90
Fill in the blank: The interprofessional team plays a vital role in managing patients with _________.
respiratory conditions
91
In a patient with asthma, which of the following pharmacological treatments would likely be prescribed? A) Antibiotics B) Bronchodilators C) Antihistamines D) Antidepressants
B) Bronchodilators
92
What does clinical reasoning help a nurse identify in patients with impaired respiratory function?
Clinical reasoning helps identify potential patient problems and implement appropriate nursing interventions.
93
True or False: The role of each member of the interprofessional team is not important when managing respiratory disorders.
False
94
Fill in the blank: The primary function of the respiratory system is ________.
gas exchange
95
What are the clinical manifestations of pneumonia?
Symptoms include cough, fever, shortness of breath, and chest pain.
96
Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological option for treating respiratory disorders? A) Corticosteroids B) Mast cell stabilisers C) Antihistamines D) Insulin
D) Insulin
97
How would you apply the knowledge of asthma pathophysiology in nursing practice?
Nurses would monitor symptoms, administer medications such as bronchodilators, and educate patients on triggers and management strategies.
98
True or False: The development and progression of hypoxia should be reviewed before learning new respiratory disorders.
True
99
What is one role of corticosteroids in treating respiratory conditions?
Corticosteroids reduce inflammation in the airways, helping to manage conditions like asthma and COPD.
100
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a key part of the respiratory assessment?
A) Measuring oxygen saturation
B) Checking blood pressure
C) Administering vaccines
D) Recording heart rate
A) Measuring oxygen saturation
101
True or False: Respiratory disorders can lead to both short-term and long-term symptoms.
True
102
Fill in the blank: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is sometimes referred to as _________.
Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease (COAD)
103
What would be a critical thinking point when assessing a patient with pneumonia?
Assessing the severity of symptoms and identifying potential complications, such as hypoxemia, would be critical.
104
How do you perform a respiratory assessment?
A respiratory assessment includes inspecting the chest for symmetry, palpating for tenderness, percussing to assess lung sounds, and auscultating for abnormal breath sounds.
105
Which of the following would be included in a person-centred approach to managing respiratory disorders? A) Focusing solely on medical treatments B) Involving family in decision-making C) Ignoring the patient’s preferences D) Only focusing on the physical symptoms
B) Involving family in decision-making
106
Fill in the blank: In nursing care for respiratory disorders, pharmacological management often includes ________.
bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and antibiotics
107
What is the first step in managing a patient with impaired respiratory function?
The first step is to assess the patient’s respiratory status and identify potential issues affecting gas exchange.
108
True or False: All respiratory disorders are treated the same way.
False
109
What is asthma?
Asthma is a heterogeneous disease characterized by chronic airway inflammation and variable expiratory airflow limitation, with symptoms such as wheeze, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough that vary over time and in intensity.
110
What is the prevalence of asthma in Australia?
Over 2 million people in Australia are diagnosed with asthma, with higher prevalence in children than adults, and a particularly high rate among Indigenous Australians.
111
What are the three key pathophysiological factors in asthma?
Airway inflammation, airway hyperresponsiveness, and mucus hypersecretion.
112
Which cells release inflammatory mediators during an allergic asthma attack?
Mast cells release inflammatory mediators such as histamine, interleukin, prostaglandin, leukotriene, and nitric oxide.
113
True or False: Asthma is a reversible condition with proper treatment.
True
114
Fill in the blank: In asthma, airway inflammation leads to ________ obstruction.
Airflow
115
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common asthma trigger?
A) Dust
B) Pollen
C) Animal dander
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
116
What happens during an acute asthma episode when inflammatory mediators are released?
They cause vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, increased blood flow, and the release of inflammatory cells into the interstitial space, leading to bronchial smooth muscle spasms and increased mucus production.
117
What are the key clinical manifestations of asthma?
Wheeze, dyspnoea, chest tightness, and coughing. Severe cases may show hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, and restlessness.
118
True or False: Chest tightness during an asthma attack typically decreases as the attack worsens.
False
119
Multiple Choice: Which symptom is commonly associated with a severe asthma exacerbation?
A) Respiratory rate > 30 breaths/min
B) Pulse rate > 120 bpm
C) Use of accessory muscles
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
120
What are the two main conditions included under the umbrella term COPD?
Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema.
121
Fill in the blank: COPD involves a progressive, chronic lung disease characterized by ________ obstruction of the airways.
Irreversible
122
Which is the main cause of chronic bronchitis?
Chronic bronchitis is primarily caused by cigarette smoking and inhalation of harmful particles.
123
Multiple Choice: What happens to the mucus in chronic bronchitis?
A) It becomes thinner
B) It cannot be cleared due to damaged ciliary function
C) It becomes less sticky
D) It is absorbed into the bloodstream
B) It cannot be cleared due to damaged ciliary function
124
What is the main pathophysiological change in emphysema?
Destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs, leading to reduced gas exchange and air trapping.
125
True or False: Emphysema is primarily caused by genetic factors.
False (it is mainly caused by cigarette smoking, air pollution, and childhood respiratory infections).
126
What is the major mechanism of airflow limitation in emphysema?
Loss of elastic recoil.
127
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common symptom of COPD?
A) Persistent cough
B) Dyspnoea
C) Barrel chest
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
128
What condition is characterized by the abnormal entry of material from the mouth or stomach into the trachea and lungs?
Aspiration pneumonia.
129
Fill in the blank: Pneumonia is an acute infection of the ________ tissue.
Lung parenchyma
130
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is the most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
131
True or False: Medical-care-associated pneumonia (MCAP) includes hospital-associated, ventilator-associated, and healthcare-associated pneumonia.
True
132
What is a key characteristic of aspiration pneumonia?
It occurs when material from the mouth or stomach is aspirated into the lungs, often in patients with decreased consciousness or swallowing difficulties.
133
Multiple Choice: Which microorganism is the most common cause of medical-care-associated pneumonia (MCAP)?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Acinetobacter species
D) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
134
What is the primary causative organism of Tuberculosis (TB)?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
135
True or False: TB is the second leading infectious killer worldwide after HIV/AIDS.
True
136
Which group is at a higher risk for developing TB?
People with lower socioeconomic status, residents of crowded/poorly ventilated areas, IV drug users, and those with poor healthcare access
137
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of active pulmonary TB?
a) Chronic cough
b) Weight gain
c) Night sweats
d) Hemoptysis
b) Weight gain
138
What is the purpose of the BCG vaccine for TB?
The BCG vaccine is used to prevent TB in certain populations, especially in Indigenous neonates and healthcare workers.
139
Fill in the Blank: Tuberculosis is transmitted primarily through ____________.
Respiratory droplets
140
True or False: Latent TB infection is always symptomatic.
False
141
Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm TB?
Sputum acid-fast stain and culture
142
Multiple Choice: What is the first-line treatment for TB?
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampin
c) Streptomycin
d) A combination of drugs including isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
d) A combination of drugs including isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
143
What are the stages of TB?
1) Initial Infection, 2) Immune Response, 3) Lesion Formation
144
Fill in the Blank: TB is most commonly diagnosed in people who have a persistent __________ for more than 2-3 weeks.
Cough
145
True or False: The tuberculin skin test (TST) always provides an accurate diagnosis for TB.
False
146
Which of the following is a common symptom of active pulmonary TB? a) Chronic cough b) Loss of appetite c) Weight loss d) All of the above
d) All of the above
147
Multiple Choice: Which population has the highest rate of TB infection in Australia?
a) Indigenous Australians
b) People born overseas
c) Prisoners
d) Homeless individuals
b) People born overseas
148
True or False: TB can only affect the lungs.
False (It can also affect other organs, such as kidneys, ovaries, meninges, etc.)
149
What happens during the lesion formation stage of TB?
Macrophages and neutrophils fight the TB bacteria, forming lesions (tubercles) in the lungs.
150
Multiple Choice: Which of the following organs can TB affect outside of the lungs?
a) Kidneys
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Stomach
a) Kidneys
151
Application-style: A patient presents with chronic cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. The doctor suspects tuberculosis. Which diagnostic test should be prioritized?
Sputum acid-fast stain and culture
152
True or False: Miliary TB occurs when a TB lesion erodes into a blood vessel and spreads through the bloodstream.
True
153
What is a typical symptom of hemoptysis in TB patients?
Coughing up blood (associated with cavitary TB)
154
What is the best way to prevent the spread of TB?
Infection control measures, including respiratory isolation and treatment of active cases.
155
Multiple Choice: What is a typical first-line intervention for acute asthma exacerbations?
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Bronchodilator (e.g., salbutamol)
c) Oxygen therapy
d) Both b and c
d) Both b and c
156
Fill in the Blank: A key focus in asthma management is ___________ care, including patient education on avoiding triggers.
Preventative
157
What should be monitored during the acute management of asthma in a hospital setting?
Oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, heart rate, chest auscultation, and work of breathing
158
True or False: Oxygen therapy is only required in life-threatening cases of asthma.
False (It may be required in moderate cases if oxygen saturation is low.)
159
Multiple Choice: Which medication is used as a second-line bronchodilator for severe asthma?
a) Ipratropium bromide
b) Salbutamol
c) Magnesium sulfate
d) Adrenaline
a) Ipratropium bromide
160
What should be included in a patient’s asthma action plan?
Medication regimen, identification of triggers, how to use inhalers properly, when to seek medical help
161
Application-style: You are caring for a patient with asthma who is unable to speak full sentences and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. What is your immediate action?
Administer bronchodilator treatment (e.g., salbutamol) and oxygen therapy, then reassess the patient’s response.
162
Fill in the Blank: Patients with asthma should practice proper ___________ technique to ensure medication efficacy.
Inhalation
163
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a common asthma trigger?
a) Dust
b) Pollen
c) Cold air
d) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin D
164
What does GOLD stand for in the management of COPD?
Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease
165
What are the main goals of GOLD in managing COPD?
1. Improve lung function 2. Reduce symptoms 3. Prevent exacerbations 4. Improve quality of life
166
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a key non-pharmacological strategy for managing COPD?
a) Smoking cessation
b) Inhaled corticosteroids
c) Short-acting beta2-agonists
d) Hospitalization
a) Smoking cessation
167
What is the first step in optimising function for COPD patients?
Assessing baseline functional status using a validated assessment tool
168
True/False: Pulmonary rehabilitation can improve exercise capacity and quality of life in COPD patients.
True
169
What role do nurses play in smoking cessation for COPD patients?
Nurses educate patients on smoking cessation and provide resources like Quitline.
170
Multiple Choice: Which medication type is used for long-term management of COPD?
a) Short-acting beta2-agonists
b) Inhaled corticosteroids
c) Long-acting muscarinic antagonists
d) Oral steroids
c) Long-acting muscarinic antagonists
171
Fill in the Blank: The COPD-X acronym stands for Case finding, Optimise function, Prevent deterioration, Develop a plan of care, and Manage _________.
Exacerbations
172
What is the significance of smoking cessation in COPD management?
It slows lung function decline, delays disability, and preserves remaining lung function.
173
Multiple Choice: Which of the following medications can be used for short-term relief of breathlessness in COPD patients?
a) Ipratropium
b) Indacaterol
c) Tiotropium
d) Budesonide
a) Ipratropium
174
What is the main purpose of a COPD action plan?
To manage exacerbations and reduce hospital visits
175
True/False: COPD patients should be vaccinated against influenza and pneumococcal infections to prevent further deterioration.
True
176
What should be done if a COPD patient’s SpO2 drops below 92%?
Oxygen therapy should be administered to maintain SpO2 > 92%.
177
Fill in the Blank: The Lung Foundation Australia provides online resources and networks to assist COPD patients, including the community-based program called _________.
Lungs in Action
178
Application Question: A COPD patient is showing signs of deterioration. What should be done first?
Ensure smoking cessation is prioritized, optimize pharmacotherapy, and address exacerbations.
179
What is a common indication for referring a COPD patient to a specialist respiratory physician?
SpO2 <92% when stable or persistent symptoms despite treatment
180
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a critical step in preventing COPD deterioration?
a) Adequate rest
b) Smoking cessation
c) Regular physical activity
d) Increasing medication doses
b) Smoking cessation
181
True/False: A COPD action plan can help reduce hospital admissions and improve management during exacerbations.
True
182
What is the purpose of pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients?
It reduces dyspnoea, decreases hospitalizations, and improves quality of life.
183
Fill in the Blank: Early diagnosis and treatment of COPD exacerbations can prevent _________.
Hospital admissions and slow disease progression
184
Multiple Choice: Which group is eligible for pneumonia vaccination under the National Immunisation Program?
a) Children under 5 years old
b) People over 60 years old
c) People with asthma
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
185
How does influenza vaccination help in preventing pneumonia?
It can prevent pneumonia that may complicate an influenza infection.
186
True/False: Pneumonia can only be caused by bacterial infections.
False (It can also be caused by viral and mycoplasmal infections.)
187
Multiple Choice: What is typically the first line of treatment for bacterial pneumonia?
a) Antibiotics
b) Oxygen therapy
c) Analgesics
d) Steroids
a) Antibiotics
188
Application Question: A 75-year-old patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. What might be included in their treatment plan?
Hospital admission, intravenous antibiotics, fluid intake, and oxygen therapy to correct hypoxaemia.
189
What is the gold standard treatment for tuberculosis (TB)?
Antibiotic therapy for a minimum of six months, using combination therapy.
190
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is part of the TB treatment regimen?
a) Rifampin
b) Isoniazid
c) Pyrazinamide
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
191
True/False: Single-drug therapy is often used in TB treatment.
False (Combination therapy is used to prevent drug resistance.)
192
What is a key consideration in the management of pneumonia with respiratory failure?
Immediate oxygen therapy and escalation to the medical team for further intervention.
193
Fill in the Blank: Patients diagnosed with active tuberculosis are typically not isolated from society unless the disease is _________.
Severe
194
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is the primary role of nurses in pneumonia management?
a) Diagnosing the type of pneumonia
b) Educating patients about the importance of vaccination
c) Administering antibiotics
d) Performing chest x-rays
b) Educating patients about the importance of vaccination
195
What drug is responsible for tachycardia in asthma treatment?
Salbutamol
## Footnote
Salbutamol is a short-acting β2 agonist indicated for symptomatic relief of acute asthma via inhalation. Tachycardia is a known adverse effect.
196
An example of a short-acting β2 agonist (SABA) is?
Terbutaline
## Footnote
Short-acting β2 agonists like terbutaline are fast-acting bronchodilators used as relievers in first-line treatment for acute relief of asthma symptoms.
197
What is an example of a muscarinic antagonist used in COPD?
Tiotropium
## Footnote
Tiotropium is used to reduce symptoms, improve exercise capacity, and reduce mortality in COPD.
198
An anticholinergic drug used in severe asthma and COPD is?
Ipratropium
## Footnote
Ipratropium acts at muscarinic M3 receptors providing bronchodilation actions after inhalation.
199
Eformoterol is an example of a?
LABA - long acting beta2 agonist
## Footnote
LABAs like eformoterol are used as symptom controllers in conjunction with inhaled corticosteroids for maintenance treatment of asthma or COPD.
200
What drug blocks mediator release from mast cells?
Cromolyn
## Footnote
Cromolyn is referred to as a mast cell stabiliser and prevents mediator release by blocking calcium influx.
201
Stimulation of which receptors results in bronchodilation?
Beta 2
## Footnote
Beta 2 receptor stimulation leads to bronchodilation.
202
Why are beta 2 agonists used in acute respiratory conditions?
They cause smooth muscle relaxation
## Footnote
Beta 2 agonists are commonly used for their ability to induce smooth muscle relaxation.
203
What drugs reduce inflammation in acute respiratory disorders?
Corticosteroids
## Footnote
Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation in acute respiratory disorders.
204
What medications work to reduce mucus viscosity?
Mucolytics
## Footnote
Mucolytics aid in the expectoration of mucus by reducing its viscosity.
205
These medications block the actions of histamines.
Antihistamines
## Footnote
Antihistamines decrease capillary permeability, erythema, and oedema.
