Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Wall Quizzes > Wall Quiz #3 > Flashcards

Wall Quiz #3 Flashcards

1
Q 
A 47-year-old status post LAVH complains of sensory deficient on the superior anterior aspect of her right thigh. Which nerve was likely injured?
A. Obturator
B. Lateral femoral cutaneous 
C. Ilioinguinal nerve
D. Pudendal
E. Genitofemoral
A

B. Lateral femoral cutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the DNA derived from when performing Maternal Cell Free DNA testing for aneuploidy?

A. Fetal skin
B. Fetal Blood
C. Placenta
D. Maternal blood 
E. Amniotic fluid
A

C. Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
The main arterial blood supply to breast originates from which artery?
A. Aorta
B. Lateral thoracic 
C. Internal thoracic 
D. Axillary
E. Carotid
A

D. Axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Most common presenting symptom of vaginal carcinoma is?
A. Hematuria
B. Painless vaginal bleeding 
C. Pelvic pain
D. Pruritis
A

B. Painless vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
You receive the results of an hysterosalpingogram, and you note bilateral dilated tubes consistent with hydrosalpinx. Which of the following antibiotic is necessary after the procedure?
A. Doxycycline 100 mgs BID x 5 days 
B. Azithromycin 2 gms x 1 dose
C. Doxycycline 200 mgs x 1 dose
D. Tetracycline 150 mgs BID x 5 days 
E. Doxycycline 200mgs TID x  7days
A

A. Doxycycline 100 mgs BID x 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following are potential advantages of LMWH EXCEPT:
A. Low risk of heparin induced thrombocytopenia
B. Shorter 1⁄2 life
C. Decreased bone density loss
D. Predictable therapeutic range
E. Once daily dosing

A

B. Shorter 1⁄2 life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
When creating a pfannenstiel skin incision, which vessels should be anticipated halfway between the skin and fascia, several centimeters from the midline?
A. Inferior epigastric
B. External pudendal
C. Superficial epigastric 
D. Superficial circumflex 
E. Superior epigastric
A

C. Superficial epigastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
A 20-year-old presents at 18 weeks gestation; her AFP is 3.2 MoM. She has a history of vaginal bleeding. She is at greatest risk for which adverse outcome?
A. Post term pregnancy 
B. Stillbirth
C. Trisomy 21
D. Placenta previa
E. Preterm delivery
A

D. Placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Fetal heart completes morphological development at what gestational age?
A. 4 weeks 
B. 8 weeks 
C. 10 weeks 
D. 12 weeks 
E. 14 weeks
A

B. 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following is the minimal platelet count to take a patient to surgery with ITP?
A. 30,000 
B. 40,000 
C. 50,000 
D. 70,000 
E. 100,000
A

C. 50,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which of the following presentations is most susceptible to cord prolapse?
A. Complete breech 
B. Frank breech
C. Oblique breech 
D. Footling Breech
A

D. Footling Breech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Which of the following is the most appropriate second line agent to visualize ureteral efflux?
A. Indigo carmine
B. MethyleneBlue
C. Sodium fluorescein 
D. Oral phenazopyridine 
E. Cyanobalmin
A

C. Sodium fluorescein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
The core elements used in anthropometric measurements include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Skin fold thickness
B. Height
C. Head circumference
D. Abdominal circumference 
E. BMI
A

C. Head circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

While doing a cesarean delivery you encounter 1 cm tear on the dome of the bladder. Which of the following is the correct way to close the defect?
A. Nylon with imbricating suture in one layer
B. Polypropylene simple running in one layer
C. Chromic simple interrupted in two layers
D. Chromic imbricating first layer than running in second layer
E. Polyglactin 910 first layer running second layer imbricating

A

E. Polyglactin 910 first layer running second layer imbricating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
In a patient with cervical cancer, what depth of invasion is necessary to perform a lymph node dissection?
A. 2 mm 
B. 3mm 
C. 5mm 
D. 1 mm 
E. 4mm
A

B. 3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
When does β-HcG normalize after a complete mole evacuation?
A. 1 month
B. 1.5 months 
C. 2 months 
D. 4 months 
E. 6months
A

C. 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many micrograms of folic acid is necessary in a subsequent pregnancy if a fetus has been diagnosed with anencephaly at 18 weeks?
A. 2 grams
B. 400 mcgs
C. 4000 mcgs
D. 4000 mgs
E.Folic acid should be eliminated since fetus has an NTD

A

C. 4000 mcgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Your patient presents at 9 weeks gestation and is noted to have 100,000 CFU in her urine after a clean catch. She is currently asymptomatic, which of the following is the best management?
A. No antibiotics necessary
B. Nitrofurantoin 100 bid for 7 days 
C. Amoxicillin 2 g
D. Levofloxacin, 1000 mg daily
E. Ampicillin 1g bid
A

B. Nitrofurantoin 100 bid for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is the correct management of antibiotics for chorioamnionitis after Cesarean delivery?
A. Ampicillin 2 gm and Gentamicin 2 mg/kg
B. Ampicillin 2 gm, Gentamicin 2 mg/kg and Clindamycin
C. Piperacillin-tazobactam and Gentamicin 2mg/kg
D. Clindamycin 900 mgs, Gentamicin 2mg/kg and Vancomycin 1 gm
E. Ancef 1gm, Gentamicin 5mg/kg and Cefotetan 2gm

A

B. Ampicillin 2 gm, Gentamicin 2 mg/kg and Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
A 16-year-old presents with positive Chlamydia culture. When should she have a repeat culture?
A. 2 weeks 
B. 4 weeks 
C. 6 weeks 
D. 8 weeks 
E. 10 weeks
A

D. 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What is the most cost-effective test for the diagnosis of Androgen Insensitivity syndrome vs Mullerian Agenesis?
A. Karyotype
B. Testosterone
C. Follicle stimulating hormone 
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone 
E. Pelvic ultrasound
A

B. Testosterone

22
Q 
What percent of Acetic acid is used for colposcopy?
A. 1-2% 
B. 2-4% 
C. 3-5% 
D. 5-8% 
E. 8-10%
A

C. 3-5%

23
Q 
A patient at 12 weeks GA presents for her first ultrasound for dating. You identify a twin gestation at 11.5 weeks and identify a “T” Sign. This is indicative of:
A. Monochorionic Monoamniotic twinning 
B. Monochorionic Diamniotic twinning
C. Monoamniotic Dichorionic twinning
D. Dizygotic twining
E. Fraternaltwining
A

B. Monochorionic Diamniotic twinning

24
Q 
Glyburide is contraindicated in which of the following allergies?
A. Albumin
B. Yeast
C. Beta Lactam 
D. Sulfa
E. Iodide
A

D. Sulfa

25
Q 
Which of the following gene mutations have been identified in patients with cardiomyopathy?
A. MYH7 
B. MSH1 
C. LDLR 
D. FBN1 
E. NKx2-5
A

A. MYH7

26
Q 
The other 2 organisms including Trichmonanasis vaginalis most associated while doing antigen detection method are:
A. C. Albicans and C. Glabrata 
B. C. Albicans and Gonorrhea 
C. G. vaginalis and C. Albicans 
D. G. vaginalis and C. Glabrata 
E. G.vaginalis and Gonorrhea
A

C. G. vaginalis and C. Albicans

27
Q 
The most common genetic cardiac disease is?
A. Atrial septic defect
B. Ventricular Septic defect
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
D. Tetralogy of fallot
E. Aorticaneurysm
A

C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

28
Q

The most common arrhythmias during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Premature atrial beats
B. Paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation

A

C. Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

29
Q 
What percentage of brow presentations will covert to a face presentation?
A. 15% 
B. 20% 
C. 25% 
D. 30% 
E. 40%
A

D. 30%

30
Q 
Which of the following is the best management for ovarian insufficiency in the 14-year-old child?
A. Prometrium
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
C. Depo medroxyprogesterone acetate 
D. Estradiol
D. Ethinyl Estradiol and norethindrone
A

D. Estradiol

31
Q 
Serous tubal and tubal intraepithelial lesions in transition are most frequently located in which part of the tube?
A. Ampullary 
B. Interstitial 
C. Fimbriated 
D. Cornual 
E. Isthmic
A

C. Fimbriated

32
Q 
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories stop the conversion of Arachidonic acid to Prostaglandins by means of:
A. Leukotriene A2
B. PhospholipaseA2 
C. Cyclooxygenase 
D. Lipoxygenase
E. Thromboxane
A

C. Cyclooxygenase

33
Q 
Which of the following would be specific to an FHT in a baby with anemia?
A. Deep decelerations 
B. Fetal Tachycardia 
C. Fetal Bradycardia 
D. Sinusoidal
E. Deep variables
A

D. Sinusoidal

34
Q

The primary purpose of the informed consent is to:
A. Document the planned surgical procedure
B. Protect the patient’s autonomy
C. Minimize hospital liability
D. Minimize physician liability
E. Preserve social justice

A

B. Protect the patient’s autonomy

35
Q

An occurrence malpractice insurance policy is most important because:
A. Covers incidents during duration of practice
B. Covers all incidents during a specific coverage period
C. Is the least expensive
D. Covers all incidents for infinity
E. Covers incidents that you report during the active policy period

A

B. covers all incidents during a specific coverage period

36
Q 
Ashkenazi Jewish individuals should be offered preconceptional carrier screening for all EXCEPT:
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. ß-Thalassemia
C. Canavan disease
D. Tay-Sachs disease
E. Familial dysautonomia
A

B. ß-Thalassemia

37
Q 
Maternal deficiency of Vitamin D has been associated with which of the following complications in the offspring?
A. Anemia
B. Seizures
C. Fractures
D. Jaundice
E. Facial abnormalities
A

C. Fractures

38
Q 
A 40-year-old presents at 12 weeks gestation for first trimester ultrasound. The nuchal translucency measures 4.6 mm and genetic testing reveals normal karotype. Her fetus stills needs to be evaluated for:
A. Aneuploidy
B. Cardiac defect
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Diaphragmatic hernia 
E. Cleft lip and palate
A

B. Cardiac defect

39
Q 
Which of the following breast cancer is found to have ductal cells in the dermal lymphatics?
A. Ductal carcinoma
B. Lobular carcinoma
C. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
D. Inflammatory breast cancer 
E. Tubularcarcinoma
A

D. Inflammatory breast cancer

40
Q 
Obstetrics and gynecologists caring for transgender male adolescents should discuss which of the following prior to initiation of cross-sex hormone therapy?
A. Social and mental health risks 
B. Fertility preservation
C. Rates of physical violence
D. Cancer risks
E. Changes to menstrual cycle
A

B. Fertility preservation

41
Q

Which of the following triads is typical in the presentation of amniotic fluid embolism?
A. Hypoxemia, hypotension and coagulopathy
B. Hypotension coagulopathy and heart failure
C. Right ventricular dysfunction, coagulopathy and hypotension
D. Coagulopathy, hypotension and acidemia
E. Cardiac arrest, coagulopathy and hypoxemia

A

A. Hypoxemia, hypotension and coagulopathy

42
Q 
What is the normal blood volume of blood flow to the gravid uterus at term?
A. 25 mL/min 
B. 100 mL/min 
C. 250 mL/min 
D. 500 mL/min 
E. 750 mL/min
A

D. 500 mL/min

43
Q 
Fetal growth restriction with polyhydramnios is most classically associated with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities?
A. 45 X
B. 47 XXY
C. Trisomy 21 
D. Trisomy 18 
E. Trisomy 13
A

D. Trisomy 18

44
Q 
Which antiviral agent is associated with skull, palate, eye, skeleton, and gastrointestinal abnormalities?
A. Ribavirin
B. Efavirenz 
C. Zidovudine 
D. Oseltamivir 
E. Acyclovir
A

A. Ribavirin

45
Q 
In what phase of cell division are oocytes arrested between birth and ovulation?
A. Prophase I 
B. AnaphaseI 
C. MetaphaseI 
D. Telophase I 
E. Interphase
A

A. Prophase I

46
Q 
Cytogenetic karyotype is performed on chromosomes arrested in what phase of replication?
A. Interphase 
B. Anaphase 
C. Metaphase 
D. Telophase 
E. Prophase
A

C. Metaphase

47
Q 
The most common prenatal application of FISH involves testing DNA sequences specific to all the following EXCEPT:
A. Chromosome 21 
B. Chromosome 18 
C. Chromosome 16 
D. X
E. Y
A

C. Chromosome 16

48
Q 
In general, what percentage of total circulating cell-free DNA in maternal plasma is placental in origin?
A. 5% 
B. 10% 
C. 15% 
D. 20% 
E. 25%
A

B. 10%

49
Q

An Asian patient presents for prenatal care. Her intake CBC reveals microcytic anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
A. Iron studies
B. Peripheral blood smear
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
E. Alpha thalassemia molecular genetic testing

A

A. Iron studies

50
Q 
28-year-old G2P1 presents for prenatal care at 10 weeks gestation. Type and Screen reveals a positive anti-E antibodies at 1:8. What is the best first step in management?
A. Obtain paternal antigen testing 
B. Umbilical artery dopplers
C. Cell Free DNA
D. Obtain paternal antibody testing 
E. Perform  Chorionic villus sampling
A

A. Obtain paternal antigen testing

Wall Quizzes (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions