Water Flashcards

To pass EPA Water Exam

1
Q

If increased algae growths are observed in the water supply, you can expect:
A. Decrease dissolved oxygen and pH, increased carbon dioxide
B. Increased dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease carbon dioxide
C. Increase color and hardness, decrease dissolved oxygen and pH
D. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hardness
E. none of the above

A

B. increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease carbon dioxide

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2
Q

You are going to fill an up ground reservoir from a stream which is subject to feedlot runoff. What test should be performed to check the water before pumping?

A. Turbidity, sulfates, nitrates
B. Hardness, turbidity, pH
C. Nitrates, dissolved oxygen, chlorides
D. Faster settling rates and a decrease in coagulant dosage
E. none of the above
A

C. Nitrates, dissolved oxygen, chlorides

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3
Q

If you observe an increase in phosphate content of lake water, what would you expect to occur in the plant operation?
A. Filter bed expansion and longer filter runs
B. An increase in algae growth and an increase in coagulant dosage
C. An increase in algae growth and an decrease in coagulant dosage
D. Faster settling rates and a decrease in coagulant dosage
E. none of the above

A

B. An increase in algae growth and an increase in coagulant dosage

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4
Q
Aeration will do which of the following?
A. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hydrogen sulfide & CO₂
B. Increase nitrogen, decrease pH
C. Increase oxygen, decrease nitrogen
D. None of the above
A

A. Increase dissolved oxygen and pH, decrease hydrogen sulfide & CO₂

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5
Q
Acids, bases, and salts lacking carbon are
A. Ketones
B. aldehydes
C. Organic compounds
D. Inorganic compounds
A

D. Inorganic compounds

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6
Q
Water that's to be analyzed for inorganic metals should be acidified with
A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. concentrated hydrochloric acid
C. Dilute nitric acid
D. Concentrated nitric acid
A

D. Concentrated nitric acid

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7
Q
What's the principal scale-forming substance in water?
A. Zinc orthophosphate
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Calcium
D. Calcium carbonate
A

D. Calcium carbonate

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8
Q

High pH favors formation of
A. Haleoacetic acids
B. total trihalomethanes
C. Both haloacetic acids and total trihalomethanes
D. Neither haloacetic acids nor total trihalomethanes

A

B. total trihalomethanes

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9
Q
Which water quality parameter requires a grab sample?
A. pH
B. Iron
C. Nitrate
D. Zinc
A

A. pH

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10
Q

What is the purpose of aeration?
A. Maximum vapor interface
B. maximum adsorption of colloidal particles
C. Minimum sequesterization of iron and hydrogen sulfide
D. Total removal of oxygen from the water

A

A. Maximum vapor interface

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11
Q
If raw water has high color and low hardness, which is the best treatment.
A. H₂SO₄, NaCO₃, Al₂(SO₄)₃
B. H₂SO₄, Ca(OH)₂, Al₂(SO₄)₃
C. H₂SO₄, NaOH, Al₂(SO₄)3
D. Na₂CO₃, Ca(OH)₂, Al₂(SO₄)₃
E. None of the above
A

C. H₂SO₄, NaOH, Al₂(SO₄)₃

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12
Q
What is the best pH range for color?
A. 2.0-4.0
B. 4.0-6.0
C. 6.0-9.0
D. 4.0-10.0
E. 8.0-12.0
A

B. 4.0-6.0

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13
Q

Water A alk 190 TH 170 CO₂ 8 Turb 1.5 FE 0.5 Coli 80
Water B alk 50 TH 110 CO₂ 0 Turb 12 FE 0.1 Coli 2
(8A) Determine the best treatment for water A
A. Ion exchange, alum, lime, disinfection
B. alum, filtration, disinfection
C. Soda ash, filtration, disinfection
D. Aeration, alum, disinfection
E. lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection
(8b) Determine the best treatment for Water B
A. Lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection
B. ion exchange, blending, disinfection
C. Alum, filtration, disinfection
D. Soda ash, filtration, disinfection
E. filtration, disinfection

A

(8a) E. lime, stabilization, filtration, disinfection

(8b) C. Alum, filtration, disinfection

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14
Q

If the raw water has low non-carbonate hardness and high alkalinity, which treatment is best?

A. Na₂R
B. NaHCO₃ and Lime
C. Na₂CO₃
D. Lime
E. Lime and Na₂R
A

D. Lime

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15
Q

Which of the following increase in water that has been treated by sodium ion exchange?

A. CaSO₄, MgSO₄, CaCl₂
B. Na₂R, CaSO₄, CaCl₂
C. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, CaCl₂
D. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃
E. CaCO₃, Mg(OH)₂
A

D. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃

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16
Q

The chemical combination of substances so as to cause separation in the “insoluble form” best describe:

A. Coagulation
B. Flocculation
C. Sedimentation
D. Precipitation
E. Disinfection
A

D. Precipitation

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17
Q

If the effective size of filter sand passes state standards, but the uniformity coefficient is high, what may you expect?

A. Sand compaction
B. No sand compaction
C. Increase loss of head
D. Decrease loss of head
E. None of the above
A

C. Increase loss of head

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18
Q

As the loss of head increases on a filter, the rate of flow controller will do which of the following?

A. Maintain present flow
B. Close down area to flow
C. Open up area to flow
D. Shut off completely
E. None of the above
A

C. Open up area to flow

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19
Q

Larger particle size and less dense anthracite filter media will produce:

A. Longer filter runs and faster rate of flow
B. Shorter filter runs and slower rate of flow
C. Longer filter runs and slower rate of flow
D. Shorter filter runs and faster rate of flow
E. None of the above

A

A. Longer filter runs and faster rate of flow

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20
Q

The effective size of the sand in a rapid sand filter should be:

A. 1.3 mm - 1.5 mm
B. 0.8 mm - 1.2 mm
C. 0.35 mm - 0.50 mm
D. 0.15 mm - 0.35 mm

A

C. 0.35 mm - 0.50 mm

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21
Q

If you have too much CO₃ (30 mg/L) going to the filters, you should expect which of the following?

A. Longer filter runs
B. Shorter filter runs
C. Higher filtration rates
D. Less disinfection
E. None of the above
A

B. Shorter filter runs

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22
Q

TON is determined by examining the water sample with or for the following:

A. Odor free water
B. Algae content
C. pH meter
D. Odor at various distances from the sample
E. None of the above
A

A. Odor free water

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23
Q

The primary problem caused by manganese is what?

A. Filter clogging
B. Hardness
C. Taste
D. Odor
E. Staining
A

E. Staining

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24
Q

At what location should KMnO₄ be added to the water?

A. Raw water
B. Flocculator
C. Clarifier
D. Clear well
E. All of the above
A

A. Raw water

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25
The primary use of KMnO₄ is: ``` A. Increase pH B. Settling and removal of manganese C. Removal of phenols D. Non-carbonate hardness removal E. Disinfection ```
B. Settling and removal of manganese
26
If you have less Ammonia (NH₄) in the water source, you should expect: A. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, more chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint B. Chloramines will not be formed below breakpoint, more chlorine is needed to reach breakpoint C. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, less chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint D. More CO2 and alum will be required E. Chloramines will not be formed below breakpoint, less Chloramines will be needed to reach breakpoint
C. Chloramines will be formed below breakpoint, less chlorine will be needed to reach breakpoint
27
The best treatment for phenol in water is: ``` A. Chlorine B. Chlorine dioxide C. Activated carbon D. Ozone E. Potassium permanganate ```
B. Chlorine dioxide
28
If you install a chlorine dioxide feed system, you must: A. Maintain a minimum of 500 mg/L chlorine in the feed solution B. Remove chlorine feed system C. Have activated carbon available for spills D. All the above E. None of the above
A. Maintain a minimum of 500 mg/L chlorine in the feed solution
29
The term "phenolic value" represents: ``` A. The adsorption capacity of carbon B. The phenol alkalinity of water C. The disinfection capacity of Ozone D. The amount of organics in water E. None of the above ```
A. The adsorption capacity of carbon
30
Anabaena, Ceratium, and Synedra mainly cause: ``` A. Taste and Odors B. Filter clogging C. Color D. Filter compacting E. None of the above ```
A. Taste and Odors
31
Asterionella, Cyclotella, and Melosira algae will cause what? ``` A. Filter bed expansion B. Taste and odor C. Color D. Filter compacting E. Filter clogging ```
E. Filter clogging
32
What chemicals are used to generate chlorine dioxide: ``` A. Sodium Chloride and Carbon Dioxide B. Chlorine and Sodium Chloride C. Sodium Chloride and Chlorine D. Chlorine and Sodium Chlorite E. Calcium Oxide and Chlorine ```
D. Chlorine and Sodium Chlorite
33
# Choose the incorrect reaction: ``` A. Ca(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=2CaCO₃+2H₂O B. MgCO₃+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+Mg(OH)₂ C. Mg(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)2=MgCO₃+CaCO₃+2H₂O D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂ E. CaSO₄+Na₂CO₃=CaCO₃+Na₂SO₄ ```
D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂
34
A decrease in water temperature will effect the solubility of CaOH (Calcium Hydroxide) in what way? ``` A. Increase it B. Decrease it C. No effect D. None of the above E. Insufficient data, cannot determine ```
A. Increase it
35
As the temperature of water increases, you should expect: A. Viscosity will increase, speed of reactions and settling rate will decrease B. Viscosity will decrease, speed of reaction and settling rate will increase C. Viscosity and settling rate increase, speed of reactions will decrease D. Cannot determine from information given E. None of the above
B. Viscosity will decrease, speed of reaction and settling rate will increase
36
If sulfur reducing bacteria are found in the distribution system, what problems should you expect? ``` A. Increase chlorine demands, lower pH B. Increase chlorine demand, higher pH C. Increase chlorine demand, black water D. Black water, staining E. Staining, lower pH ```
A. Increase chlorine demands, lower pH
37
Sodium carbonate is used in Lime-Soda softening to: ``` A. Remove Magnesium hardness B. Reduce alkalinity C. Lower pH D. Remove non-carbonate hardness E. Increase calcium oxide solubility ```
D. Remove non-carbonate hardness
38
The addition of a chemical to a colloidal dispersion resulting in particle destabilization by reduction of the forces tending to keep the particle apart best describe: ``` A. Coagulation B. Precipitation C. Sequesterization D. Flocculation E. Sedimentation ```
A. Coagulation
39
The process wherein the electrostatic or interionic forces cause a chemical bridging or enmeshment of colloidal particles into discrete, visible suspended particles that will readily settle under the influence of gravity best describes: ``` A. Coagulation B. Precipitation C. Sequesterization D. Flocculation E. Sedimentation ```
D. Flocculation
40
A Zeta-potentiometer is used to measure? ``` A. Ionic activity of colloidal particles B. Effectiveness of the coagulant dosage C. Mono and dichloramine residuals D. Amount of Polyelectrolytes E. Chlorine demand ```
B. Effectiveness of the coagulant dosage
41
Which laboratory apparatus is used to measure dissolved solids in water? ``` A. Spectrophotometer B. Atomic absorption meter C. Amperometric titration D. Zeta-potentiometer E. Conductivity meter ```
E. Conductivity meter
42
Poly phosphates are sometimes used to do which of the following? ``` A. Precipitate colloidal particle B. Sequester iron and manganese C. Sequester excess calcium D. B & C E. A & C ```
D. B & C
43
Negative non-carbonate hardness occurs when A. Phenolphthalein alkalinity exceed total alkalinity B. Total alkalinity exceed phenolphthalein C. Total hardness exceed phenolphthalein alkalinity D. Total alkalinity exceed total hardness E. None of the above
D. Total alkalinity exceed total hardness
44
Which of the following causes hardness? ``` A. Magnesium and calcium B. Calcium and manganese C. Manganese and iron D. Iron and sodium E. B & D ```
A. Magnesium and calcium
45
Which two of the following bacteria causes red water? ``` A. Anabaena B. Fragillaria C. Leptothrix D. Crenothrix E. Trixphokix ```
C. Leptothrix | D. Crenothrix
46
If you use 10% of your total finished water to backwash your filter what remedial action must be taken? ``` A. Replace filter sand B. Improve pretreatment C. Increase filter runs D. Add phosphates E. Nothing, this is acceptable ```
B. Improve pretreatment
47
If lime dosage in a lime softening plant is doubled, the result would be? ``` A. Incrustation B. Increase filter runs C. Decrease in chlorine demand D. Increase in clear well production E. B & C ```
A. Incrustation
48
You have a well supply with a total alkalinity of 40 mg/L, total hardness of 200 mg/L, turbidity of 4.5 NTU, and a pH of 9.5. Which series of treatment should be used? ``` A. Lime, soda ash, carbon, chlorine B. Lime, soda ash, filtration C. Chlorine, carbon, filtration D. Sodium ion exchange, chlorine, filtration E. Lime, chlorine, carbon ```
D. Sodium ion exchange, chlorine, filtration
49
Mark the correct equation for recarbonation ``` A. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = CaCO₃ + H₂O B. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = Ca(HCO₃)₂ C. Ca(HCO₃) + CO₂ = 2CaCO₃ + H₂O D. Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂= Ca(HCO₃)₂ +H₂O E. None of these above ```
B. Ca(OH)₂ + 2CO₂ = Ca(HCO₃)₂
50
What is the maximum 2 consecutive day average for turbidity in drinking water? ``` A. 10.0 NTU B. 1.0 NTU C. 5.0 NTU D. 0.5 NTU E. 2.0 NTU ```
D. 0.5 NTU
51
What is the MCL for trihalomethanes (TTHM) in drinking water? ``` A. .001 mg/L B. 0.01 mg/L C. 0.08 mg/L D. 100 ug/L E. C & D ```
C. 0.08 mg/L
52
Air binding of a filter can be caused by A. The reduction of pressure resulting from operating under a negative head B. an increase in the temperature of the water during filtration C. The release of oxygen by algae collected within the filter D. All of the above E. A & B
D. All of the above
53
If a filter has been out of the service and allowed to go dry, the filter control valve that should be used to refill the filter with water is the: ``` A. Effluent valve B. influent valve C. Backwash valve D. A or B E. B or C ```
C. Backwash valve
54
One of the following is not an index of water quality as it affects corrosivity. Which is it? ``` A. Langelier index B. ryzner index C. Aggressive index D. AWWA Index E. B & C ```
D. AWWA Index
55
Three genera of algae that contribute to loss of head in a filter: ``` A. Cosmarium, scenedesmus, sphaerocystis B. asterionella, Fragilaria, oscillatoria C. Staurastrum, oocystis, mallomonas D. Cyrosigma, merismopedia, cryptomonas E. Synedra,asterionella, cosmarium ```
C. Staurastrum, oocystis,mallomonas
56
One purpose of adding ammonia (NH₄) to potable water is to: ``` A. Adjust pH B. form combined available chlorine residual C. Remove turbidity D. Destroy TTHM precursors E. protect teeth ```
B. form combined available chlorine residual
57
The condition in the infants known as methemoglobinemia is though to be many caused by high concentrations of: ``` A. Boron B. Phosphates C. Fluoride D. Nitrates E. trihalomethanes ```
D. Nitrates
58
M-endo agar is used to A. Count the number of pathogenic gram-positive organisms by the multiple-tube test B. detect coliform organisms by the pour plate method C. Count the number of endocrine organisms in the water by the filtration technique D. Count the number of total coliform organisms in water by the membrane-filtration technique E. none of the above
D. Count the number of total coliform organisms in water by the membrane-filtration technique
59
Trihalomethanes (TTHMs) are formed by the reaction of certain organic compounds in water with ``` A. Ozone B. free chlorine C. Fluoride D. Combined chlorine E. aluminum sulfate ```
B. free chlorine
60
If the septum in the diatomaceous earth filter does not receive a sufficient body coat, the result will be: ``` A. Shorter filter runs B. turbid effluent C. A decrease in differential pressure D. Damage filter elements E. none of the above ```
B. turbid effluent
61
Carbon dioxide in water will do which of the following? ``` A. Increase turbidity B. decrease turbidity C. Raise pH D. Lower pH E. act as a catalyst for soda ash ```
D. Lower pH
62
Partially closing the discharge valve on a centrifugal pump will cause: ``` A. The motor to draw less amperage B. the motor to run hotter C. The motor to run slower D. The motor to draw more amperage E. the motor to stay the same amperage ```
A. The motor to draw less amperage
63
Gas chlorinator, when operated at a high rate of withdrawal from the chlorine cylinder, can result in ``` A. An explosion B. overheating of the gas cylinder C. Ice formation on the cylinder D. A & B E. none of the above ```
C. Ice formation on the chlorine cylinder
64
The one major factor leading to reservoir turnover (elutrification) is caused by A. The lower strata being warmer than the upper strata B. the upper strata being more dense than the lower strata C. The upper strata and the lower strata reaching the same temperature D. Decaying organic matter causing a gaseous movement t E. none of the above
B. the upper strata being more dense than the lower strata
65
A chlorine cylinder valve is thought to be leaking. If ammonia vapor is passed near the valve the presence of a leak would be indicated by ``` A. Loud noise B. rotten egg smell C. Red vapor D. Yellow vapor E. white vapor ```
E. white vapor
66
Which of the following is not expected to be found in a raw water supply? ``` A. Chlorine B. carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Methane E. oxygen ```
A. Chlorine
67
When both chlorine and polyphosphates are added to a water supply, which should be fed first? ``` A. Chlorine B. polyphosphates C. Both added simultaneously D. Either may be added first E. none of the above ```
B. polyphosphates
68
The membrane filter test for coliform bacteria requires an incubation period of ``` A. 10 -12 hours B. 22-24 hours C. 20-24 hours D. 24-48 hours E. 24-30 hours ```
B. 22-24 hours
69
The maximum holding time for a total coliform sample in the state of Ohio is: ``` A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 24 hours D. 30 hours E. 8 hours ```
D. 30 hours
70
Calcium hypochlorite is formulated as a: ``` A. Liquid B. gas C. Powder D. Coagulant E. polymer ```
C. Powder
71
At what temperature will the fusible plugs in a chlorine cylinder melt: ``` A. 100-110 degrees C B. 71-74 degrees C C. 160-165 degrees F D. A & C E. B & C ```
E. B & C
72
Chlorine is how many times heavier than air? ``` A. 1.5 B. 2.5 C. 4.5 D. 5.5 E. chlorine is lighter than air ```
B. 2.5
73
In counting total coliform colonies, the maximum number of colonies allowed to grow on a petri dish is: ``` A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80 E. no limit ```
D. 80
74
Two identical pressure gauges at the foot of two storage tanks are at the same elevation. The water levels in the tanks are the same, but one holds 1,000,000 gallons while the other holds 1,000 gallons. The gauge on the 1,000 gallon tank reads 80 psi. What should the gauge read on the 1,000,000 gallon tank? A. 800 psi B. cannot be determined C. 80 psi D. 1000 psi
C. 80 psi
75
Water is most dense at. ``` A. 0 C B. 4 C C. 32 C D. 32 F E. 0 F ```
B. 4 C
76
The operator of a public water system had a water sample show a MCL violation for barium of 2.5 mg/L. Three repeat samples were analyzed. The average of all the 4 samples was 1.5 mg/L. To comply with the regulations the operator would: A. Report the violation to the Director of the Ohio EPA within 7 days. B. provide public notification pursuant of the Ohio EPA regulations C. Continue monitoring for barium at least once per month until 2 successive samples comply with the MCL D. Perform all of the above E. perform none of the above
D. Perform all of the above
77
How many repeat samples are required when a regular bacteria sample is positive? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
D. 4
78
Where must the repeat samples be collected? A. All at the same tap B. spread through out the system C. One at the same tap, one within 5 service connections upstream, 1 within 5 services connections downstream, and 1 within 5 service connections upstream or downstream D. One at the same tap, one within five service connections upstream, one within ten service connections downstream, and one within fifteen service connections upstream or downstream
C. One at the same tap, one within five service connections upstream, one within five service connections downstream, one within five services upstream or downstream
79
What should an operator do in the event one or more of the repeat samples are positive A. Notify the OEPA B. take additional samples C. Issue a public notice and boil advisory D. All of the above
D. All of the above
80
When a system has at least one positive bacteria sample the preceding month, what is the minimum number of regular bacteria samples the operator must collect during the current month? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
C. 5
81
The SDWA prescribes MCLs for flouride based upon: A. Annual average of minimum daily water temperatures B. Annual average of maximum daily air temperatures C. Monthly average of maximum daily water temperatures D. Monthly average of maximum daily air temperatures
B. annual average of maximum daily air temperatures
82
USEPA established a maximum contaminant level goal for Pb of A. 1.0 mg/L B. 1.3 mg/L C. More then 10% exceed 15 ppb D. 0.0 mg/L
C. More then 10% exceed 15 ppb Because lead contamination of drinking water often results from corrosion of plumbing materials belonging to customers, EPA established a treatment technique rather then an MCL for lead.
83
In order to comply with the new rule, lead and copper rule purveyors may have to perform the following A. Install corrosion control treatment B. remove Pb and/or Cu from the raw water source(s) C. Replace Pb service lines D. Begin a public education program dealing with Pb and Cu E. all of the above
E. all of the above
84
A correct "first-draw" sample will be ``` A. Be 500ml in volume B. be 1 L in volume C. Stood motionless for 5 hours D. Stood motionless for at least 360 minutes E. both A & C F. Bothe B & D ```
F. Both B & D
85
The motor of a centrifugal pump over heats because a high volume of water is being pumped against a low head. The pump discharge valve is throttled back so that only 30% of the original volume is being pumped. What will this do the motor temperature? A. Temp will increase B. temp will remain the same C. Temp will decrease D. Temp will decrease slightly but then increase sharply
C temp will decrease
86
Sodium alkalinity is also known as negative non carbonate hardness (NaHCO₃) because it reacts with lime to A. Reduce carbonate hardness B. reduce sodium hardness C. Reduce all forms of alkalinity D. Reduce no carbonate hardness
D. Reduce noncarbonate hardness
87
Soda ash is used with the ion exchange method of softening for what purpose? A. Adjust the corrosion index to the scale forming side B. adjust the corrosion index to non scale forming side C. Adjust negative noncarbonate hardness D. Adjust sodium bicarbonate alkalinity
A. Adjust the corrosion. Index to the scale forming side
88
Two samples (A & B) with the same pH were stored at different temperatures; sample A at 5 degrees C and sample B at 160 degrees C. Sample A, after storage, had a pH of 8.8 and sample B, after storage, had a pH of 7.0. What happens to calcium carbonate as temperature increases? A. CaCO₃ dissolves B. CaCO₃ deposits C. CaCO₃ does not change D. CaCO₃ does not relate to pH
B. CaCO₃ deposits
89
Which two points on a gravity filter are used to measure head loss? A. At the sand level and at the filter outlet B. above the sand and above the filter outlet C. Above the sand and at the filter outlet D. At the filter inlet and at the filter outlet
C. Above the sand and at the filter outlet
90
Which statement is untrue regarding a chlorine leak? A. Allow only trained people with proper breathing equipment to handle the leak B. apply water to the leak to stop the flow of gas C. Use a suitable repair kit designed for the type of cylinder in use D. Evacuate other personnel to higher ground E. call a local fire department
B. apply water to the leak to stop the flow of gas
91
You have 1.0 mg/L manganese in your finished water. What can you expect? A. Low hardness B. no problems C. Staining of plumbing fixtures D. Lowering of Cl2 demand
C. Staining of plumbing fixtures
92
Per SDWA, which statement is not true for chemical analysis? A. Records must be kept for 5 years B. date, place, time of sample, and name of sampler must be kept C. Sample must be identified as to type D. Data may be transferred to tabular summaries
A. Records must be kept for 5 years
93
You have organic color in the raw water. What is the best treatment? A. CaCO₃, Na₂R, Na₂CO₃ B. H₂SO, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH C. Lime, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH D. Na₂R, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
B. H₂SO, Al₂(SO₄)₃, NaOH
94
With less NH₃ in the raw water, what will you notice? A. Chloramines formed after breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint B. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint C. Chloramines formed after breakpoint, more Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint D. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, more Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
B. Chloramines formed before breakpoint, less Cl₂ needed to reach breakpoint
95
Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by what? A. High phosphates B. High nitrates C. Low Cl₂ residual D. High Ag
B. High nitrates
96
You find 4 coliforms on a distribution sample plate. You should: A. Get one check sample from the same sampling point B. get 2 consecutive samples from the same sampling point C. Resample and report to OEPA D. Get 4 repeat samples
D. Get 4 repeat samples
97
The fusible plug on a chlorine cylinder will melt at which temperature? A. 143-155 degrees F B. 157-162 degrees F C. 165-178 degrees F D. 175-186 degrees F
B. 157-162 degrees F
98
Aeration will do which of the following: A. Increase D.O. and pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂ B. Decrease D.O. And pH, increase H₂S and CO₂ C. Increase D.O. and H₂S, decrease pH and CO₂ D. Decrease D.O. and H₂S, increase pH and CO₂
A. Increase D.O. and pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
99
How do you soften non-carbonate hardness? A. Lime B. Lime and zeolite C. Na₂CO₃ D. Caustic
D. Caustic
100
Plant turbidity samples are required to be taken at a minimum of every 4 hours. What percent of a months worth of samples must be below 0.5 NTU? A. 5% B. 10% C. 90% D. 95%
D. 95%
101
CT values are expressed in what units? A. ug/L-minutes B. mg/L-minutes C. kg/L-minutes
B. mg/L-minutes
102
What is the best treatment for phenols? A. ClO₂ B. Cl₂ C. O₃ D. KMnO₄
A. ClO₂
103
Activated carbon is rated according to what? A. Sieve size B. Causticity C. pH D. Phenolic value
D. Phenolic value
104
Too much carbonate deposition on the filters will cause what? A. Longer filter runs B. Shorter filter runs C. Higher turbidity D. Lower turbidity
B. Shorter filter runs
105
You find 1.3 mg/L Barium at a customers sink outlet. You should: A. Notify customer and resample within 48 hours at the sample location B. Do nothing C. Notify the media within 72 hours and resample same day at the same location D. Report to OEPA within 7 days and initiate 3 additional analyses at the same point
B. Do nothing MCL Barium is 2.0 mg/L
106
What is the optimum filter rate for a rapid sand filter according to standard practices? A. 0.5-1 gpm/sq.ft. B. 2-4 gpm/sq.ft. C. 10-13 gpm/sq.ft. D. 15-20 gpm/sq.ft.
B. 2-4 gpm/sq.ft.
107
What is the best chemical to treat with if you have low hardness and high alkalinity? A. Lime B. lime and zeolite C. Na2CO3 D. Caustic
A. Lime
108
Sodium ion exchange increases what in the finished water? A. Ca(SO₄), MgSO₄, Mg(OH)₂ B. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃ C. Na₂CO₃, CaCl₂, MgCO₃ D. NaOH, Ca(OH)₂, Na₂CO₃
B. Na₂SO₄, NaCl, NaNO₃
109
The action level for copper at the customers tap is based on what percentage? A. 95% of samples being above 1300 ug/L B. 5% of samples being above 1300 ug/L C. None of the above
C. None of the above MCL 1.3 mg/L SMCL 1.0 mg/L 90% of samples
110
Which sets of parameters are needed to calculate CT values? A. Reactor Cl2 residual, pH,temp. in Celcius, raw flow gpm, reactor width,baffling factor B. Reactor Cl2 residual, pH, temp in Fahrenheit, finished flow gpm, reactor depth, baffling factor C. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw water flow gpm, reactor volume, baffling factor D. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw flow gpm, reactor depth, baffling factor
C. Reactor Cl2 residual, raw water flow gpm, reactor volume, baffling factor
111
You install a ClO2 set up in your plant. You must: A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl2 in solution containing Chlorites B. Maintain a 500 mg/L chlorites in solution containing Cl2 C. Keep a two week supply of ClO2 on hand as a minimum D. Keep a one week supply of Cl2 on hand as a minimum
A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl2 in solution containing chlorites
112
As the temperature of water decreases, the ability of the floc particles to settle will do what? A. Decrease B. Increase C. Stay the same
A. Decrease
113
What is the best pH range for color removal? A. 1-4 B. 3-5 C. 4-6 D. 6-8
C. 4-6
114
KMnO₄ is primarily used for: A. Taste and odor control B. Settling and manganese removal C. Chemical regeneration D. Disinfection
B. Settling and manganese removal
115
Name the taste and odor algae. A. Volvox, coliform, aphanizominon B. Cyclotella, asterionella, Melosira C. Anabaena, Ceratium, Synedra
C. Anabaena, Ceratium, Synedra
116
Effective size of sand passes state standards, but uniformity coefficient is high. You can expect: A. Sand compacting B. Sand non-compacting C. Decrease loss of head D. Increase loss of head
D. Increase loss of head
117
As the loss of head increases on a filter, the rate of flow controller will do what? A. Openup to area of flow B. Close to area of flow C. Try to remain at same opening
A. Open up to area of flow
118
SDWA approved method for Cl2 residual: A. OTA B. Amperometric colorimeter C. DPD D. NTU
C. DPD
119
TON is measured by using what? A. Conductivity meter B. Odor free water C. pH probe
B. Odor free water
120
At the same flow rate, what will bethe effect on the velocity when the pipe diameter is doubled? A. Increase velocity twofold B. Decrease velocity twofold C. Increase velocity fourfold D. Decrease velocity fourfold
D. Decrease velocity fourfold
121
Which is the least corrosive water? A. High calcium, low alkalinity B. high alkalinity, high calcium C. High alkalinity, low calcium D. High calcium, high residual Cl2
B. high alkalinity, high calcium
122
You are going to fill your up ground reservoir from a stream which is subject to feed lot runoff. What do you test for? A. NO₃, D.O., Cl B. SO₄, PO₄, Cl C. CO, NO₃, SO₄ D. Algae, Cl, coliform
A. NO₃, D.O., Cl
123
# Choose the incorrect formula: ``` A. Ca(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=2CaCO₃+2H₂O B. MgCO₃+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+Mg(OH)₂ C. Mg(HCO₃)₂+Ca(OH)₂=MgCO₃+CaCO₃+2H₂O D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂ E. CaSO4+Na2CO₃=CaCO₃+Na2SO4 ```
D. CaCl₂+Ca(OH)₂=CaCO₃+CaCl₂
124
Which statement is untrue regarding a ClO₂ system in your plant? A. Maintain a 500 mg/L Cl₂ in solution containing chlorites B. the solution has a jgreenish-yellow color C. Feed water should be softened to less than 100 mg/L D. 2NaClO₂+Cl₂-->2ClO₂+2NaCl
C. Feed water should be softened to less than 100 mg/L
125
Partially closing the discharge valve on a centrifugal pump will cause: A. The motor to draw less amperage B. the motor to run hotter C. The motor to run slower D. The motor to draw more amperage
A. The motor to draw less amperage
126
Which laboratory apparatus is used to measure dissolved solids in water? A. Spectrophotometer B. Arnperometric titrator C. Conductivity meter D. Zeta-potentiometer
C. Conductivity meter
127
Larger particle size and less dense filter media will produce: A. Shorter filter runs and slower rate of flow B. longer filter runs and faster rate of flow C. Longer filter runs and slower rate of flow D. Shorter filter runs and faster rate of flows
B. longer filter runs and faster rate of flows
128
If lime dosage in a lime softening plant is doubled, the result would be? A. Incrustation B. increase filter runs C. Decrease in chlorine demand D. Increase in clear well production
A. Incrustation
129
For breakpoint chlorination the optimum pH for chlorine feed is: A. 6.5-7.5 B. less then 7.0 C. Greater then 8.0 D. 7.0-8.0
D. 7.0-8.0
130
The motor of a centrifugal pump overheats because a high volume of water is being pumped against a low head. The pump discharge valve is throttled back so that only 30% of the original volume is being pumped. What will this do to the motor temperature? A. Temperature will increase B. temperature will remain the same C. Temperature will decrease D. Temperature will decrease slightly but then increase sharply
C. Temperature will decrease
131
Sodium alkalinity is also known as negative noncarbonate hardness (NaHCO₃) because it reacts with lime to: A. Reduce carbonate hardness B. reduce sodium hardness C. Reduce all forms of alkalinity D. Reduce noncarbonate hardness
Reduce noncarbonate hardness
132
What should you notice after well water has been aerated? A. Increase D.O. And pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂ B. increase D.O. And H₂S, decrease pH and CO₂ C. Decrease D.O. And pH, increase H₂S and CO₂ D. Decrease D.O. And H₂S, increase pH and CO₂
A. Increase D.O. And pH, decrease H₂S and CO₂
133
The pH is a measure of? A. Conductivity B. waters ability to neutralize acid C. Hydrogen ion activity D. Dissolved solids
C. Hydrogen ion activity
134
The primary source of volatile organic contamination (VOC) of water supplies is? A. Agricultural B. Industrial solvents C. Acid rain D. Agricultural fertilizers
B. industrial solvents
135
Hydrogen sulfide gas causes? A. Corrosion of structures and equipment B. high pH values C. Destruction of algae D. Destruction of bacteria
A. Corrosion of structures and equipment
136
The type of corrosion caused by the use of dissimilar metals in a water system is? A. Caustic corrosion B. galvanic corrosion C. Oxygen corrosion D. Tubercular corrosion
B. galvanic corrosion
137
Chlorine reacts with nitrogenous compounds to form? A. Ammonia nitrate B. free chlorine C. Chlorinated hydrocarbons D. Chloramines
D. Chloramines
138
If solids in water have an average specific gravity of 1.20, they are? A. 12% heavier then water B. 20% heavier then watere C. 2% heavier then water D. 20% lighter then water
B. 20% heavier the water
139
Cavitation in pumps may be caused by pumping? A. Against discharge heads higher than design B. excessive amounts of abrasive solids C. Flow rates considerably higher then design flows D. With impeller speed below manufacturers recommendations
C. Flow rates considerably higher than design flows
140
Trihalomethanes (THM) precursors are_________compounds? A. Chloramines B. methane C. Natural organic D. Synthetic organic
C. Natural organic
141
Three most commonly used coagulants in water treatment are? A. Aluminum hydroxide, lime, and sodium hydroxide B. aluminum sulfate, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate C. Lime, sodium hydroxide, and chlorine D. Soda, lime, and chlorine
B. aluminum hydroxide, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate
142
In order for a chemical to function satisfactorily as a coagulant, it must? A. Destroy bacteria B. react with the alkalinity in the water causing floc formations C. React with the lime D. Remove taste and odors
B. react with the alkalinity in the water causing floc formations
143
Alkalinity in water serves as? A. A measure of the concentration of calcium B. a mild disinfectant C. A measure of the water capacity to neutralize an acid D. A corrosion inhibitor
C. A measure of the water capacity to neutralize an acid
144
Greensand is often used as a filter medium for wate with high? A. Turbidity B. manganese concentrations C. Bacteria counts D. Magnesium concentrations
B. manganese concentrations
145
Chemicals that cause alkalinity in water are? A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide B. calcium sulfate and sodium sulfate C. Magnesium chloride and iron chloride D. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
146
The process in which dye or fluoride is added to the water to test for velocity? A. Velocity test B. tracer study C. Dye test D. Velocity study
B. tracer study
147
In direct filter plant which process is skipped? A. Flocculation B. coagulation C. Flash mix D. Sedimentation
D. Sedimentation
148
Which is not a polymer? A. Anionic B. cationic C. Nonionic D. Covalent
D. Covalent
149
The chemical transformation of a substance in solution into an insoluble form is? ``` A. Coagulation B. sequestration C. Precipitate D. Flocculation E. sedimentation ```
C. Precipitate
150
Which of the following conditions, when found in the water supply, would tend to increase the corrosiveness of the water on metals? A. High dissolved CO₂ content B. high alkalinity C. Low dissolved CO₂ content D. Low dissolved minerals
A. High dissolved CO₂ content
151
The principal reason for using soda-ash in the lime-soda softening process is to? A. Absorb B. remove non-carbonate hardness C. Adjust corrosion index to scale forming side D. Maintain proper sulfate-carbonate
B. remove non-carbonate hardness
152
What is the amount of time water should set in the distribution line before a lead and copper sample is drawn? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 6 hours
D. 6 hours
153
Which chemical is considered the most effective for removing or destroying the effect phenols have in water? A. ClO₂ B. Cl₂ C. Activated carbon D. KmNO₄
A. ClO₂
154
Which raw materials are used to generate chlorine dioxide? A. Sodium chlorate and chlorine B. sodium chlorite and chlorine C. Sodium chloride and chlorine D. Sodium hypochlorite and chlorine
B. Sodium chlorite and chlorine
155
When selecting a coagulant and a coagulant aid you should check for which of the following? ``` A. Temperature B. pH C. Hardness D. Alkalinity E. All of the above ```
E. All of the above
156
What makes non-carbonate hardness? ``` A. Hydroxides B. carbonates C. Nitrates D. Bi-carbonates E. soda ash ```
A. Hydroxides
157
Temperature decreases what happens? A. Settling increases, chemical use increases B. settling decreases, chemical use decreases C. Settling decreases, chemical use increases D. Settling stays the same, chemical use stays the same E. doesn't matter because I'm moving to florida
C. Settling decreases, chemical use increases
158
Filter sand size increase do to? ``` A. Over feed soda-ash B. over feed carbonization C. Under feed carbonization D. Under feed soda-ash E. too long of a filter back wash ```
A. Over feed soda-ash
159
Required to monitor for which inorganic? ``` A. Fluoride, arsenic, nitrates and nitrites B. Arsenic, antimony, and cadmium C. Fluoride, asbestos, and cyanide D. Mercury, selenium, and thallium E. Nitrate, nitrite, and selenium ```
A. Fluoride, arsenic, nitrates, and nitrites
160
How to calculate pump draw down? ``` A. Static level - cone of depression B. Ground level - pump centerline C. Pump centerline - drawdown level D. Cone of depression - pump centerline E. Cone of depression - static level ```
A. Static level - cone of depression
161
What does MRDL stand for? ``` A. Mean Residual Detection Limit B. Maximum Residual Detection Limit C. Minimum Reaident Duration Length D. Minimum Range Detection Length E. Minimum Range Detection Limit ```
E. Minimum Range Detection Limit
162
Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of water? ``` A. Temperature B. Color C. Taste D. Odor E. Hardness ```
E. Hardness
163
Which of the following is not a sludge thickening process? ``` A. Drying beds B. Slow sand filter C. Spiractor equipment D. Belt press E. Micro waving ```
B. slow sand filter
164
Which process does not remove Fe and Mn? ``` A. Base exchange B. filtration C. Flocculation D. Oxidation E. aeration ```
C. Flocculation
165
What is the minimum distance from a sewer line to a water main laying horizontal to each other under ground? ``` A. There are no limits B. 20' C. 22' D. 10' E. 5' ```
D. 10'
166
What is the minimum distance a water line can be placed under a sewer main under ground? ``` A. 24" B. 36" C. 48" D. 18" E. None of the above ```
E. None of the above
167
What is the minimum distance a water line can be placed over a sewer main underground? ``` A. 24" B. 36" C. 18" D. 48" E. None of the above ```
C. 18"
168
How are three phase motors usually protected? ``` A. Circuit breakers B. fuses C. Amp meters D. Transformers E. overload relays ```
E. overload relays
169
What does MPN stand for? ``` A. Maximum Population Number B. Minimum Population Number C. Maximum Phosphorus Number D. Most Probable Number E. Most Potable Number ```
D. Most Probable Number
170
What does IDLH stand for? A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health B. Immediate Dial Left on Hand Operation C. Indefinite Direction Left-Hand Turn D. Immediately Dangers do to Lightning and Hale E. Indefinite Destruction to Life and Health
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health
171
What does a Vacuum Regulator - Check Unit do Ina chlorine feed system? A. Regulations chlorine feed rate manually B. Maintains a constant vacuum on chlorinator C. Discharges solution mixture of chlorine and water D. Mixes or injects chlorine gas into water supply E. Provides source of air to reduce excess vacuum
B. Maintains a constant vacuum on chlorinator
172
The unit used to measure current strength ``` A. Ampere B. Watt C. Volt D. Kilowatt hour E. Current ```
A. Ampere
173
Why are zinc and magnesium commonly used as sacrificial anodes in water tanks and for buried pipes? A. Last longer than other metals in corrosive waters B. They will not corrode C. They form a protective coating over other metals D. They corrode preferentially to aluminum and iron E. They are the cheapest thing that we can find
D. They corrode preferentially to aluminum and iron
174
Which of the following chemical factors influence corrosion? ``` A. pH B. Dissolved solids C. Dissolved oxygen D. Hardness E. Alkalinity ```
A. pH
175
Which chemicals should be added to achieve calcium carbonate saturation in waters with high levels of hardness and alkalinity? ``` A. Soda ash B. Hydrated lime C. Calcium hydroxide D. Caustic soda E. Quicklime ```
B. Hydrated lime
176
What are the health effects from copper in drinking water? ``` A. Stomach and intestinal distress B. Increased blood pressure C. Cancer D. Deficits in hearing E. All of the above ```
E. All of the above
177
How can a water utility anticipate the onset of a taste and odor episode? A. By sampling and analyzing raw water B. By keeping complete and accurate records of outbreaks C. By expecting health department to warn utility in advance D. By relying on consumers to anticipate outbreaks E. Just wait for them to happen and apologize
A. By sampling and analyzing raw water
178
Where is powdered activated carbon often applied? ``` A. At flocculation tanks B. After filtration C. After chlorination D. Out in distribution system E. at the flash mixer ```
E. at the flash mixer
179
What is the best early warning of waste water contamination of the source of wat? ``` A. An increase in raw water flows B. A failure of a bacteriological test C. An increase in coliform counts D. A sudden drop in chlorine residual E. a sudden bloom of algae ```
D. A sudden drop in chlorine residual
180
Your water treatment plant uses 39.6 lbs of cationic polymer to treat a flow of 2.71 MGD. What is the polymer dosage? A. .07 ppm B. 1.75 ppm C. 14.61 ppm D. 3.23 ppm
B. 1.75 ppm
181
A physical link between a potable water supply and one of unknown or questionable quality is ________. A. A cross connection B. a Tier 1 violation C. A boil water advisory D. A back flow prevention assembly
A. A cross connection
182
The purpose of stabilization is ________. A. To prevent floc from rising in the basin B. to prevent sludge from entering filters C. To prevent corrosion or excessive scale from entering the distribution system D. To prevent excessive turbidity at the top of the filters
C. To prevent corrosion or excessive scale from entering the distribution system
183
Core sampling is a viable way to check the condition of your __________. A. Raw water B. coagulation process C. Finished water D. Filters
D. Filters
184
The best cross connection device is ___________. A. Air gap B. double check C. Atmospheric vacuum breaker D. Barometric loop
A. Air gap
185
________ ________ are used to cause particles to become destabilized and begin to clump together. A. Coagulant aids B. nonsettable solids C. Zeta particles D. Primary coagulants
D. Primary coagulants
186
The hydrologic cycle relates to _________. A. The treatment processes B. an old Harley C. Movement of water in the environment D. The moons pull on tide waters
C. Movement of water in the environment
187
Surface waters are more difficult to clean up or remediate than groundwater. A. True B. False
B. False
188
Figure the weir overflow rate if your flow is 3.1 cuft/sec and the diameter of the weir is 28 ft.. A. 1391.28 gpm/ft of weir B. 15.8 gpm/ft of weir C. .035 gpm/ft of weir D. 296 gpm/ft of weir
B. 15.8 gpm/ft of weir
189
_________ has been implicated in more waterborne disease outbreaks than any other factor. A. Improper treatment B. main breaks C. Improper or inadequate flushing D. Back flow
D. Backflow
190
Your treatment facility uses 97 lbs of chlorine a day to disinfect the 4 MGD you treat. Those 97 lbs results in a chlorine concentration of 2.9 ppm. When checking the furthest area of your system you discover that residual is .6 ppm chlorine. What is your demand? A. 3.5 ppm B. 1.7 ppm C. 2.3 ppm D. 3.5 ppm
C. 2.3 ppm
191
The basin in Wahootchie's water plant measure 60 feet long by 40 feet wide by 8 feet deep. The flow through this plant is 4.1 cuft/sec. What is the detention time? A. 1 hour 18 minutes B. 144 minutes C. 449 minutes D. 2 hours 24 minutes
A. 1 hour 18 minutes
192
This device is approved to protect against back flow and backsiphonage in high hazard applications. A. Double check valve assembly B. Vacuum pressure breaker C. A hose bib D. Reduced pressure zone assembly
D. Reduced pressure zone assembly
193
One method of determining if your finished water has the likelihood to be corrosive is ___________. A. Van der Waals formula B. Zeta potential C. Langeliers Saturation Index D. Hydrological Cycles
C. Langeliers Saturation Index
194
The filters in the treatment plant are 40 feet by 20 feet by 7 feet deep. The flow is 1500 gpm. What is the filtration rate? A. .26 gpm/sq ft B. 1.9 gpm/sq ft C. 2.6 gpm/sq ft D. 3.7 gpm/sq ft
B. 1.9 gpm/sq ft
195
A sanitary survey is used to determine _________. A. Source water characteristics and effectiveness of treatment B. the hygienic and operational aspects of the plant C. Compliance with the SDWA and other EPA mandates D. Whether the CCR is complete and accurate
A. Source water characteristics and effectiveness of treatment
196
In solid contact units, the three main operational fundamentals are ________________. A. Sedimentation, slurry, and suspended solids B. mixing, clarifying, and filtration C. Chemical dosage, recirculation rate, and sludge control D. Weighing agents, alkalinity, and PAC
C. Chemical dosage, recirculation rate, and sludge control
197
Particle counters can be used in place of ____________ in the treatment process to obtain better control. A. Flash mixers B. variable drives C. Filter coring D. Turbidimeters
D. Turbidimeters
198
In their soluble or reduced state, iron and manganese are _______. A. Alkalinity enhancers B. colorless C. Negatively charged D. Won't dissolve in water
B. colorless
199
________ corrosion is the corrosivity of dissimilar metals. A. Saline B. hydroxyl C. Excessive D. Galvanic
D. Galvanic
200
The two types of back flow are ________________. A. Backsiphonage and backpressure B. backpressure and cavitation C. Air gap and rpz D. Dynamic and backsiphonage
A. Backsiphonage and backpressure
201
25 MGD is equivalent to ___________. A. 1122 gpm and 1560 cu/ft of water B. 36000 gpm and 187 cu/ft per sec C. 17362 gpm and 38.75 cu/ft per sec D. 15600 gpm and 466.7 cu/ft per sec
C. 17362 gpm and 38.75 cu/ft per sec
202
When chlorine is used as a disinfectant in water there reaches a point when the amount of chlorine added is reflected identically with the amount of free residual measured on your DPD___________. A. Chloramination B. breakpoint C. Ozone D. Liftoff
B. breakpoint
203
pH, by definition is _________. A. The ability of particles to stick together B. the ability to cause color to turn insoluble C. Causes a water molecule to bring in a third hydrogen atom D. The hydrogen ion concentration in water
D. The hydrogen ion concentration in water
204
Which of these does NOT have a primary MCL? A. Nitrate B. fluoride C. Manganese D. Copper
C. Manganese
205
During the coagulation/flocculation process, particle impurities can be divided into two classifications. A. Primary coagulants and coagulant aids B. settleable and nonsettable solids C. Hydraulic and mechanical D. Paddlewheel and walking beam
B. settleable and nonsettable
206
You have cracks appearing in your coagulation basin. If the basin is 20 feet wide and 60 feet long and the water is 12 feet deep. How many gallons will need to be pumped out of this basin so work can begin? A. 107712 gallons B. 9600 gallons C. 14400 gallons D. 211384 gallons
A. 107712 gallons
207
MCLG is an acronym for A. Most Common Lucky Guess B. Minimum Collodial Level Goals C. Maximum Chlorine Level Gallons D. Maximum Contaminant Level Goals
D. Maximum Contaminate Level Goals
208
___________ polymers are positively charged. A. Nonionic B. anionic C. Cationic D. Platonic
C. Cationic
209
Water if flowing through a completely filled 10 inch line at 4 cuft/sec. What is the velocity? A. .4 fps B. 7.3 fps C. 2.5 fps D. 4.0 cuft/sec
B. 7.3 fps
210
Generally, the more uniform the media, the ________ the rate of headless. A. Slower B. same C. Smaller D. Larger
A. Slower
211
The flow through a water plant is 5.25 MGD. Jar test have indicated that the desired dosage of lime is 150 mg/L. What would the correct lime feeder setting per day and per minute? A. 3294.0 lbs a day/2.29 lbs a minute B. 6567.8 lbs a day/4.56 lbs a minute C. 4930.9 lbs a day/3.42 lbs a minute D. 6587.8 lbs a day/274.5 lbs a minute
B. 6567.8 lbs a day/4.56 lbs a minute
212
Water is moving through a 22 inch pipe at a velocity of 3.5 fps. What is the flow? A. 6.77 cuft/sec B. .15 cuft/sec C. 4.6 fps D. 9.2 cuft/sec
D. 9.2 cuft/sec
213
In conventional rectangular sedimentation basins, 50% of the sludge should settle out in the __________ __________ of the basin. A. First third B. last half C. Very beginning D. Tail end
A. First third
214
The treatment facility treats 100,000 cuft of water a day and operates for 18 hours a day. How much water do they treat a day expressed in MGD? A. .75 MGD B. 1.80 MGD C. 2.92 MGD D. 5.75 MGD
A. .75 MGD
215
The Langeliers Saturation Index provided an indication of ___________. A. The solubility of iron and manganese B. the pH necessary to settle out color C. The rate at which particles will settle D. The likelihood that your source water is corrosive
D. The likelihood that your source water is corrosive
216
The most common operational complaint received by a water operator is __________. A. Water rates are too high B. taste and odor C. Your uniforms aren't stylish enough D. Improper treatment techniques
B. taste and odors
217
The Van der Waals principle refers to __________. A. Oppositely charged particles attract B. the settling rate of suspended solids C. The benefits of early oxidation D. The backwash rates of multi media filters
A. Oppositely charged particles attract
218
Coupon testing is a viable indicator of __________. A. Treatment optimization B. the speed at which macrofloc is formed C. The corrosive or scale forming tendencies of your water D. The super saturation level of dissolved oxygen in your water
C. The corrosive or scale forming tendencies of your water
219
The time necessary to perform the coagulation, flocculation, and settling processes in treatment are correctly listed in what order, starting with coagulation? A. Days, weeks, months B. hours, minutes, seconds C. Weeks, months, years D. Seconds, minutes, hours
D. Seconds, minutes, hours
220
Overdosing of potassium permanganate will likely cause ___________. A. An extremely high pH B. pink water C. Taste and odor D. Inadequate settling
B. pink water
221
Which of the following is most likely to be used as a primary coagulant? A. Brine B. ammonious hydroxide C. Ferric sulfate D. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Ferric sulfate
222
Desirable media characteristics include ________________. A. Permeability B. solubility in water C. Full of impurities D. Hard and durable
D. Hard and durable
223
The two types of removal mechanisms for gravity filters are ______________. A. Redundant and repetitive B. mechanical and adsorption C. Coagulation and flocculation D. Regeneration and renewal
B. mechanical and adsorption
224
The LT2ESWTR has decreed that we test our source water for the presence of ____________. A. Algae B. pharmaceuticals C. Cryptosporidium D. Nitrate
C. Cryptosporidium
225
Heterotrophic plate counts measure ____________. A. All pathogens in the sample B. all bacteria in the sample C. All giardiasis lamblia in the sample D. Percent of sludge in the sample
B. all bacteria in the sample
226
Combined filter effluent must be less than ________NTU in 95% of all measurements (collected every 4 hours) for each month. A. 1.0 NTU B. 2.0 NTU C. 3.0 NTU D. 0.3 NTU
D. 0.3 NTU
227
Total coliform samples have a __________ hold time. A. 12 hour B. 24 hour C. 30 hour D. 36 hour
C. 30 hour
228
Extremely soft water can cause problems with pipes and fittings because it is ______________. A. Corrosive B. Scale forming C. Full of suspended solids D. Toxic
A. Corrosive
229
Fluoride is added to water to ____________. A. Create a nuisance B. aid in the development of teeth and bones C. So there is something that has both a primary and secondary MCL D. aid in the protective coating of pipes
B. aid in the development of teeth and bones
230
An atmospheric vacuum breaker backflow prevention device protects against _________________. A. Backflow B. Backsiphonage and backpressure C. Neither D. Backsiphonage
D. Backsiphonage
231
The best pH level for coagulation usually falls in the range of __________. A. 4-6 B. 5-7 C. 7-9 D. 1-3
B. 5-7
232
Which, surface water or ground water, usually contain a higher level of pathogens? A. Surface water B. ground water C. Both are equal D. Neither
A. Surface water
233
High nitrate levels in the water can cause _________. A. Rickets B. cholera C. Blue baby syndrome D. Dysentery
C. Blue baby syndrome
234
35 degrees celsius is equivalent to ____________ degrees fahrenheit. A. 0 B. 95 C. 1.6 D. 55
B. 95
235
The mixing of coagulant chemicals and raw water is called ____________. A. Flocculation B. aeration C. Reverse osmosis D. Flash mixing
D. Flash mixing
236
Sedimentation basins have _________ zones. A. Five B. four C. Three D. Two
B. four
237
The flow of a 48 inch pipe is 8590 gpm. What is the velocity? A. 3.05 fps B. 4.77 fps C. 1.52 fps D. 2.33 fps
C. 1.52 fps
238
Chlorine gas is _________ times _________ than air. A. 2.5 lighter B. 4.5 heavier C. 3.5 lighter D. 2.5 heavier
D. 2.5 heavier
239
An approved air gap separation must be __________. A. 12 inches or 3 times the diameter whichever is greater B. 2 1/2 times the inside diameter or a minimum of 1 inch C. .785 x D x D D. A barometric loop
B. 2 1/2 times the inside diameter or a minimum of 1 inch
240
Cathodic protection refers to __________. A. Personal protective equipment B. thermal electric protection C. Corrosion D. Filtration
C. Corrosion
241
The two main substances that cause water hardness are ________. A. Benzene and cadmium B. manganese and calcium C. Calcium and copper D. Magnesium and calcium
D. Magnesium and calcium
242
If you get a positive coliform sample what must be done? A. Retake the original sample B. retake the original sample plus one sample within 5 upstream service connections and one sample within 5 downstream service connections C. Retake the original sample, one from the water plant, and one from any service connection close to the original sample site D. Since no fecal coliform was detected, no more sampling needs to take place
B. retake the original sample plus one sample within 5 upstream service connections and one sample within 5 downstream service connections
243
When back washing filters, bed expansion should be between ________ percent. A. 15-30 B. 10-20 C. 20-40 D. 30-50
A. 15-30
244
The electronic flow meters read 137,892,900 gallons at 8:00 am on Monday and 146,007,227 gallons at 8:00 am on Tuesday. According to the scales 122 lbs of chlorine was fed during that 24 hr period. Free chlorine readings entering the clearwell read 0.8 mg/L. What was the approximate chlorine demand of the raw water that day? A. 2.6 mg/L B. 1.0 mg/L C. 3.2 mg/L D. 4.1 mg/L
B. 1.0 mg/L
245
If the chlorine demand in the Podunk Water District was 1.2 ppm and the chlorine residual was 0.4 ppm what would the chlorine dosage be? A. 0.8 ppm B. 1.6 ppm C. 2.0 ppm D. 2.5 ppm
B. 1.6 ppm
246
How many lbs of HTH (65%) are required to treat 7 MG of water and satisfy a 2.8 ppm demand as well as a 0.6 ppm residual? A. 198.5 lbs B. 251.9 lbs C. 288.7 lbs D. 305.4 lbs
D. 305.4 lbs
247
A jumbled mass or collection of floc, solids, and filter media that could grow into a larger mass and reduce filter efficiency is _________. A. Turbidity mass B. tuberculation C. A mudball D. A media crack
C. A mudball
248
Calculate the weir overflow rate if the flow is 2.3 cuft/sec and the radius of the weir is 29 feet. A. 5.67 gpm/ft of weir B. 8.50 gpm/ft of weir C. 11.34 gpm/ft of weir D. 17.01 gpm/ft of weir
A. 5.67 gpm/ft of weir
249
The two main softening methods used by treatment facilities are _______________. A. Reverse osmosis and oxidation B. distillation and disinfection C. Ultraviolet radiation and electrodialysis D. Ion-exchange and lime-soda ash
D. Ion- exchange and lime-soda ash
250
The effective way to combat taste and odor problems is ___________. A. Aeration and tube settlers B. settling out by particle counting C. Prevent them from occurring D. Coagulation and flocculation
C. Prevent them from occurring
251
If a filter exceeds _______ NTU at any time the system must arrange for the state to conduct a comprehensive performance evaluation within 30 days. A. 2.0 NTU B. 3.0 NTU C. 5.0 NTU D. 10.0 NTU
A. 2.0 NTU
252
Which disinfection method provides a residual safeguard? A. Ozonation B. chlorination C. Membrane filtration D. Ultraviolet radiation
B. chlorination
253
Turbidity is used as a process control measurement because __________. A. Everyone has a turbidimeter B. the results are foolproof C. The number of pathogens increase as turbidity increase D. Turbidity removal is an extremely easy task
C. The number of pathogens increase as turbidity increases
254
Paula's water plant treated their output of 4.5 MGD with 150 lbs of gaseous chlorine. What is their dosage at Patulas plant? A. 2.5 ppm B. 3.0 ppm C. 4.5 ppm D. 4.0 ppm
D. 4.0 ppm
255
Solids contact units (clarifiers) generally demand a higher level of operator knowledge and skill than conventional treatment techniques and processes..... A. True B. false
A. True
256
Monkeys Eyebrow's treatment facility treats 9.5 MGD through the use of (6) filters, each measuring 20 feet wide by 20 feet long. What is their filtration rate? A. 16.50 gpm/sq ft B. 1.77 gpm/sq ft C. 2.75 gpm/sq ft D. 4.76 gpm/sq ft
C. 2.75 gpm/sq ft
257
Sources of taste and odor issues include ___________. A. Raw water B. distribution systems C. Consumer plumbing D. All the above
D. All the above
258
Most water treatment facilities will run more effectively if ____________. A. The mayor lends a hand B. it runs 24 hrs a day C. It runs 12 hrs on and 12 hrs off D. It runs 16 hours a day
B. it runs 24 hrs a day
259
All systems in Ohio must carry at least _______ppm chlorine residual everywhere in their system. A. 0.2 B. 2.0 C. 4.0 D. There is no minimum
A. 0.2
260
Which is the most effective disinfectant when chlorine is added to water? A. Hydrogen ion B. calcium dioxide C. Hypochlorous acid D. Haleoacetic acid
C. Hypochlorous acid
261
Hard water can cause problems. Which of these is NOT a problem caused by hard water? A. Scale formation in pipes B. toxic substances occurring because of corrosion C. White scale on laundry fixtures, sinks, cooking utensil, etc. D. Buildup on water heater heating elements
B. toxic substances occurring because of corrosion
262
Filtration actually ______________ particulates. A. Destroys B. stores C. Dissolves D. Suspends
B. stores
263
If a filter measures 20 feet by 30 feet by 7 foot deep and the flow is 3.5 cuft/sec, what is the backwash rate? A. 1.1 gpm/sqft B. 3.3 gpm/sqft C. 2.6 gpm/sqft D. 1.7 gpm/sqft
C. 2.6 gpm/sqft
264
Double check valve backflow prevention are approved for high hazard applications. A. True B. false
B. false
265
Algae has a profound effect on our surface waters. During the day algae _____ _______ and at night it ______ _______. A. Produces carbon dioxide, produces oxygen B. secrets sludge, produces toxins C. Produces oxygen, produces carbon dioxide D. Sleeps soundly, parties hardy
C. Produces oxygen, produces carbon dioxide
266
Water is moving through a 10 inch pipe at a rate of 4.2 feet per second. What is the flow? A. 3.51 cuft/sec B. 7.72 cuft/sec C. 5.61 cuft/sec D. 2.28 cuft/sec
D. 2.28 cuft/sec
267
Iron and manganese removal can be accomplished by ___________. A. Oxidation with chlorine followed by filtration B. oxidation by aeration followed by filtration C. Oxidation by potassium permanganate followed by filtration D. All the above
D. All the above
268
When chlorine reacts with organics in the water it has the tendency to produce __________. A. Chloramines B. trihalomethanes and haloacetics acids C. Macrofloc D. Apparent color
B. trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids
269
Short circuiting refers to __________. A. Pumps running backwards which stops treatment B. a movie made in the 80's C. Inadequate voltage applied water treated by electrodialysis D. Uneven flows which result in decreased treatment efficiency
D. Uneven flows which result in decreased treatment efficiency
270
____________ is a concentrated accumulation of chemicals and contaminants and pollutants that we attempt to remove from raw water. A. Pathogens B. sludge C. Coagulants D. Fluoride
B. sludge
271
The minimum number of bacteriological samples that any system can submit a month is __________. A. 2 B. 5% of residential services C. 6 D. 1 for every 10,000 people served
A. 2
272
In order to disinfect a sedimentation basin measuring 20 ft in width, 60 ft in length, and 10 foot deep to obtain 50 ppm would require how many lbs of 65% available HTH? A. 5.0 lbs B. 41.3 lbs C. 37.4 lbs D. 57.6 lbs
D. 57.6 lbs
273
The primary duty of a water treatment operator is to ______________. A. Protect the public health B. perform assigned duties C. Obey the mayor or water board D. Get promoted as often as possible
A. Protect the public health
274
What natural electrical force(s) keeps Collodial particles apart in water treatment? A. Van der Waals force B. ionic forces C. Zeta potential D. Quantum forces
C. Zeta potential
275
Which is a common mistake that operators make regarding flocculation units? A. Excessive flocculation time B. lack of food-grade NSF-approved grease on the Flocculator bearings C. Keeping the mixing energy the same in all flocculation units D. Too short a flocculation time
A. Excessive flocculation time
276
What's the most important reason to reduce turbidity? A. To reduce taste-and-odor problems B. to remove pathogens C. To reduce corrosion D. To determine the efficiency of coagulation and flocculation
B. to remove pathogens
277
Which oxidant is a bluish toxic gas with a pungent odor? A. Bromine B. iodine C. Ozone D. Potassium permanganate
C. Ozone
278
When supplied with air, ozone generators will produce about A. 2 percent ozone B. 5 percent ozone C. 7 percent ozone D. 12 percent ozone
A. 2 percent ozone
279
A trench should be no more than _________ feet wider than the diameter of the pipe. A. 2-4 feet B. 3-4 feet C. 1-2 feet D. .5-1 foot
C. 1-2 feet
280
Which of the following elements cause hardness in water? A. Sodium and potassium B. calcium and magnesium C. Iron and manganese D. Turbidity and suspended solids
B. calcium and magnesium
281
Turbidity is caused by: A. Air bubbles B. gases C. Suspended particles D. Dissolved solids
C. suspended solids
282
A chlorine residual of 0.2 mg/L is the same as: A. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 lbs of water B. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 gallons of water C. 0.2 gallons of chlorine per 1,000,000 gallons of water D. 0.2 percent chlorine in the water
A. 0.2 lbs of chlorine per 1,000,000 lbs of water
283
The water table refers to: A. Pumping water level in a well B. upper surface of the ground water C. Aquifer depth D. Water level in the revision
B. upper surface of the ground water
284
The total coliform rule is based first on: A. Presence or absence of coliform in a sample B. density of coliform in a sample C. Type of coliform in a sample D. Presence of fecal coliform in a sample
A. Presence or absence of coliform in a sample
285
Which of the following is NOT true about chlorine gas? A. It is 2.5 times heavier than air B. it is corrosive C. It is extremely toxic D. It is flammable
D. It is flammable
286
Three waterborne diseases are: A. Mumps, measles, and flu B. tuberculosis, diphtheria, and chickenpox C. Typhoid fever, dysentery, and cholera D. Scarlet fever, pneumonia, and colds
C. Typhoid fever, dysentery, and cholera
287
When water temperature increases, the effectiveness of chlorine: A. Doesn't change B. affects other chemicals C. Is less effective D. Is more effective
D. Is more effective
288
pH is a measure of: A. Solids B. hydrogen ions C. Suspended solids D. Conductivity
B. hydrogen ions
289
What is the term for framework used to prevent caving of trench walls? A. Confined space B. shoring C. Sloping D. Trenching
B. shoring
290
One miligram per liter (mg/L) is equal to: A. One ml/L B. one ounce per 1000 gallons C. One cc per liter D. One part per million
D. One part per million
291
What is the chlorine residual in treated water, if the dosage is 2.1 mg/L and has a demand of 0.8 mg/L? A. 0.8 mg/L B. 1.3 mg/L C. 2.1 mg/L D. 2.9 mg/L
B. 1.3 mg/L
292
If you treat 1.2 MGD at a fluoride dosage of 0.8 mg/L, how many pounds of fluoride would this take? A. 4 lbs B. 6 lbs C. 8 lbs D. 10 lbs
C. 8 lbs
293
The primary maximum contaminat level (MCL) for fluoride in drinking water is: A. 2.0 mg/L B. 3.0 mg/L C. 4.0 mg/L D. 8.0 mg/L
C. 4.0 mg/L
294
Which of the following conditions would increase turbidity? A. Decrease in pH B. increase in alkalinity C. Increase in phosphate concentration D. Increase in organic matter
D. Increase in organic matter
295
Approximately how many gallons would 1000 feet of 6-inch pipe hold? A. 1236 gallons B. 1378 gallons C. 1443 gallons D. 1468 gallons
D. 1468 gallons
296
Chlorine in a dry form is called: A. Hypochlorite B. hypochlorous C. Hydrochlorite D. Hydroxide
A. Hypochlorite
297
Wear rings are installed in a pump to: A. Hold the shaft in position B. keep the impeller in place C. Keep wear concentrated on economically replaceable part D. Wear out the sleeve
C. Keep wear concentrated on economically replaceable part
298
An illness known as methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome) is attributed to: A. Excessive turbidity B. high chlorine content C. Too much iron and manganese in the water D. High nitrate content
D. High nitrate content
299
Disease producing organisms are called: A. Viruses B. coliform C. Parasites D. Pathogens
D. Pathogens
300
The rotating part of a centrifugal pump is called: A. Rotor B. impeller C. Propeller D. Incisor
B. impeller
301
When using a fire hydrant, the valve: A. Should never be opened completely B. should be opened only during specific hours C. Should be opened to the desired amount of flow D. Should be opened all the way
D. Should be opened all the way
302
If the chlorine demand of water is 2.5 mg/L and you want a residual of 0.5 mg/L, how much chlorine would need to be fed to one million gallons? A. 25 lbs B. 30 lbs C. 34 lbs D. 38 lbs
A. 25 lbs
303
How many gallons would be contained in a circular tank that is 100 feet in diameter and 10 feet deep? A. 587,000 gallons B. 657,000 gallons C. 1,340,000 gallons D. 2,349,000 gallons
A. 587,000 gallons
304
What is the maximum amount of chlorine gas that can be removed from a 150-pound cylinder in 24 hours? A. 45 lbs B. 75 lbs C. There is no maximum D. 50 lbs
A. 45 lbs
305
The sudden closure of a check valve will result in: A. Water hammer B. flow reversal C. Cavitation D. Water aeration
A. Water hammer
306
In detecting chlorine gas leaks from the disinfection assembly, an ammonia soaked rag waved above the assembly will produce: A. A toxic odor B. stoppage of the leak C. An explosive environment D. White vapor
D. White vapor
307
Which of the following increase chlorine demand? A. Increase in pH B. increase in acidity C. Increase in organic matter D. Decrease in volatile organic contaminants
C. Increase in organic matter
308
The primary reason for a dry barrel fire hydrant is to: A. Allow easy maintenance B. prevent water hammer C. Keep the hydrant from freezing D. Keep the barrel from rusting
C. Keep the hydrant from freezing
309
Lead and copper samples are taken at: A. Well house B. source C. Distribution system D. Customers tap
D. Customers tap
310
What type of pipe is commonly used in very large mains? A. PVC B. gray cast iron C. Asbestos D. Steel
D. Steel
311
Why are air relief valves installed? A. To stop backflow B. to release air in the well column C. To prevent water hammer D. To adjust flow in reservoirs
B. to release air in the well column
312
A backflow assembly must be tested: A. Annually B. when installed C. When repaired D. All of the above
D. All of the above
313
What does SCDA stand for? A. Supervisory control and data acquisition B. sample concentration and date analyzed C. Sample concentration and data accepted D. Supervisory control and date accepted
A. Supervisory control and data acquisition
314
Tastes and odors in surface water are most often caused by: A. Clays B. hardness C. Algae D. Coliform bacteria
C. Algae
315
A trench must be shored if it is how many feet deep? A. 5 feet B. 4 feet C. 6 feet D. 3 feet
A. 5 feet
316
An atmospheric vacuum breaker must be tested: A. Every year B. twice a year C. When installed D. Never
D. Never
317
Hydrogen sulfide gas: A. Is a taste and odor problem B. smells like rotten eggs C. Is lighter then air D. Both a and b are correct
D. Both a and b are correct
318
Well screens that are partially blocked with scale deposits can be easily cleaned by: A. Pouring a solution of muriatic acid into the well and surging B. adding a strong chlorine solution to the well C. Pumping water back into the well at the same rate that is being pumped out D. Dropping charges into the well so that the shock will loosen the scale
A. Pouring a solution of muriatic acid into the well and surging
319
Pump motors draw more power starting than during normal operating conditions because: A. Check valves have to be pushed open B. energy is required to get the water moving C. The motor and pump have to start turning D. All the above
D. All the above
320
Nitrate found in drinking water can be from: A. Leaching land fills B. leaching septic tanks C. Runoff from farms D. All the above
D. All the above
321
A permit required confined space ____________ must sign the permit? A. Operator B. manager C. Entry supervisor D. None of the above
C. Entry supervisor
322
Common water complaints received from customers are: A. Presence of total coliform B. taste and odor C. Problem with pH D. Presence of fluoride
B. taste and odor
323
Which of the following facilities is considered a high health hazard facility? A. Hospital B. mortuary C. Docks and piers D. All the above
D. All the above
324
What type of backflow assembly is adequate premise protection for a high hazard facility? A. Pressure vacuum breaker B. double check valve assembly C. Reduced pressure backflow assembly D. Atmospheric vacuum breaker
C. Reduced pressure backflow assembly
325
What Federal agency establishes drinking water standards? A. OSHA B. EPA C. DOE D. UTC
B. EPA
326
What is the median value for the following numbers? 500, 100, 250, 380, 440, 700, 675 A. 380 B. 500 C. 675 D. 440
D. 440
327
A well screen must be installed in: A. Deep wells B. consolidated materials C. Shallow wells D. Unconsolidated materials
D. Unconsolidated materials
328
Where is the best place to store a self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)? A. Inside a cabinet in the chlorine room B. in an unlocked cabinet outside the chlorinator room C. Locked in a cabinet in the office D. Locked in a cabinet just outside the chlorinator room
B. in an unlocked cabinet outside the chlorinator room
329
A centrifugal pump should not be run empty except momentarily because: A. A serious counter pressure could develop and damage the pump casing B. it is a waste of energy to run a pump without water C. The excessive end thrust of the shaft would damage the thrust bearing D. The parts lubricated by the water could be damaged
D. The parts lubricated by water could be damaged
330
Pipes of dissimilar metal should not be connected together because of problems due to: A. Scale formation B. corrosion C. Water hammer D. The Venturi effect
B. corrosion
331
Trihalomethanes are caused by mixing of chlorine and: A. Organic matter B. HAA5's C. Inorganic chemicals D. Organic chemicals
A. Organic matter
332
The hardness of water is expressed in terms of: A. Fluoride B. chloride C. Silicon oxide D. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium carbonate
333
Aggressive or soft water typically has a pH of: A. 7 B. more than 7 C. Less than 7 D. More than 9
C. Less than 7
334
A pH scale ranges from: A. 1-14 B. 1-10 C. 0-14 D. 7-14
C. 0-14
335
Piping which carries reclaimed water must be ________ in color? A. Green B. purple C. Red D. There is no specific requirement
B. purple
336
What is the area of a trench 20 feet long and two feet wide? A. 40 sq ft B. 120 sq ft C. 22 sq ft D. 160 sq ft
A. 40 sq ft
337
When sampling for lead and copper, first draw means that the water in the facility has not been used for: A. One day B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. Overnight
B. 6 hours
338
If a water column is 50 feet high, what is the pressure at the bottom of the column? A. 106.5 psi B. 96.5 psi C. 115.5 psi D. 21.65
D. 21.65 psi
339
After replacing a repaired pump back into a well, the operator should first: A. Put the seal on tight to avoid contamination B. add chlorine to disinfect the well and surrounding aquifer C. Start the pump to make sure that it will pump water D. Open the valve to let the pressure off the line
B. add chlorine to disinfect the well and surrounding aquifer
340
A water tower has a water pressure of 98 psi at its base. What would be the pressure at a hydrant three blocks away, if there were a 65-ft head loss in the pipe? A. 45 psi B. 65 psi C. 70 psi D. 98-psi
C. 70-psi
341
When collecting a distribution system sample for bacteriological testing, the sample person should allow the water to run for how long before collecting the sample? A. 30 seconds B. 30 minutes C. One hour D. As long as necessary to make sure the sample is representative of the distribution system
D. As long as necessary to make sure the sample is representative of the distribution system
342
An atmosphere is considered oxygen deficient when the oxygen level drops below: A. 21.5% B. 20% C. 19.5% D. 17%
C 19.5%
343
If a water supply exceeds the MCL, whose responsibility is it to notify the consumer? A. The testing lab B. the water supplier C. The ODW D. The USEPA
B. the water supplier
344
A sanitary seal is used to: A. Seal the clear well B. seal the top of the well casing C. Seal the water tower D. Seal a break in the distribution system
B. seal the top of the well casing
345
Pumps that work on the basis of inertia or mass moving in a circular motion are called: A. Air lift B. Centrifugal C. Diaphragm D. Piston
B. centrifugal
346
An employee is caught in a room where chlorine gas is leaking. He has no SCBA; he should: A. Lay down on the floor and quickly crawl out of the room B. walk out of the room quickly C. Pull his shirt over mouth and face and quickly walk out of the room D. Keep mouth closed, head as high as possible and quickly walk out of the room holding his breath
D. Keep mouth closed, head as high as possible and quickly walk out of the room holding his breath
347
Temporary cloudiness in a freshly drawn sample of tap water may be caused by: A. Air B. chlorine C. Hardness D. Silica
A. Air
348
Lead in drinking water can lead to: A. Stomach and intestinal disorders B. reduction of white blood count C. Methemoglobinemia D. Impaired mental functioning in children
D. Impaired mental functioning in children
349
Fluoride is generally added to public water supplies to: A. Aid in disinfection B. reduce iron buildup C. Protect the dental health of the young D. Help prevent contamination
C. Protect the dental health of the young
350
The conical depression created by the lowering of the static water level in a well after a period of pumping is called: A. Drawdown B. desaturation cone C. Aquifer D. Cone of the depression
D. Cone of depression
351
Cathodic protection refers to protection against: A. Contamination B. corrosion C. Hardness D. Infiltration
B. corrosion
352
Normal surface and ground water have a pH range of: A. 3.0-5.0 B. 4.5-6.5 C. 6.8-8.5 D. 9.0-10.5
C. 6.8-8.5
353
A cross connection is described as a connection between: A. A potable and a non-potable water supply B. a high pressure system and a low pressure system C. Two different pipe sizes D. A cross on a water main
A. A potable and non-potable water supply
354
A permit required confined space must be monitored for hazardous atmospheres: A. Before entry only B. before entry and then every five minutes C. Before entry and the every 15 minutes D. Continuously
D. Continuously
355
The purpose of a rotameter is to: A. Create a vacuum B. maintain a smooth fluid flow C. Meter the flow of fluid D. Reduce pressure
C. Meter the flow of fluid
356
Which of the following does not affect the friction loss in a given length of pipe? A. Hardness of water B. number of fittings C. Roughness of the interior of the pipe D. Velocity of the flow
A. Hardness of water
357
Calculate the average pH over the last seven days-6.45, 8.1, 7.4, 6.7, 7.8, 7.5, 7.3: A. 8.0 B. 7.3 C. 7.0 D. 6.5
B. 7.3
358
What percent is 20,000 of 96,543? A. 42.36% B. 36.00% C. 20.00% D. 20.72%
D. 20.72%
359
The required number of total Coliform samples is based on: A. Population B. number of service connections C. Number of sources D. Size of distribution
A. Population
360
What is the most common type of pump used by water systems? A. Turbine B. piston C. Centrifugal D. Velocity
A. Turbine
361
Which of the following backflow assemblies are testable? A. Pressure vacuum breaker B. atmospheric vacuum breaker C. Double check valve assembly D. Both a and c
D. Both a and c
362
Consumer Confidence Reports are to be completed: A. Annually by January 1 B. every third year C. Annually by July 1 D. Every other year
C. Annually by July 1
363
Which of the following samples must be collected in the distribution systems? A. Pb and Cu B. DBP C. TC D. all the above
D. All the above
364
One cubic foot water weighs __________ pounds: A. 7.48 B. 8.34 C. 62.4 D. 50.3
C. 62.4
365
Aquatic wild life has _________tolerance for chlorine: A. .2 mg/L B. .6 mg/L C. .4 mg/L D. 0 mg/L
D. 0 mg/L
366
CT stands for : A. Contact time B. concentration and time C. Both a and b D. None of the above
B. concentration and time
367
Sodium thiosulfate removes: A. Residual chlorine B. turbidity C. Iron D. Total Coliform
A. Residual chlorine
368
If a chlorine dose is 8 mg/L and the residual is .9 mg/L,what is the demand? A. 7.1 B. 8.9 C. 6.4 D. 7.4
A. 7.1
369
The primary MCL for fluoride is: A. 4 mg/L B. 2 mg/L C. 3 mg/L D. .4 mg/L
A. 4 mg/L
370
A water system has a residual of 1.5 mg/L. How many ppms is that? A. .015 B. 1.5 C. 15 D. 1.05
B. 1.5
371
``` If the pH is 6.5, the water is: A. Hard B. soft C. Acidic D. Both b and c ```
D. Both b and c
372
An OS and Y is a: A. Rising stem gate valve B. special valve for meters C. Type of meter D. Type of hydrant
A. Rising stem gate valve
373
Disinfection by-products are more apt to form in: A. The distribution system at the warmest time of the year B. the distribution system in the winter C. In a system that does not chlorinate D. At the consumers faucet
A. The distribution system at the warmest time of the year
374
A community water system serves: A. 25 of more different people per day during 60 or more days a year B. 15 or more year-round residential connections or 25 or more year-round residents C. 25 or more of the same people year-round D. Less than 15 residential service connections
B. 15 or more year-round residential connections or 25 or more year-round residents
375
Which of the following are Tier 1 violations? A. Violation of MCL for nitrate. B. when fecal or E. coli is present C. Water-borne disease outbreak D. All of the above
D. All of the above
376
Who is affected by the DBP rule? A. System serving over 10,000 people B. surface water systems C. All systems that chlorinate D. All water systems
C. All systems that chlorinate
377
Does Fluoride have a primary or secondary MCL? A. Primary B. secondary C. Neither D. Both
B. Both
378
As a water operator, your primary responsibility is to the: A. Financial success of the system B. the health of the people C. The condition of the infrastructure D. Satisfaction of the Board/Council
B. the health of the people
379
Which of the following well types is most protected from surface contamination? A. Artesian well B. infiltration gallery C. Rock well D. Shallow well
A. Artesian well
380
One major factor that leads to reservoir turnover is A. The lower strata being warmer than the upper strata B. the upper strata becoming more dense and sinking to the bottom C. The upper and lower strata reaching the same temperature D. Decaying organic matter causing a gaseous movement
B. the upper strata becoming more dense and sinking to the bottom
381
What is the pressure in pounds per square inch at the bottom of a standpipe filled to a height of 47 feet? A. 10.0 B. 15.0 C. 20.3 D. 108.5
C. 20.3
382
One gallon per minute equals _________ gallons per day. A. 24 B. 60 C. 550 D. 1440
D. 1440
383
Which of the following elements cause hardness in water? A. Sodium and potassium B. nitrogen and sulfur C. Fluoride and oxygen D. Calcium and magnesium
D. Calcium and magnesium
384
Chlorine demand increases when __________ increases. A. Alkalinity B. organic matter C. Phosphate concentration D. pH
B. organic matter
385
How many gallons of water are in a tank 84 inches in diameter by 20 feet high when the water is 16 feet deep? A. 615 B. 763 C. 4603 D. 5754
C. 4603
386
The electrical load placed on a single circuit A. Is not affected by the addition of one more motor B. is of no interest to the operator C. May be increased to any level and no damage will be done D. Should be limited by the maximum current rating of the wiring
D. Should be limited by the maximum current rating of the wiring
387
Chlorine is most commonly used in water treatment for A. Disinfection B. corrosion prevention C. pH increase D. Stabilization
A. Disinfection
388
Sedimentation is a process that ___________ suspended matter. A. Settles B. coagulates C. Flocculates D. Filters
A. Settles
389
Fusible plugs on chlorine cylinders are designed to melt at A. 80 degrees Fahrenheit B. 100 degrees Fahrenheit C. 135 degrees Fahrenheit D. 158 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 158 degrees Fahrenheit
390
In general, when the pH of treated water is below 6.5, it indicates which of the following? A. High alkalinity B. a free chlorine residual greater than 1.0 mg/L C. Water that tends to be corrosive D. Extremely high total solids content
C. Water that tends to be corrosive
391
When a permit is required to enter a confined space, who may sign the permit? A. The entrant B. the attendant C. The supervisor D. An OSHA representative
C. The supervisor
392
The main objection to "red water" is that it A. Causes pipes to corrode B. creates hardness C. Increases trihalomethanes (THMs) D. Stains plumbing and cloths
D. Stains plumbing and cloths
393
One cubic foot of water weighs A. 0.433 pounds B. 7.48 pounds C. 8.3 pounds D. 62.4 pounds
D. 62.4 pounds
394
Daily consumption of gaseous chlorine may be checked by A. Chlorine demand B. a pressure reducer C. Chlorine residual D. A platform scale
D. A platform scale
395
The permissible exposure limit (PEL) for chlorine is A. 0.05 parts per million B. 0.5 parts per million C. 1.0 parts per million D. 5.0 parts per million
B. 0.5 parts per million
396
A single sample taken without considering the time of day or the rate of flow is called a(n) ________ sample. A. Composite B. extraneous C. Grab D. Periodic
C. Grab
397
The total coliform rule is based on A. Presence or absence of coliforms B. density of coliforms C. Type of coliforms D. Presence of fecal coliforms in a sample
A. Presence or absence of coliforms
398
How many pounds of sodium hypochlorite containing 8% available chlorine by weight would be needed to provide 25 pounds of chlorine? A. 50.0 B. 78.1 C. 200.0 D. 312.5
D. 312.5
399
What effect will the addition of lime, caustic soda, or soda ash have on the pH of water? A. Stabilize B. lower C. Increase D. Have no effect
C. Increase
400
A main break may cause low pressure in the distribution system, which in turn may result in A. Contamination of the system by backsiphonage B. "ice" formation in the pipes C. Increase in chlorine residual D. Water hammer
A. Contamination of the system by backsiphonage
401
The primary origin of coliforms in water supplies is A. Natural algae growth B. industrial solvents C. Fecal contamination by warm-blooded animals D. Acid rain
C. Fecal contamination by warm-blooded animals
402
The primary health risk associated with volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) is A. Cancer B. acute respiratory diseases C. "blue baby" syndrome D. Reduced I.Q. in children
A. Cancer
403
Which of the following best describes the characteristics of chlorine when used for disinfection in drinking water? A. Colorless, flammable, heavier than air B. greenish-yellow, non-flammable, lighter than air C. Greenish-yellow, flammable, lighter than air D. Greenish-yellow, non-flammable, heavier than air
D. Greenish-yellow, non-flammable, heavier than air
404
A line has failed and 60 yards of 8-inch main must be replaced. How many 20-foot sections of pipe will be replaced? A. 3 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
C. 9
405
Why should you contact other area companies with underground utilities before starting an underground repair job? A. To determine if there have been recent excavations in that location B. to ask these companies to mark the location of their utilities in the area of the repair job C. To see if they also have excavating to do in the area D. To see if they will help route traffic while you are doing the repair job
B. to ask these companies to mark the location of their utilities in the area of the repair job
406
The discharge rate of a piston-type pump A. Is constant as the drive rpm changes B. is constant as a constant speed C. Varies inversely with the head D. Varies with the total dynamic head
B. is constant as a constant speed
407
Which of the following best describes "chlorine demand"? A. The difference between the amount of chlorine added and turbidity B. the difference between the amount of chlorine added and pH C. The difference between the total chlorine residual and the free chlorine residual D. The difference between the amount of chlorine added and the amount of residual chlorine remaining after a given contact time
D. The difference between the amount of chlorine added and the amount of residual chlorine remaining after a given contact time
408
If the initial sample is positive for total coliforms and a repeat sample is positive for fecal coliform or E. Coli, notice must be given by broadcast media (television and radio) within A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 72 hours D. 14 days
A. 24 hours
409
Which of the following chemicals will most likely keep iron in suspension? A. Chlorine B. fluoride C. Polyphosphate D. Lime
C. Polyphosphate
410
The term "primacy" means the A. Authority by the states to supersede USEPA drinking water regulations B. authority by the USEPA to supersede state drinking water regulations C. Requirements for states to maintain drinking water regulations more stringent than the USEPA regulations D. Primary authority for implementation and enforcement of drinking water regulations
D. Primary authority for implementation and enforcement of drinking water regulations
411
Check valves are used to prevent A. Excessive pump pressure B. priming C. Water from flowing in two directions D. Water hammer
C. Water from flowing in two directions
412
Lead in drinking water can result in A. Impaired mental functioning in children B. prostate cancer in men C. Stomach and intestinal disorders D. Reduced white blood cell count
A. Impaired mental functioning in children
413
The flow of electrical current is measured in A. Amperes B. ohms C. Volts D. Watts
A. Amperes
414
pH is a measure of A. Conductivity B. water's ability to neutralize acid C. Hydrogen ion activity D. Dissolved solids
C. Hydrogen ion activity
415
An operator hears a pinging sound coming from the pump. What is the probable caused? A. Descaling B. cavitation C. Corrosion D. Hardness
B. cavitation
416
Small gaseous chlorine leaks in and around a chlorinator can be detected by the use of commercial strength A. Ammonia B. hypochlorite C. Lime D. Soda ash
A. Ammonia
417
During a routine inspection on a centrifugal pump, the operator notices that bearings are excessively hot.This ismost likely caused by A. Over lubrication B. the speed being too slow C. A worn impeller D. A worn packing
A. Over lubrication
418
Killing of pathogenic organisms in water treatment is called A. Disinfection B. oxidation C. Pasteurization D. Sterilization
A. Disinfection
419
The only acceptable breathing device to wear while handling chlorine leaks is the A. Activated carbon canister type B. potassium tetroxide canister type C. Self-contained breathing apparatus D. Oxygen supply apparatus
C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
420
The leakage of seal water around the packing on a centrifugal pump is required because it acts as a(n) A. Adhesive B. coolant C. Corrosion inhibitor D. Scale inhibitor
B. coolant
421
The letters or units "gpm" appearing on a flow rate indicator in a pumping station mean A. Gallons per man B. gallons per man hour C. Gallons per mile of pipe D. Gallons per minute
D. Gallons per minute
422
Sodium hypochlorite is A. A commercially available chlorine solution B. a commercially available dry chlorine compound C. Chlorine that is available in 100 and 150-pound cylinders D. A reaction product of chlorine and caustic soda
A. A commercially available chlorine solution
423
If raw water turbidity changed from 10 to 300 turbidity units and the finished water turbidity had increased from 0.1 to 1.0 turbidity units, the unit process having the most impact to correct this situation is A. Coagulation B. sedimentation C. Filtration D. Disinfection
A. Coagulation
424
Sodium thiosulfated is used to A. Buffer chlorine solutions B. neutralize chlorine residuals C. Detect chlorine leaks D. Sterilize sample bottles
B. neutralize chlorine residuals
425
The presence of total coliforms in drinking water indicates A. The presence of pathogens B. the absence of an adequate chlorine residual C. The existence of an urgent public health problem D. The potential presence of pathogens
D. The potential presence of pathogens
426
A hypochlorinator is A. Used to measure residual chlorine B. used in the treatment of iron and turbidity C. Used to feed a liquid solution into water supply D. Used to measure an adequate amount of chlorine gas into the supply
C. Used to feed a liquid solution into a water supply
427
The problem caused by dissolved carbon dioxide in the water of the distribution system is A. Increased trihalomethanes (THMs) B. corrosion C. Excessive encrustation D. Taste and odors
B. corrosion
428
The water table is defined as the A. Pumping water level in a well B. upper surface of the groundwater C. Water level in a reservoir D. Bottom of the aquifer
B. upper surface of the groundwater
429
A primary health risk associated with microorganisms in drinking water is A. Cancer B. acute gastrointestinal diseases C. Birth defects D. Nervous system disorders
B. acute gastrointestinal diseases
430
The granular filtration process is designed to reduce A. Calcium and magnesium sulfates B. true color C. Total dissolved solids D. Turbidity
D. Turbidity
431
How long will it take to fill a 10,000 gallon tank at the rate of 50 gallons per minute? A. 0.14 days B. 1.40 days C. 2.80 days D. 3.33 days
A. 0.14 days
432
A major health risk associated with nitrates and nitrites is A. Cancer B. acute respiratory diseases C. "blue baby" syndrome D. Reduces I.Q. In children
C. "blue baby" syndrome
433
A primary source of volatile organic chemical (VOC) contamination of water supplies is A. Agriculture pesticides B. industrial solvents C. Acid rain D. Agriculture fertilizers
B. industrial solvents
434
The presence of the coliform group of bacteria in water indicates A. Contamination B. inadequate disinfection C. Improper sampling D. Taste and odor problems
A. Contamination
435
It is essential to ventilate a valve vault before entry in order to A. Remove excessive moisture B. equalize temperature and pressure C. Eliminate foul odors D. Remove dangerous gases
D. Remove dangerous gases
436
After 5 years use, a portion of cast iron pipe shows a white scale about 1/2 inch thick lining the inside. This means A. Red water will soon be a problem B. the water has been corrosive C. The water is chemically unstable and is depositing D. Water should flow easier since the lining is smooth
C. The water is chemically unstable and is depositing
437
When calcium hypochlorite is used for disinfecting a water supply, it should be A. Dissolved in water, allowed to settle, and the supernatant siphoned off and fed into the water system B. dissolved in water as dry chemical then injected into the water system C. Fed as dry chemical directly into the pipeline D. Fed as a dry powder into the clearwell
A. Dissolved in water, allowed to settle, and the supernatant siphoned off and fed into the water system
438
The term "surface runoff" refers to A. Rainwater that soaks into the ground B. rain that returns to the atmosphere from the earth's surface C. Surface water that overflows the banks of rivers D. Water that flows into rivers after a rainfall
D. Water that flows into rivers after a rainfall
439
Aeration in water treatment plants is used to A. Lower the pH B. reduce concentrations of dissolved gases C. Reduce turbidity D. Stabilize chlorine residuals
B. reduce concentrations of dissolved gases
440
What is the detention time in a storage tank 20 feet high and 30 feet in diameter when the rate of flow is 500,000 gallons per day? A. 2 hours 10 minutes B. 5 hours 4 minutes C. 35 hours 23 minutes D. 76 hours 3 minutes
B. 5 hours 4 minutes
441
What can the operator do if iron fouling appears to be a problem in an ion exchange softener? A. Decrease the strength of the brine used in the regeneration stage B. increase backwash flow rates C. Increase duration of backwash stage D. Increase duration of service stage
B. increase backwash flow rates
442
The peak capacity of water mains is often reduced by A. High pressure B. looping C. Tuberculation D. Vacuum breakers
C. Tuberculation
443
What is the head on a system exerting a static pressure of 62 pounds per square inch? A. 27 feet B. 89 feet C. 143 feet D. 175 feet
C. 143 feet
444
To protect stored water from contamination, a ground storage reservoir should A. Be totally airtight B. have both the overflow pipe and vent screened C. Have Cathodic protection D. Have it's interior surface coated with an AWWA-approved paint system
B. have both the overflow pipe and the vent screened
445
An operator uses _______to test for residual chlorine. A. DPD B. CRESOL RED C. methyl orange D. Sulfuric acid
A. DPD
446
The purpose of monitoring requirements for unregulated contaminants is to A. Provide the USEPA with more information to establish maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) for these contaminants B. assist the USEPA in determining the extent of source water contamination with these contaminants C. Assist the USEPA in evaluating the need for future regulations D. All of the above
D. All the above
447
The term "maximum contaminant level goal (MCLG)" means the A. Maximum allowable level of a given contaminant in drinking water B. level of contaminant in drinking water below which there are no known or suspected adverse health effects with a margin of safety C. Level of a contaminant in drinking water that will trigger a Tier 1 violation D. Minimum detectable level of a given contaminant
B. level of a contaminant in drinking water below which there are no known or suspected adverse health effects with a margin of safety
448
Which of the following elements does ion exchange softening increase in the finished water? A. Calcium B. magnesium C. Manganese D. Sodium
D. Sodium
449
When compared to a 1-million gallon reservoir at the same water elevation, how much pressure in the mains will a 100,000-gallon reservoir develop? A. Exactly one-tenth as much pressure B. less C. More D. The same
D. The same
450
A granular, white, dry powder used for disinfection is A. Calcium hypochlorite B. chlorinated lime C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Sodium chloride
A. Calcium hypochlorite
451
A pump in continuous service should be inspected for cleanliness and leakage at least A. Daily B. weekly C. Monthly D. Yearly
A. Daily
452
The main purpose of pump priming is to A. Be sure the pump operates freely B. compress the air in the cylinder C. Replace air with water inside the pump D. Wet the packing
C. Replace air with water inside the pump
453
Water hammer is most likely to be caused by A. Dissolved gases in the water B. closing a valve too fast C. Tuberculation D. A ruptured wate line
B. closing a valve too fast
454
The aeration process tends to decrease all of the following except A. Carbon dioxide B. dissolved oxygen C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Volatile organic chemicals
B. dissolved oxygen
455
Which of the following forms of iron is most soluble in water? A. Ferric B. Ferric hydroxide C. Ferrous D. Ferrous oxide
C. Ferrous
456
At what pH would chlorinated water have the highest concentration of hypochlorous acid? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
A. 5
457
Hydrogen sulfide gas causes A. Corrosion of structures and equipment B. high pH values C. Destruction of algae D. Destruction of bacteria
A. Corrosion of structures and equipment
458
Positive displacement pumps should be operated when A. Suction and discharge line valves are closed B. suction and discharge line valves are open C. Suction line valves are closed and discharge line valves are open D. Suction line valves are open and discharge line valves are closed
B. suction and discharge line valves are open
459
Turbidity in water can be caused by A. Adequate filtration B. dissolved gases C. Inadequate baffling D. Unsettled particulate matter
D. Unsettled particulate matter
460
The meniscus on calibrated glassware is read at the A. Bottom curvature for mercury but the top for water B. extreme point of contact between the liquid and glass, i.e., where gas, liquid, and air all meet at one point C. Mid-height of the curvature so that beginning and ending readings will result in zero error D. Top of curvature for mercury but at the bottom for most other liquids including water
D. Top of curvature for mercury but at the bottom for most other liquids including water
461
An atmosphere is considered oxygen deficient when the oxygen level is below A. 21.5% B. 20% C. 19.5% D. 17%
C. 19.5%
462
Fluoride is generally added to public water supplies to A. Aid in disinfection B. reduce pipe corrosion C. Help prevent contamination D. Protect the dental health of young citizens
D. Protect the dental health of young citizens
463
As long as the temperature is steady, the pressure indicator on a chlorine cylinder will______ until all the chlorine has been gasified. A. Remain steady B. decrease slowly C. Decrease rapidly D. Increase slightly
A. Remain steady
464
The component of a centrifugal pump sometimes installed on the end of the suction pipe in order to hold priming is the A. Casing B. foot valve C. Impeller D. Lantern ring
B. foot valve
465
A method used to soften water is A. Aeration B. sedimentation C. Ion exchange D. Adsorption
C. Ion exchange
466
A temperature of 59 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to what value on the centigrade scale? A. -4 degrees C B. 15 degrees C C. 48 degrees C D. 50 degrees C
B. 15 degrees C
467
Because chlorine residual is related to the pH of the water, it may be said that A. A higher pH requires a higher chlorine residual B. a higher pH requires a lower chlorine residual C. A lower pH requires a higher chlorine residual D. A lower pH has no effect on chlorine residual
A. A higher pH requires a higher chlorine residual
468
At a pumping station equipped with centrifugal pumps, what can cause the discharge pressure to suddenly increase and the discharge quantity to suddenly decrease? A. A discharge valve was closed B. a suction valve was closed C. The pump amperage was decreased D. The voltage was suddenly increased
A. A discharge valve was closed
469
Breakpoint chlorination is achieved when A. Free ammonia can be tasted in the water B. no chlorine residual is detected C. The strong chlorine taste at the plant did not persist in the distribution system D. When chlorine dosage is increased, a corresponding increase in residual is detected
D. When chlorine dosage is increased, a corresponding increase in residual is detected
470
During a confined space entry, how often must the confined space be monitored for hazardous atmosphere? A. Continuously B. every 5 minutes C. Before entry only D. Before entry and then once per hour during entry
A. Continuously
471
The least amount of head loss in a pipeline would be caused by a fully open A. Angle valve B. check valve C. Gate valve D. Globe valve
C. Gate valve
472
Using the approximate weights of calcium=40, oxygen=16, hydrogen=1, calculate the molecular weight of calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂). A. 57 B. 58 C. 74 D. 114
C. 74
473
The maximum contaminate level goal (MCLG) of known or probable carcinogens is A. Set by the state B. the same as the maximum contaminate level (MCL) C. Zero D. The minimum detectable level of a given contaminate
C. Zero
474
Calculate the dosage if your chlorinator is set to feed chlorine at the rate of 200 pounds per 24 hours into 10 million gallons per day flow? A. 1.0 mg/L B. 2.4 mg/L C. 3.4 mg/L D. 10.2 mg/L
B. 2.4 mg/L
475
Two fundamental treatment requirements for public water systems using surface water sources are A. Coagulation and sedimentation B. lime softening and disinfection C. Filtration and aeration D. Disinfection and filtration
D. Disinfection and filtration
476
A zeolite softening unit will replace calcium and magnesium ions with _________ ions. A. Fluoride B. iron C. Sodium D. Sulfur
C. Sodium
477
Permit-required confined space entry requires A. Bright orange jackets, rubber boots, and gloves B. safety harness and a lifeline C. Tool belts with flashlight attached D. Utility belts with a full complement of tools
B. safety harness and a lifeline
478
The amount of water in a water-bearing formation depends on the A. Depth of the well B. size of pump C. Thickness and permeability of the formation D. Type of well casing
C. Thickness and permeability of the formation
479
The type of corrosion caused but the use of dissimilar metals in a water system is A. Caustic corrosion B. galvanic corrosion C. Oxygen corrosion D. Tubercular corrosion
B. galvanic corrosion
480
Chlorine reacts with nitrogenous compounds to form A. Ammonia nitrate B. free chlorine C. Chlorinated hydrocarbons D. Chloramines
D. Chloramines
481
An operator needs 400 gallons of a 5% solution. How many gallons of a 3% solution and an 8% solution does the operator need to mix? A. 110 gallons of 3% and 290 gallons of 8% B. 160 gallons of 3% and 240 gallons of 8% C. 150 gallons of 3% and 250 gallons of 8% D. 160 gallons of 8% and 240 gallons of 3%
D. 160 gallons of 8% and 240 gallons of 3%
482
In electrical circuits, a device used to reduce the voltage is a(n) A. Ammeter B. transducer C. Transformer D. Voltmeter
C. Transformer
483
The difference between Tier 1 and Tier 2 violations is A. Tier 1 violations potentially impose direct adverse health effects; Tier 2 violations do not pose direct threat to public health B. Tier 1 violations require public notifications; Tier 2 violations do not require public notification C. Tier 1 violations are acute; Tier 2 violations are not acute D. Tier 1 violations have legal consequences; Tier 2 violations do not
A. Tier 1 violations potentially impose direct and adverse health effects; Tier 2 violations do not pose a direct threat to public health
484
If disinfection is incomplete because the chlorine residual is in the hypochlorite ion form, what should you change to improve disinfection? A. Calcium B. Hardness C. pH D. Total alkalinity
C. pH
485
Your plant treats 36,520,000 gallons during the month of July. The total water measured into the various storage tanks is 28,710,000 gallons. What percentage of treated water is unaccounted for? A. 12.7 B. 21.4 C. 27.2 D. 78.7
B. 21.4
486
For public water systems using surface water and groundwater under the influence of surface water, turbidity must be measured at least A. Every 4 hours B. daily C. Weekly D. Monthly
A. Every 4 hours
487
The main characteristicss of raw water that enables algae to grow is A. Presence of copper sulfate B. low pH C. High hardness D. Presence of nutrients
D. Presence of nutrients
488
The word "normal" associated with a reagent refers to the A. Gram equivalent weight of the reagent chemical per liter of solution B. molecular weight of the reagent C. Grams of solute per liter of solvent D. Gram equivalent weight of reagent chemical per liter of solute
A. Gram equivalent weight of the reagent chemical per liter of solution
489
A well screen must be installed in A. All deep wells B. consolidated materials C. Only shallow wells D. Unconsolidated materials
D. Unconsolidated materials
490
Contaminant monitoring requirements can depend on A. The results of a vulnerability study B. the size of the water system C. Previous maximum contaminant level (MCL) violations D. All of the above
D. All the above
491
What can happen to a pump if the backpressure on the pump is allowed to drop too low and the pump is operated for a prolonged period of time? A. Efficiency would drop off and the pump would heat up B. no water would flow C. Pump lubricants would disperse more efficiently D. Water hammer would occur upstream in the distribution line
A. Efficiency would drop off and the pump would heat up
492
The Safe Drinking Water Act requires _________to develop a comprehensive coliform monitoring plan. A. Large public water systems (serving >50,000 people) B. Large and medium public water systems (serving >3,300 people) C. Small and medium public water systems (serving >25 and
D. All public water systems
493
What happens when lime is fed to water for corrosion control? A. Alkalinity is decreased B. CO₂ does not change C. Turbidity is decreased D. pH is increased
D. pH is increased
494
The chlorine gas feed rate is usually controlled by adjusting the A. Water flow to the injector B. valve on the chlorine cylinder C. Pressure in the chlorine cylinder D. Rotameter control valve
D. Rotameter control valve
495
Hardness in water is caused by A. Dissolved minerals B. High pH C. Low turbidity D. Alkalinity
A. Dissolved minerals
496
Final determination of vulnerability is made by A. Private contractor/consultants B. the primacy agency C. The water supplier D. All the above
B. the primacy agency
497
A motor drawing 4 amp at 440 DC volts uses A. 110 watts B. 440 watts C. 880 watts D. 1,760 watts
D. 1,760 watts
498
One use of polyphosphates is to A. Control algae B. improve taste C. Sequester iron and manganese D. Kill bacteria
C. Sequester iron and manganese
499
Which of the following can cause taste and odors in a water supply? A. Dissolved zinc B. algae C. High pH D. Low pH
B. algae
500
A disease that can be transferred by water is A. Gonorrhea B. malaria C. Mumps D. Typhoid
D. Typhoid
501
A water plant produces 240,000 gallons per day. The raw water has a fluoride content of 0.5 mg/L. The operator wants to feed sodium fluoride (95%) pure so that the finished water will have a fluoride content of 1.1 mg/L. Sodium fluoride (NaF) has a fluoride content of 45%. How many pounds of NaF should be fed? A. 1.5 B. 2.8 C. 5.6 D. 6.8
B. 2.8
502
If the chlorine demand of a water is 4 mg/L and a 0.1 mg/L chlorine residual is desired. How many pounds of chlorine are required for a flow of 1.2 MG (million gallons) in 24 hours? A. 20 B. 39 C. 41 D. 62
C. 41
503
Approximately how many gallons of water would 600 feet of 6-inch pipe hold? A. 740 B. 880 C. 900 D. 930
B. 880
504
The most important factor to consider in locating a well site from the health point of view is A. Anticipated yield B. availability of electric power C. Distance from other wells D. Vulnerability
D. Vulnerability
505
A water tank has an overflow 115 feet above a nearby fire hydrant. Disregarding fiction losses, the pressure at the hydrant when the tank is overflowing is ________psi. A. 25 B. 50 C. 133 D. 356
B. 50
506
If two pumps pump 120 gallons per minute each, how long will it take to fill a basin 50 feet long, 20 feet wide, and 8 feet deep? A. 1 hour and 49 minutes B. 2 hour and 27 minutes C. 4 hour and 10 minutes D. 4 hour and 42 minutes
C. 4 hour and 10 minutes
507
If water is flowing in a 12-inch diameter water main and is discharged into an 8-inch diameter water main, the velocity will A. Increase about 4 times B. decrease about twice C. Remain the same D. Increase about twice
D. Increase about twice
508
The primary purpose of pressure reducing valves between water system pressure zones is to A. Minimize surge B. reduce downstream pressure C. Control flows D. Reduce upstream pressure
B. reduce downstream pressure
509
A well is acidified in order to A. Disinfect the water B. increase yield C. Remove objectionable gases D. Remove disinfection by-products
B. increase yield
510
The safest way to test a 110-VAC outlet using a pocket VOM is to set the range for A. 100 amps B. 100 VAC C. 250 amps D. 250 VAC
D. 250 VAC
511
An accepted means of corrosion control for relatively small systems is A. Activated carbon B. lime-soda ash softening C. pH control D. Zeolite softening
C. pH control
512
The drawdown in a well is measured from A. The motor base to the tip of the pump strainer B. the static water level to the tip of the pump strainer C. The static water level to the pumping level D. None of the above
C. The static water level to the pumping water level
513
If volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) are detected, sampling must then be conducted A. Monthly B. quarterly C. Biannually D. Annually
B. quarterly
514
What is the difference between a maximum contaminant level (MCL) and a secondary maximum contaminant level (SMCL)? A. MCLs relate to health effects, while SMCLs relate to aesthetic concerns B. MCL violations automatically trigger acute violations, while violations of SMCLs do not C. MCL violation levels may not superseded by the state, while SMCL violation levels may D. MCLs relate to known effects of contaminants, while SMCLs relate to suspected effects of contaminants
A. MCLs relate to health effects, while SMCLs relate to aesthetic concerns
515
4-log removal means ______ percent removal/inactivation. A. 99.9 B. 99.99 C. 99.999 D. 100.0
B. 99.99
516
To raise the pH of potable water in a plant, an effective chemical used is A. Alum B. calcium chloride C. Polyphosphates D. Lime or caustic soda
D. Lime or caustic soda
517
Chemicals that cause alkalinity in water are A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide B. calcium sulfate and sodium sulfate C. Magnesium chloride and iron chloride D. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
518
The chlorine demand of a certain water is 3 mg/L. If the operator treats 250,000 gallons of water with 10 pounds of chlorine gas, the chlorine residual should be ________ mg/L. A. 1.0 B. 1.8 C. 3.0 D. 4.8
B. 1.8
519
Clarification of water by sedimentation and filtration removes A. Dissolved solids B. suspended solids C. Volatile solids D. All of the above
B. suspended solids
520
A violation of the maximum contaminant level (MCL) for total trihalomethanes occur when A. A single sample exceeds the MCL B. An original sample and an additional check sample both exceed the MCL C. More than 50% of the samples in a given monitoring period exceed the MCL D. The running average of quarterly samples during the previous 12 months exceeds the MCL
D. The running average of quarterly samples during the previous 12 months exceeds the MCL
521
Which valve is most suitable for a throttling application? A. Butterfly B. check C. Gate D. Tapping
A. Butterfly
522
Which is the correct order for regeneration of a zeolite softening unit after it has been removed from service? A. Add brine, backwash, rinse, and return to service B. backwash, add brine, rinse, and return to service C. Add brine, rinse, backwash, and return to service D. Rinse, backwash, add brine, and return to service
B. backwash, add brine, rinse, and return to service
523
Two pumps of the same flow capacity and pressure rating that are piped in series would result in A. Heating of the pumps B. double the flow rate, same head C. Double the flow and head D. Double the head
D. Double the head
524
Determine the volume of a cylindrical tank with a conical bottom when the tank is 12 feet in diameter, the cylinder height is 20 feet, and the cone depth is 6 feet. A. 18,650 gallons B. 20,740 gallons C. 22,040 gallons D. 24,500 gallons
A. 18,650 gallons
525
The two components of a mechanical seal for a pump must A. Be flexible B. be reusable C. Match properly D. Rotate at high speeds
C. Match properly
526
After all chlorine demands have been met, what is the remaining chlorine called? A. Breakpoint B. differential C. Potential D. Residual
D. Residual
527
Which treatment technology can be used to achieve compliance with a volatile organic chemical (VOC) maximum contaminant level (MCL)? A. Point-of-entry (POE) devices B. dechlorination C. Slow sand filtration D. Point-of-use (POU) devices
A. Point-of-entry (POE) devices
528
When chlorine gas leaks from the disinfection assembly, the use of water may caus A. An explosion B. Hydrochloric acid to form C. Toxic gases D. A dense white smoke
B. Hydrochloric acid to form
529
What's a disadvantage of using static mixers? A. They don't provide good mixing B. they aren't economical C. They increase head loss D. They require too much maintenance
C. They increase head loss
530
Sedimentation basins with mechanical sludge removal equipment should be drained and inspected A. Twice a year B. once a year C. Every other year D. Every 3 years
B. once a year
531
When using the shallow-depth sedimentation method, at which angle should the parallel inclined plates be installed? A. 35 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 60 degrees
B. 45 degrees
532
How many gallons are in 28.65 acre-ft? A. 9,354,282 gal. B. 9,322,137 gal. C. 9,335,000 gal D. 9,763,599 gal
C. 9,335,000 gal
533
A well has a depth of 276.5 ft. If the water is 153.8 ft, what's the pressure in psi 5 ft above the bottom? (disregard additional atmospheric pressure in the well.) A. 42 psi B. 46 psi C. 48 psi D. 51 psi
D. 51 psi
534
The concentration of chlorine that is immediately dangerous to health and life (IDHL) is _______ parts per million. A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 10 D. 30
C. 10
535
The common rate of operation of a rapid sand filter is considered to be _______ gallons per square foot per minute A. 0.1 to 2 B. 2 to 6 C. 10 to 20 D. 20 to 40
B. 2 to 6
536
An operator inspects valves to determine that they are holding properly by A. Hydraulic loss B. electrostatic test C. A pressure test D. A torque wrench
C. A pressure test
537
Trihalomethane (THM) precursors are ________ compounds. A. Chloramine B. methane C. Natural organic D. Synthetic organic
C. Natural organic
538
How many gallons does 1,000 feet of 15 inch diameter pipe contain? A. 64 B. 1,227 C. 2,295 D. 9,175
D. 9,175
539
Chemicals that may be used for corrosion control in water treatment are A. Lime, alum, permanganate, and soda ash B. phosphate compounds, sodium bicarbonate, calcium hydroxide, and sodium carbonate C. Phosphate compounds, caustic soda, alum, and carbon D. Soda ash, activated carbon, and fluoride
B. phosphate compounds, sodium bicarbonate, calcium hydroxide, and sodium carbonate
540
A 2-foot wide rectangular channel is flowing 18 inches deep with an average velocity of 5-feet per second. The rate of flow is approximately ______ cubic feet per second. A. 5 B. 15 C. 50 D. 150
B. 15
541
A dosage of 17.1 mg/L coagulant applied to water in a plant of 1,000 gallons per minute capacity and operating over a 10-hour period will require a total of ______ pounds of coagulant. A. 75.3 B. 85.5 C. 95.6 D. 105.0
B. 85.5
542
Three most commonly used coagulants in water treatment are A. Aluminum hydroxide, lime, and sodium hydroxide B. aluminum sulfate, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate C. Lime, sodium hydroxide, and chlorine D. Soda, lime, and chlorine
B. aluminum sulfate, ferric chloride, and ferrous sulfate
543
An employer must have a process safety plan if the plant has the capability of storing at least ______ pounds of chlorine A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,500
C. 1,500
544
A high heterotrophic plate count (HPC) in water samples A. Indicates an imminent public health threat B. can mask detection of coliforms C. Indicates the absence of coliform bacteria D. Automatically triggers an acute violation
B. can mask detection of coliforms
545
How many pounds of polymer are required to make up 750 gallons of 0.25 percent polymer solution? A. 14.1 B. 15.6 C. 187.5 D. 1,563
B. 15.6
546
Potassium permanganate is applied in water treatment for A. Aiding coagulation B. a regenerant and oxidant C. pH adjustment D. Taste control
B. a regenerant and oxidant
547
In order for a chemical to function satisfactorily as a coagulant, it must A. Destroy bacteria B. react with alkalinity in water causing floc formations C. React with lime D. Remove tastes and odors
B. react with the alkalinity in water causing floc formations
548
CT is defined as A. The contact time of disinfectant with water B. the product of residual disinfectant concentration and contact time of disinfectant with water C. The ratio of the total disinfectant concentration and the residual disinfectant concentration D. None of the above
B. the product of residual disinfectant concentration and contact time of disinfectant with water
549
A function of the filter under drains is best described as A. Aeration of the media to encourage bacteria growth B. Collection of treated water and distribution of backwash C. Draining off the excess oxidant D. Providing access to the media
B. Collection of treated water and distribution of backwash
550
The C factor, or carrying capacity of pipelines, is often reduced by A. Cement-mortar lining B. Looping C. Tuberculation D. Hydrants
C. Tuberculation
551
Which of the following is an example of an acute violation? A. A positive sample for total coliforms when E. Coli are present B. Violation of any maximum contaminant level (MCL) C. Failure to comply with a required treatment technique D. Failure to comply with a variance schedule
A. A positive sample for total coliforms when E. Coli are present
552
An odorous gas produced by anaerobic decomposition is A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen sulfide C. Nitrous oxide D. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide
553
The USEPA's stance on point-of-use (POU) devices and bottled water is A. POU devices and bottled water cannot be used to meet maximum contaminat levels (MCLs) B. POU devices and bottled water may be required as a condition of a variance or exemption C. POU devices and bottled water are not best available technology (BAT) D. All of the above
D. All of the above
554
One of the most common causes of mudballs in the filter media is A. Insufficient backwash rate B. Excessive filtration rate C. Excessive backwash rate D. Broken underdrain system
A. Insufficient backwash rate
555
Which of the following is the most effective compound for controlling algae growth? A. Aluminum sulfate B. Copper sulfate C. Ferrous sulfate D. Magnesium sulfate
B. Copper sulfate
556
The source of contamination by two suspected carcinogens, acrylamide and epichlorohydrin, is A. Polymer coagulants B. automobile exhaust C. Agriculture pesticides D. Industrial solvents
A. Polymer coagulants
557
Activated carbon is widely used for taste and odor control because it A. Can also act as a coagulant aid B. Does not add any tastes to the water C. Has adsorptive properties D. Is cheap
C. Has adsorptive properties
558
Greensand is often used as a filter medium for water with high A. Turbidity B. Manganese concentrations C. Nitrate concentrations D. Bacterial counts
B. Manganese concentrations
559
A circular clarifier treats a flow of 1.2 million gallons per day. The diameter is 55 feet; the depth is 8 feet. What is the surface loading? A. 278 gallons per day per square foot B. 379 gallons per day per square foot C. 397 gallons per day per square foot D. 505 gallons per day per square foot
D. 505 gallons per day per square foot
560
The amount of water a well will produce for each foot of drawdown is called A. Specific capacity B. specific yield C. Static yield D. Yield per foot
A. Specific capacity
561
If total coliforms are detected in any sample, the water system must ______ within 24 hours A. Notify the public B. take repeat samples C. Increase the level of disinfectant D. All of the above
B. take repeat samples
562
You have a new gasoline-powered diaphragm-type portable pump and are using heavy-duty, spiral-wire reinforced suction hose. What is the practical maximum height at which to set the pump above water level? A. 2-6 feet B. 20-30 feet C. 40 feet D. 75 feet
B. 20-30 feet
563
A temperature of 35 degrees centigrade is equal to _______ Fahrenheit. A. 37.2 degrees B. 56.6 degrees C. 67 degrees D. 95 degrees
D. 95 degrees
564
A public water system (PWS) is required to monitor for vinyl chloride if A. PVC pipe has been used in the distribution system B. the level of any volatile organic chemical (VOC) detected is greater than 50% of the maximum contaminant level (MCL) C. The water system does not use packed tower aeration in the treatment process D. The system source is groundwater
D. The system source is groundwater
565
A rate of flow controller is used to A. Check when the filter is air bound B. maintain a predetermined flow through the filter C. Measure the amount of water used to wash the filter D. Calculate particulate removal
B. maintain a predetermined flow through the filter
566
The maximum contaminant level (MCL) for total trihalomethanes (TTHMs) is A. 0.015 mg/L B. 0.08 mg/L C. 0.15 mg/L D. 0.20 mg/L
B. 0.08 mg/L
567
The best available technology to remove pesticides from drinking water is A. Packed tower aeration B. membrane filtration C. Granular activated carbon D. Reverse osmosis
C. Granular activated carbon
568
Community water systems that add a disinfectant to water and serve a population of _____ or more are required to monitor for total trihalomethanes. A. 1,000 B. 3,300 C. 10,000 D. 25,000
C. 10,000
569
In the coagulation process, a reduced rapid mix speed will result in A. Proper mixing of the coagulant B. density current in the basin C. Small weak floc D. Increased efficiency in floc formation
B. density current in the basin
570
In a filter using gravel, anthracite and sand, the anthracite should be A. The top layer of media B. beneath the gravel C. Between the sand and the gravel D. Mixed with the sand
A. The top layer of media
571
The best available technology (BAT) for removal of all regulated volatile organic chemicals (VOCs) from drinking water is A. Membrane filtration B. reverse osmosis C. Packed tower aeration D. Granular activated carbon
C. Packed tower aeration
572
Treatment techniques rather than maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) are established for Giardiasis, Viruses, and Legionella because A. No commonly available test exists for these microorganisms B. the MCL for these microorganisms is too low to measure with current technology C. The levels of these microorganisms that are considered safe is unknown D. All the above
A. No commonly available test exists for these microorganisms
573
When the impeller in a centrifugal pump becomes worn after use, the amount of energy used will be _____ the amount used by a similar, new pump. A. Erratic, sometimes more than and sometimes less than B. less than C. More than D. The same as
C. More than
574
The depth of sludge applied to the sludge drying bed each time should be _____ inches. A. 2-6 B. 8-12 C. 14-18 D. 24-36
B. 8-12
575
Microstraining is a treatment process designed to remove A. Algae and aquatic organisms B. dissolved substances C. Bacteria and fine suspended matter D. Inorganic organic chemicals
A. Algae and aquatic organisms
576
One of the constituents that causes alkalinity in water is A. Hydrogen ion B. bicarbonate ion C. Phosphate ion D. Sulfate ion
B. bicarbonate ion
577
The surface overflow rate per day for a settling tank is the A. Sum of the volume rate of flow and the surface area of the tank B. product of the tank surface area and the volume rate of flow C. Volume rate of flow divided by the surface area of the tank D. Volume rate of flow divided by the volume of the tank
C. Volume rate of flow divided by the surface area of the tank
578
If alum cost $30 per ton, how much will it cost per year to treat a flow of 1.5 million gallons per day if the average dose 18 mg/L? A. $803 B. $1110 C. $1233 D. 1506
C. $1233
579
The amount of chlorine used by organic matter in water is a portion of the A. Chlorine demand B. chlorine residual C. Free available chlorine D. Total available chlorine
A. Chlorine demand
580
The effluent weir of a clarifier is located along the rim of a 60-foot diameter tank. What is the approximate length of the weir? A. 94 feet B. 188 feet C. 201 feet D. 376 feet
B. 188 feet
581
A rectangular flume is 10 inches by 10 inches. The water is 8 inches deep and moving with a velocity of 2 feet per second. How many gallons of water will the flume deliver in 4 hours? A. 62,330 B. 87,160 C. 119,688 D. 247,310
C. 119,688
582
If water in the system is murky with a large amount of suspended matter, the water is said to have a high amount of A. Cloudiness B. hardness C. Turbidity D. Dissolved solids
C. Turbidity
583
A chemical feed pump lowers a 30-inch diameter chemical container 17-inches in 3 hours. What is the chemical feed rate? A. 14 gallons per day B. 25 gallons per day C. 374 gallons per day D. 416 gallons per day
D. 416 gallons per day
584
One characteristic of hard water is A. Low pH B. High specific gravity C. Pungent taste D. Soap consuming capacity
D. Soap consuming capacity
585
A purpose of the jar test is to determine the A. Amount of time for water to be retained in the flash mix basin B. correct amount of alum to add for proper coagulation C. Correct amount of chlorine to add for breakpoint chlorination D. pH adjustment needed for proper coagulation
B. correct amount of alum to add for proper coagulation
586
Moderately hard water will have a hardness of ______ mg/L as calcium carbonate. A. 0 to 60 B. 61 to 120 C. 121 to 180 D. Over 180
B. 61 to 120
587
Which of the following minerals occurring in water is most easily oxidized? A. Calcium B. Iron C. Manganese D. Magnesium
B. Iron
588
What do you call the portion of total residual chlorine that remains in treated water at the end of a specific contact period and that will react chemically and biologically as hypochlorous acid or hypochlorite ion? A. Chloramines B. chlorine dioxide C. Combined available chlorine residual D. Free available chlorine residual
D. Free available chlorine residual
589
Electromechanical instrumentation power positioner's should be cleaned with A. Carbon tetrachloride B. electric safety solvent C. Gasoline D. Soap and water
B. electric safety solvent
590
A sand filter is 20 feet by 18 feet. The backwash rate is 6,100 gallons per minute. What is the backwash rise rate in inches per minute? A. 18 B. 23 C. 27 D. 33
C. 27
591
A 40-hp motor runs an average of 16 hours per day. What is the monthly power cost if electricity costs are 0.02/kilowatt hour. The motor is 80% efficient. Assume 1 month=30 days. A. $358.00 B. $414.00 C. $537.00 D. $637.00
A. $358.00
592
Manganous ion can be oxidized to maganic ion by A. Molecular oxygen at a high pH B. Molecular oxygen at a low pH C. Sodium thiosulfate at a high pH D. Sodium thiosulfate at a low pH
A. Molecular oxygen at a high pH
593
Copper sulfate is used for algae control. Your reservoir is 1,200 feet long and 600 feet wide. At an application rate of 5.5 pounds per surface acre, how much copper sulfate would you use? A. 22 pounds B. 80 pounds C. 91 pounds D. 107 pounds
C. 91 pounds
594
The precipitate formed in alum in coagulation is aluminum A. Carbonate B. chloride C. Hydroxide D. Sulfate
C. Hydroxide
595
What solution is used for titration of water for alkalinity? A. Ammonium hydroxide B. calcium carbonate C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sulfuric acid
D. Sulfuric acid
596
What can generally be said about Collodial particles in water? A. They will dissolve B. they do not settle readily C. They will settle after one hour D. They will settle immediately
B. they do not settle readily
597
A circular clarifier 60-ft in diameter has a weir along the entire circumference. What is the weir overflow rate when the flow is 2,000 gallons per minute? A. 10,000 gallons per day per foot B. 15,300 gallons per day per foot C. 48,000 gallons per day per foot D. 91,700 gallons per day per foot
B. 15,300 gallons per day per foot
598
The term "organic contamination" refers to substances such as A. Barium and arsenic B. calcium and magnesium C. Iron and copper D. Trihalomethane and PCB
D. Trihalomethane and PCB
599
When 10,000 gallons of sludge containing 1% solids are thickened to 5% solids, the new volume will be A. 1,000 gallons B. 2,000 gallons C. 4,000 gallons D. 5,000
B. 2,000 gallons
600
Trihalomethane precursors may be partially removed from water by A. Fluoridation B. microscreening C. Oxidation D. Ultraviolet radiation
C. Oxidation
601
The surface of a sand bed filter measures 20 feet by 30 feet. If the flow through the filter is 1,800 gallons per minute, what is the surface loading rate in gallons per minute per square foot? A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
D. 3
602
What is the proper range for the fluoride level in potable water? A. 0-1 mg/L B. 0.4-1.2 mg/L C. 0.6-1.5 mg/L D. 0.8-1.2 mg/L
D. 0.8-1.2 mg/L
603
In a test procedure using a colorimeter, A. A burette is used to quantitatively measure the amount of reagent solution needed to reach a colored end point B. the volume of reagent solution used is important because it can dilute the concentration of the colored end product in the reacted sample C. The color intensity will continue to increase indefinitely so color comparisons are always made 10 minutes after the reagent is added D. The volume of sample used is not important because results are interpreted by the color intensity rather than by the appearance alone
B. the volume of reagent solution used is important because it can dilute the concentration of the colored end product in the reacted sample
604
A basin 100 feet by 50 feet and 10 feet deep receives water at a rate of 3,000 gallons per minute. What is theoretical retention time in the basin? A. 1 hour 5 minutes B. 2 hours 5 minutes C. 2 hours 50 minutes D. 3 hours
B. 2 hours 5 minutes
605
A sedimentation basin is 250 feet by 50 feet by 15 feet deep. If the maximum flow in the sedimentation basin drain is 1,250 gallons per minute, how long does it take to drain the basin? A. 12 hours B. 14 hours C. 16 hours D. 18.7 hours
D. 18.7 hours
606
If Anabaena, Ceratium, and Synedra are found in your raw water supply, what is the principal difficulty that can be expected? A. Carbon dioxide production B. Lowered pH C. Sand Incrustation D. Tastes and odors
D. Tastes and odors
607
Tube settlers are used to A. Aid coagulation B. Improve turbidity removal C. Reduce flow stability D. Remove hardness
B. improve turbidity removal
608
What is the ratio of lime to copper sulfate for controlling algae growth on basin walls? A. 1 part lime to 1 part copper sulfate B. 1 part lime to 2 parts copper sulfate C. 1 part lime to 3 parts copper sulfate D. 2 parts lime to 3 parts copper sulfate
A. 1 part lime to 1 part copper sulfate
609
Copper sulfate is used in surface water reservoirs to control A. Emergent weeds B. Algae C. Mosquito larve D. Snails
B. algae
610
Which is the correct order (on the average) from smallest to largest for the microorganisms below? A. Giardia cysts, bacteria, viruses B. viruses, bacteria, giardiasis cysts C. Bacteria, giardia cysts, viruses D. Giardia cysts, viruses, bacteria
B. viruses, bacteria, Giardia cysts
611
What is the usual strength of sodium hypochlorite, i.e., available chlorine? A. 5-15% B. 45-50% C. 65-70% D. 80-85%
A. 5-15%
612
A 71.5% calcium hypochlorite solution is used to treat 5.8 MGD. If 237 pounds per day of calcium hypochlorite is used, what is the chlorine dose in milligrams per liter? A. 1.7 mg/L B. 3.5 mg/L C. 5.8 mg/L D. 16.9 mg/L
B. 3.5 mg/L
613
A 3.0-ft diameter pipe that is 1,876 ft long was disinfected with chlorine. If 41.33 lb of chlorine were used, what was the dosage in milligrams per liter? A. 13 mg/L B. 41 mg/L C. 50 mg/L D. 99 mg/L
C. 50 mg/L
614
Trihalomethanes are usually associated with A. High levels of alge in a surface water source B. surface water high in organics C. Water with organics that has been chlorinated D. Groundwater or surface water high in organics
C. Water with organics that has bee chlorinated
615
Which of the following disinfectants has a long-lasting residual? A. Ozone B. ultraviolet light C. Chlorine dioxide D. Sodium chloride
C. Chlorine dioxide
616
Which of the following substances will reduce the effectiveness of chlorine disinfection? A. Turbidity B. color C. Radon D. Carbon dioxide
A. Turbidity
617
Which of the following forms of chlorine has no disinfecting capacity? A. Hypochlorous acid B. Hydrochloric acid C. Hypochlorite ion D. Dichloramine
B. Hydrochloric acid
618
Find the detention time in minutes for a clarifier that has a diameter of 152 ft and a water depth of 8.22 ft, if the flow is 6.8 MGD. A. 32 minutes B. 236 minutes C. 775 minutes D. 5,664 minutes
B. 236 minutes
619
A plant is treating water at 21.3 MGD. If lime is being added at a rate of 417.16 g/min, what is the lime dosage in mg/L? A. 7.43 mg/L B. 8.34 mg/L C. 19.6 mg/L D. 21.3 mg/L
A. 7.43 mg/L
620
A raw water flow of 17 cfs is prechlorinated with 285 lb of chlorine gas. If the flow is changed to 28 cfs, what should the adjustment be to the chlorinator? A. 17 lb of Cl₂ B. 28 lb of Cl₂ C. 285 lb of Cl₂ D. 470 lb of Cl₂
D. 470 lb of Cl₂
621
An operator mixes 40 lb of lime in a 100-gal tank that contains 80 gal of water. What is the percent of lime in the slurry? A. 3% B. 6% C. 9% D. 12%
B. 6%
622
Red water may be caused by iron concentrations above A. 0.01 mg/L B. 0.03 mg/L C. 0.1 mg/L D. 0.3 mg/L
D. 0.3 mg/L
623
Which of the following best defines adsorption? A. Assimilation of one substance into the body of another by molecular or chemical action B. adhesion of a gas, liquid, or dissolved substance onto the surface or interface zone of another substance C. Converting small particles of suspended solids into larger particles by the use of chemicals D. Chemical complexing of metallic cations with certain inorganic compounds
B. adhesion of a gas, liquid, or dissolved substance onto the surface or interface zone of another substance
624
Hard water scale is usually caused by A. Calcium bicarbonate B. calcium carbonate C. Magnesium bicarbonate D. Magnesium carbonate
B. calcium carbonate
625
About how much alkalinity is required for each milligram per liter of alum added to raw water? A. 0.5 mg/L B. 1.0 mg/L C. 1.5 mg/L D. 2.0 mg/L
A. 0.5 mg/L
626
A water treatment plant's flocculation-coagulation and sedimentation processes should be checked if which of the following changes? A. Turbidity B. chlorine feed rate C. Fluoride feed rate D. Total trihalomethanes
A. Turbidity
627
Which of the following is an example of a weighting agent? A. Polyelectrolytes B. Bentonite clay C. Calcium carbonate D. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Bentonite clay
628
Algae can shorten filter runs by A. Clogging the filters B. increasing chlorine demand C. Lowering the pH D. Increasing turbidity
A. Clogging the filters
629
Coagulation is a chemical and physical reaction that converts A. Settleable solids into nonsettleable solids B. nonsettleable solids into settleable solids C. Dissolved solids into settleable solids D. Dissolved solids into a precipitate
B. nonsettleable solids into settleable solids
630
Water corrosion in metal piping will increase if A. The pH is above 7.0 and has low dissolved oxygen levels B. The alkalinity is high and water temperature is low C. Total dissolved solids are high and the pH is below 7.0 D. The pH and alkalinity increase
C. Total dissolved solids are high and the pH is below 7.0
631
What is schmutzdecke? A. Settled floc material in a sedimentation basin B. Fine sand and a sticky mat of suspended matter that forms on the surface of a sand filter C. Adsorption of divalent metal ions onto the surfaces of resins used in ion exchange D. Thin layer of protection formed on the inside of metal pipes by the reaction between the alkalinity in the water and zinc orthophosphate
B. fine sand and a sticky mat of suspended matter that forms on the surface of a sand filter
632
What is the cathode? A. Negative pole of an electrolytic cell or system B. positive pole of an electrolytic cell or system C. Negative pole of a polyelectrolyte D. Positive pole of a polyelectrolyte
A. Negative pole of an electrolytic cell or system
633
What metals are most likely to leach from household plumbing and cause a health hazard? A. Iron and zinc B. iron and copper C. Iron and lead D. Copper and lead
D. Copper and lead
634
The flow rate over conventional sedimentation basins is commonly designed not to exceed A. 12,000 gpd/sq ft B. 20,000 gpd/sq ft C. 180,000 gpd/sq ft D. 250,000 gpd/sq fr
B. 20,000 gpd/sq ft
635
If poorly formed floc is leaving the settling basin, which of the following should be done? A. Stop the mixer B. increase the coagulant or add a coagulant aid C. Increase filter run time D. Decrease the chlorination rate
B. increase the coagulant or add a coagulant aid
636
Slow sand filters are cleaned by A. Air and water backwash B. water backwash alone C. Scraping about 1" of sand off the top D. Surface wash
C. Scraping about 1" of sand off the top
637
What is the most common filtration rate for slow sand filters? A. 0.02 gpm/sq ft B. 0.05 gpm/sq ft C. 0.1 gpm/sq ft D. 0.5 gpm/sq ft
B. 0.05 gpm/sq fr
638
Which of the following do long filter runs tend to cause? A. Air binding B. slime growths C. Mud balls D. Media loss
B. slime growths
639
A water treatment plant has six filters with an average flow rate of 6.1 gpm/sq ft. If the plant flow is 79 cfs, what is the filtration area of each filter? A. 686 sq ft B. 861 sq ft C. 2,060 sq ft D. 5,553 sq ft
B. 861 sq ft
640
What type of corrosion in a water system is caused when two different metals come into contact with each other? A. Concentration cell corrosion B. uniform corrosion C. Galvanic corrosion D. Stray current corrosion
C. Galvanic corrosion
641
When should ammonia be added to the water when making disinfectant Chloramines to improve disinfection? A. Before the chlorine is added B. after the chlorine is added C. During filtration D. Before filtration
B. after the chlorine is added
642
Alum and ferric sulfate may have poor coagulation due to A. High turbidity in the water B. low color in the water C. High color in the water D. Low alkalinity
D. Low alkalinity in the water
643
The process of cathodic protection can be used to reduce or prevent corrosion by protecting metal parts exposed to A. Soil B. chloramine C. Permafrost D. Excessive turbidity
A. Soil
644
Which of the following disinfectants is usually generated on-site? A. Chlorine gas B. potassium permanganate C. Chlorine dioxide D. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Chlorine dioxide
645
If too much potassium permanganate is used to treat water A. The sodium level will increase B. disinfection will not be necessary C. All contaminants are removed D. The water turns pink
D. The water turns pink
646
Which of the following chemicals can be activated for use as a coagulant aid with alum? A. Calcium silicate B. sodium silicate C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Calcium hypochlorite
B. sodium silicate
647
In conventional coagulation, the average time to develop heavy floc particles is? A. 1 minute B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 60 minutes
C. 30 minutes
648
Which of the following is a difference between conventional filters and greensand filters? A. Greensand grains are larger than conventional grains B. Greensand filters remove iron and manganese by adsorption and oxidation C. Conventional filters remove iron and manganese by adsorption and oxidation D. Conventional beds must be regenerated during backwash
B. greensand filters remove iron and manganese by adsorption and oxidation
649
Under heavy loading, head loss on a manganese greensand filter quickly becomes excessive because A. Greensand grains are smaller than silica sand B. greensand filters are smaller than conventional filters C. Greensand filters are not back washed D. Greensand filter runs are longer than conventional filter runs
A. Greensand grains are smaller than silica sand
650
The filter medium in DE filters is A. Dielectric earth B. Diatomaceous earth C. Deionized earth D. Disinfected earth
B. Diatomaceous earth
651
Which of the following is a required treatment technique for the control of lead? A. Ion exchange B. Corrosion control C. Lime softening D. Activated carbon
B. Corrosion control
652
Bar screens are used to A. Remove turbidity B. Remove debris C. Cover pipes D. Size sand
B. Remove debris
653
Which of the following factors affects the settling rate of particles? A. Particle size B. Clarifier circumference C. Filter surface loading rate D. Method of prechlorination
A. Particle size
654
Coagulation processes rely on A. High quality water B. higher velocities C. Filter valves D. The formation of large settleable particles
D. The formation of large settleable particles
655
Which of the following substances is the most effective disinfection residual? A. Trichloramine B. Hypochlorous acid C. Chloramine D. Hypochlorite ion
B. Hypochlorous acid
656
Water is flowing at a velocity of 1.70 fps in a 10-inch diametr pipe. If the pipe changes from the 10-inch pipe to a 6-inch pipe, what will the velocity be in the 6-inch pipe? A. 2.8 fps B. 4.6 fps C. 10.2 fps D. 35.3 fps
B. 4.6 fps
657
Which type of solution contains 1 gram equivalent weight of a reactant compound per liter of solution? A. Molar solution B. Molal solution C. Normal solution D. Percentage strength solution
C. Normal solution
658
What term describes a measure of the capacity of water to neutralize strong acids? A. Acidity B. Alkalinity C. Hardness D. pH
B. Alkalinity
659
What piece of laboratory glassware is primarily used to mix chemicals and measure approximate volumes? A. Beaker B. Pipet C. Buret D. Graduated cylinder
A. Beaker
660
What laboratory device sterilizes laboratory apparatus and microbial media by using pressurized steam? A. Muffle furnace B. Aspirator C. Autoclave D. Membrane filter
C. Autoclave
661
Which of the following chemicals cause alkalinity in water? A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide B. Calcium sulfate and sodium sulfate C. Magnesium chloride and iron chloride D. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
A. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
662
What should the sample volume be when testing for total coliform bacteria? A. 100 ml B. 250 ml C. 500 ml D. 1,000 ml
A. 100 ml
663
Primary drinking water standards require Giardia removal at A. Two log (99.0%) B. three log (99.9%) C. Four log (99.99%) D. Five log (99.999%)
B. three log (99.9%)
664
Recarbonation basins are used to stabilize water after A. Filtratin B. disinfection C. Softening D. Coagulation
C. Softening
665
The least reactive metals are called A. Anodic metals B. Cathodic metals C. Galvanic metals D. Tempered metals
B. Cathodic metals
666
What precipitate is formed in alum coagulation? A. Aluminum hydroxide B. Complex organo-aluminum compounds C. Complex sulfate compounds and aluminum salts D. Aluminum salts and organo-sulfate compounds
A. Aluminum hydroxide
667
Autoclaving will sterilize A. At high temperatures near 600 degrees Celcius B. With ultraviolet light C. With steam at 121 degrees Celcius and 15 psi D. With chlorine gas
C. With steam at 121 degrees Celcius and 15 psi
668
What is the most common method used to determine if water is close to equilibrium point? A. Marble test B. Langelier index C. Temperature D. Dissolved oxygen
B. Langelier index
669
Which of the following is used to determine compliance for total coliforms? A. Most probable number procedure B. Coliforms per 100 ml C. Presence-absence method D. Heterotrophic plate count
C. Presence-absence methods
670
What is the percent potassium (K) by weight in potassium permanganate (KMnO₄)? A. 24.742% B. 39.102% C. 54.938% D. 63.998%
A. 24.742%
671
Small and medium-size utilities are considered to have optimal corrosion control if they meet the lead and copper action levels for A. One sampling period B. Two consecutive sampling periods C. Three consecutive sampling periods D. Four consecutive sampling periods
B. Two consecutive sampling periods
672
What is pressure head caused by? A. Water flow B. Water pressure C. Water elevation D. Gauge pressure
C. Water elevation
673
What is the motor horsepower (mhp) required if 200 hp is required to move water with a pump with a motor efficiency of 88% and a pump efficiency of 81%? NOTE: The 200 hp in this problem is called the water horsepower (whp). The water horsepower is the actual energy (horsepower) available to pump water. A. 166 mhp B. 200 mhp C. 281 mhp D. 355 mhp
C. 281 mhp
674
The flow of electrical current is measured in A. Amperes B. Ohms C. Volts D. Watts
A. Amperes
675
Unless water cooled, the operating temperature of a mechanical seal in a pump should never exceed A. 95 degrees Farhenheit (35 degrees C) B. 120 degrees Farhenheit (49 degrees C) C. 140 degrees Farhenheit (60 degrees C) D. 160 degrees Farhenheit (71 degrees C)
D. 160 degrees Farhenheit
676
The level in a storage tank (clear well) rises 3.1 fr in 4.5 hours.if the tank has a diameter of 225 ft and the plant is producing 32.4 MGD, what is the average discharge rate of the treated water discharge pumps in gallons per minute? A. 3,408 gpm B. 15,336 gpm C. 19,111 gpm D. 22,518 gpm
C. 19,111 gpm
677
What term describes the condition that exists when the source of the water supply is below the centerline of the pump? A. Pressure head B. Velocity head C. Suction lift D. Total discharge head
C. Suction lift
678
One horsepower is equal to how many foot-pounds per minute? A. 746 B. 3,300 C. 7,460 D. 33,000
D. 33,000
679
What is the pressure reading at the discharge side of a pump that is pumping against a total head of 100 ft? A. 2.3 psi B. 4.3 psi C. 23.1 psi D. 43.3 psi
D. 43.3 psi
680
What is the most common use today for a positive-displacement pump? A. Raw water intake pump B. System booster pump C. Chemical feed pump D. Filter feed pump
C. Chemical feed pump
681
What is the purpose of a bypass valve on a larger size gate valve? A. Connect a new main to an existing main B. Reduce pressure across both sides to ease opening and closing C. Increase flow through the main line D. Allow easy location of the main valve
B. Reduce pressure across both sides to ease opening and closing
682
A corrosion-resistant pipe is used to carry the chlorine gas solution from the chlorine injector to the the point of application because the pH range of the solution is A. 0-1 standard units B. 2-4 standard units C. 6-8 standard units D. 9-11 standard units
B. 2-4 standard units
683
Calculate the volume in cubic feet for a pipeline that is 14-inches in diameter and 3,164 feet long. A. 1,167 cu ft B. 3,164 cu ft C. 3,383 cu ft D. 6,328 cu ft
C. 3,383 cu ft
684
A well that is 374 ft in depth and 14 in in diameter requires disinfection. Depth to water front top of casing is 102 ft. If the desired dose is 50 mg/L, how many pounds of calcium hypochlorite (65% available chlorine) are required? A. 0.9 lb B. 1.4 lb C. 10.5 lb D. 44.6 lb
B. 1.4 lb
685
Water is flowing at a velocity of 3.75 fps in a 10-in diameter pipe. If the pipe changes from the 10-inch to a 12-inch pipe, what will the velocity be in the 12-inch pipe? A. 1.7 fps B. 2.6 fps C. 3.1 fps D. 4.5 fps
B. 2.6 fps
686
If a filter is operated so that the pressure in the bed is less than atmospheric, this can lead to short filter runs due to an operating condition known as A. Media loss B. Mudball formation C. Air binding D. Gravel displacement
C. Air binding
687
What is the head on a system exerting a static pressure of 62 psi? A. 27 ft B. 89 ft C. 143 ft D. 175 ft
C. 143 ft
688
Lead contamination in drinking water will cause children's to have A. Blue baby syndrome B. high blood pressure C. Altered mental and physical development D. Reduced bone calcium
C. Altered mental and physical development
689
Special care should be taken when using dry alum and quicklime because if mixed together A. Explosive hydrogen gas may be released B. the mixture will plug effluent weirs C. They will create slick areas on the floor D. Coagulation will not occur
A. Explosive hydrogen gas may be released
690
OSHA is an acronym for A. Organization for Safe Health Administratin B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration C. Occupation, Safety and Health Act D. Organization of State Health Administration
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
691
Air scrubbers are A. Needed to cleanse sand B. For lime room safety C. Used to neutralize chlorine leaks D. For breathable air
C. Used to neutralize chlorine leaks
692
The device that changes AC to DC by allowing current flow in only one directing is the A. Inverter B. Current transformer C. Rectifier D. Voltage regulator
C. Rectifier
693
Which of the following is a method of preventing trench cave-in during pipe installation? A. Sloping B. Scanning C. Sequestering D. Surging
A. Sloping
694
When handling fluoride chemicals, personnel should wear a respirator or mask approved by A. OSHA B. MSA C. EPA D. NIOSH
D. NIOSH
695
What information must be on a warning tag attached to a switch that has been locked out? A. Name of person who locked out the switch B. exact time the switch was locked out C. Date the switch can be unlocked D. Name of shift supervisor
A. Name of person who locked out the switch
696
Which of the following is colorless, odorless, lighter than air, highly flammable, and sometimes called swamp gas? A. Hydrogen sulfide B. Methane C. Chlorine D. Radon
B. Methane
697
Which of the following is colorless, odorless, found mainly in groundwater, and can cause cancer? A. Hydrogen sulfide B. Methane C. Chlorine D. Radon
D. Radon
698
What is the major health risk of nitrates? A. Methemoglobinemia B. Nervous system damage C. Prostate cancer D. Gastrointestinal effects
A. Methemoglobinemia
699
It is critical to have zero headspace in the sample container when collecting a sample for A. Microbiological contaminants B. Inorganic chemical contaminants C. Organic chemical contaminants D. Radiological contaminants
C. Organic chemical contaminants
700
According to the Surface Water Treatment Rule requirements, systems serving less than how many people may take grab samples to monitor disinfectant residual? A. 3,300 B. 5,500 C. 8,500 D. 10,009
A. 3,300
701
A household faucet must remain unused for how many hours before a first draw sample is collected for analysis of lead and copper? A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 8 hours D. 12 hours
B. 6 hours
702
Public water systems using surface water as a source must continuously monitor the disinfection residual entering the distribution system if serving more than A. 25 people B. 300 people C. 2,209 people D. 3,300 people
D. 3,300 people
703
Under the National Secondary Drinking Water Regulations, what is the secondary maximum contaminant level for total dissolves solids? A. 200 mg/l B. 250 mg/l C. 500 mg/l D. 700 mg/l
C. 500 mg/l
704
Records for bacteriological analysis should be kept for a minimum of A. 5 years B. 7 years C. 10 years D. 20 years
A. 5 years
705
Which of the following is not an important factor in filter sand selection? A. Hardness B. density C. Shape D. Color
D. Color
706
What does the abbreviation MCLG stand for? A. Minimum concentration level goal B. Maximum concentration level goal C. Minimum contaminant level goal D. Maximum contaminant level goal
D. Maximum contaminant level goal
707
What is the threshold odor number (TON) that will begin to draw complaints from customers? A. 1 TON B. 5 TON C. 32 TON D. 128 TON
B. 5 TON
708
What effect will algae in a reservoir have on dissolved oxygen (DO)? A. Lower the DO during the day and increase the DO during the night B. Slowly increase the DO during both the day and night C. Increase the DO during the day and lower the DO during the night D. Slowly decrease the DO during both the day and night
C. Increase the DO during the day and lower the DO during the night
709
What effect does alkalinity have on the use of copper sulfate as an algicide? A. Copper sulfate is more effective as alkalinity increases B. Copper sulfate is more effective as alkalinity decreases C. Alkalinity has no effect D. Alkalinity prevents toxicity to fish
B. Copper sulfate is more effective as alkalinity decreases
710
The amount of water in a water bearing formation depends on the A. Depth of the well B. Size of the pump C. Porosity of the formation D. Type of well casing
C. Porosity of the formation
711
What is the main characteristics of raw water that enables blue-green algae to grow? A. Presence of copper sulfate B. Low pH C. High hardness D. Presence of nutrients
D. Presence of nutrients
712
A well screen must be installed for which of the following? A. All deep wells B. Only shallow wells C. Consolidated materials D. Unconsolidated materials
D. Unconsolidated materials
713
What is the recommended loading rate for copper sulfate for algae control at an alkalinity greater than 50 mg/L? A. 0.9 lb of copper sulfate per acre of surface area B. 1.9 lb of copper sulfate per acre of surface area C. 2.4 lb of copper sulfate per acre of surface area D. 5.4 lb of copper sulfate per acre of surface area
D. 5.4 lb of copper sulfate per acre of surface area
714
What is the primary origin of coliform bacteria in water supplies? A. Natural algae growth B. Industrial solvents C. Animal or human feces D. Acid rain
C. Animal or human feces
715
Which of the following best defines the term specific capacity? A. Amount of water a given volume of saturated rock or sediment will yield to gravity B. Amount of water a given volume of saturated rock or sediment will yield to pumping C. Rate at which water would flow in an aquifer if the aquifer were an open conduit D. Amount of water a well will produce for each foot of drawdown
D. Amount of water a well will produce for each foot of drawdown
716
The most common type of well used for public water supply systems is a A. Jetted well B. Driven well C. Drilled well D. Bored well
C. Drilled well
717
Copper sulfate is used for algae control. Your reservoir is 1,200 ft long and 600 ft wide. At an application rate of 5.5 lb per surface acre, how much copper sulfate is required? A. 22 lb B. 80 lb C. 91 lb D. 107 lb
C. 91 lb
718
For water that's highly colored from organic matter, the best addition would be A. Lime B. Lime with an increase in a nonionic polymer C. A small increase in a nonionic polymer D. An acid to lower pH before coagulation
D. An acid to lower pH before coagulation
719
In solids-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters, how often should the solids concentration be determined? A. At least once per week B. At least every other day C. At least once per month D. At least twice a day
D. At least twice per day
720
If the activation process of silica isn't carefully controlled, A. The silica could splash because of the reactants' high heat B. It could inhibit floc formation C. It could corrode and destroy the metal and rubber in the flocculators D. It could deposit silica on the flocculators and the gears, eventually bringing them to a grinding halt
B. it could inhibit floc formation
721
Which type of distribution system configuration surrounds the distribution area with large-diameter mains? A. Grid system B. Dendritic system C. Arterial-loop system D. Tree system
C. Arterial-loop system
722
Mudballs are clumps of A. Sand and clay B. Filter media and other material C. Sand and filter media D. Clay and other material
B. Filter media and other material
723
Coagulation occurs during the first A. 1-5 seconds B. 10-20 seconds C. 30-60 seconds D. 1-5 minutes
A. 1-5 seconds
724
A filter has a surface area of 920 sq ft. What is the filtration rate in gallons per minute per square foot, if it receives a flow of 4,875 gpm? A. 2.4 gpm/sq ft B. 4.8 gpm/sq ft C. 5.3 gpm/sq ft D. 9.2 gpm/sq ft
C. 5.3 gpm/sq ft
725
A filter should be back washed when it has a high A. Solids loading B. Head loss C. Chlorine dosage D. Influent turbidity
B. Head loss. Filters should also be back washed when effluent turbidity is high.
726
Which of the following chemicals decreases corrosion rates? A. H₂S B. CO₂ C. CaCO₃ D. O₂
C. CaCO₃
727
What is the most important test used to indicate proper sedimentation? A. pH B. Turbidity C. Head loss on filters D. Chlorine residual
B. turbidity
728
Which of the following is considered an excellent zeta potential? A. -1 to -4 B. -5 to -10 C. -11 to -20 D. -21 to -30
A. -1 to -4
729
Which membrane type from the processes listed below has the smallest pore spaces? A. Ultrafiltration B. Nanofiltration C. Reverse osmosis D. Microfiltration
C. Reverse osmosis
730
A treatment plant processes an average of 4,850 gpm. If the lime dosage is 114 g/min, what is the dosage in milligrams per liter? A. 0.12 mg/L B. 6.22 mg/L C. 40.2 mg/L D. 51.8 mg/L
B. 6.22 mg/L
731
Find the detention time for the following treatment plant given the following information: * 5 flocculation basins each 60 ft by 15 ft, with a water depth of 12 ft * 1 sedimentation basin that is 800 ft long, 75 ft wide, with an average water depth of 11 ft * 12 filters each 42 ft by 32 ft, with an average water depth of 12 ft * flow is 27 MGD A. 1.1 hours B. 4.9 hours C. 5.9 hours D. 6.7 hours
C. 5.9 hours
732
Four-log removal is A. 90.00% B. 99.00% C. 99.90% D. 99.99%
D. 99.99%
733
What is the chemical formula for bicarbonate? A. H₂CO₃ B. HCO-3 C. H₂CO₂+2 D. H₂CO
B. HCO-3
734
The capability of a water or chemical solution to resist a change in pH is called A. Chlorine demand B. Buffering capacity C. Langelier Saturation Index D. Zeta potential
B. Buffering capacity
735
In coliform analyses using the presence-absence test, a sample should be incubated for A. 24 hours at 25 degrees C B. 36 hours at 35 degrees C C. 24 and 36 hours at 25 degrees C D. 24 and 48 hours at 35 degrees C
D. 24 and 48 hours at 36 degrees C
736
The optimal fluoride concentrating in drinking water is set in relation to the A. Water alkalinity and pH B. Annual minimum daily water temperature C. Annual maximum daily water temperature D. Annual maximum daily air temperature
D. Annual average maximum daily air temperature
737
The optimum dosage for a polymer can be determined by which of the following test? A. Jar B. Marble C. Alkalinity D. pH
A. Jar
738
In the multiple-tube fermentation method, what is the sequence of growth media? A. LTB, EMB, and BGB B. LTB, BGB, and EMB C. EMB, BGB, and LTB D. EMB, LTB, and BGB
B. LTB,BGB, and EMB. LTB=Lauryl Tryptose Broth; EMB=Eosin Methylene Blue; BGB=Brilliant Green lactose Bile Broth
739
Giardia cysts range in size from A. 1 to 2 microns B. 2 to 7 microns C. 8 to 20 microns D. 12 to 20 microns
C. 8 to 20 microns
740
The quantity of oxygen that can remain dissolved in water is related to A. Temperature B. pH C. Turbidity D. Alkalinity
A. Temperature
741
What is apparent color? A. Color in a sample after it is filtered B. Color in a sample before it is filtered C. Color in a sample after it is disinfected D. Color in a sample before it is disinfected
B. Color in a sample before it is filtered
742
Pump seals can be classified as A. Balanced or unbalanced B. packing ring or mechanical C. Flat smooth faced or round faced D. Factory or custom
B. packing ring or mechanical
743
What is the most probable cause of a pinging sound coming from a pump? A. Descaling B. Cavitation C. Corrosion D. Hardness
B. Cavitation
744
Which of the following best describes the discharge rate of a piston-type pump? A. Constant as the speed changes B. precise volume for each stroke C. Varies inversely with the head D. Varies with the total dynamic head
B. Precise volume for each stroke
745
What is the total head in feet for a pump with a total static head of 19 ft and a head loss of 3.7 ft? A. 10 ft B. 14 ft C. 23 ft D. 81 ft
C. 23 ft.
746
What is the main purpose of priming? A. Ensure the pump operates freely B. Compress the air in the cylinder C. Replace air with water inside the pump D. Wet the packing
C. Replace air with water inside the pump
747
What is the purpose of a vacuum regulator? A. Relieve excess gas pressure on the chlorinator B. Stop flow of chlorine gas is leak develops C. Provide a source of air to reduce any excess vacuum on the chlorinator system D. Regulate the chlorine feed rate
B. Stop the flow of chlorine gas if leak develops
748
Mechanical seals are more appropriate for pumps operating under which of the following conditions? A. High suction head B. Low RPMs C. High RPMs D. High discharge head
A. High suction head
749
Which of the following valves is most suitable for a throttling application? A. Pressure reducing B. Check C. Gate D. Air-relief
A. Pressuring reducing
750
The component of a centrifugal pump sometimes installed on the end of the suction pipe in order to hold the priming is the A. Casing B. Foot valve C. Impeller D. Lantern ring
B. Foot valve
751
What is the term for the combined efficiency of a pump and motor that is obtained by multiplying the pump efficiency by the motor efficiency? A. Total system efficiency B. Well efficiency C. Wire-to-water efficiency D. Motor-to-pipe efficiency
C. Wire-to-water efficiency
752
Air gap separation is measured from the flood level rim of the receiving vessel to the potable water supply pipe. What is the minimum separation of a correctly installed air gap? A. 1 in. B. 2 in. C. 4 in. D. 6 in.
A. 1 in.
753
Which of the following causes air binding? A. Lack of liquid in a pump when it is first started B. Release of dissolved gases in saturated cold water when pressure decreases in filter beds C. Increase of air and thus a decrease of liquid in a pump long after it has been started D. Release of dissolved gases in saturate cold water when pressure increases in filter beds
B. Release of dissolved gases in saturated cold water when pressure decreases in filter beds
754
Solids-contact units are most unstable under which of the following conditions? A. Rapid increase in temperature B. Rapid increase in pH C. Gradual decrease in flow D. Gradual decrease in disinfection
A. Rapid increase in temperature
755
The least amount of headloss in a pipeline would be the result of a fully open A. Angle valve B. Check valve C. Gate valve D. Globe valve
C. Gate valve
756
During a routine inspection on a centrifugal pump, the operator notices that the bearings are excessively hot. Which of the following is the most likely caused? A. Overlubrication B. Speed being too slow C. Worn impeller D. Worn packing
A. Overlubication
757
Electrical demand is A. The same as horsepower B. Opposition by a circuit to passage of electrons C. Amount of power in watts required during a certain time interval D. The maximum kilowatt load during a billing period
C. Amount of power in watts required during a certain time interval
758
A chlorine evaporator maintains a water bath at A. 77-82 degrees F B. 110-118 degrees F C. 170-189 degrees F D. 212-220 degrees F
C. 170-180 degrees F
759
Chlorine ton containers at room temperature will deliver gas at a maximum rate of A. 100 pounds per day B. 200 pounds per day C. 400 pounds per day D. 600 pounds per day
C. 400 pounds per day
760
A water tank has an overflow 115 ft above a nearby hydrant. Disregarding friction losses, calculate the pressure at the hydrant when the tank is overflowing. A. 25 psi B. 50 psi C. 133 psi D. 356 psi
B. 50 psi
761
At a pumping station equipped with a centrifugal pump, which of the following can cause the discharge pressure to suddenly increase and the discharge quantity to suddenly decrease? A. Pump control valve malfunctioned B. Suction valve was closed C. Pump amperage was decreased D. Voltage was suddenly increased
A. Pump control valve malfunctioned
762
The proper emergency repair kit for a ton chlorine cylinder is an A. Emergency kit A B. Emergency kit B C. Emergency kit C D. Emergency kit T
B. Emergency kit B
763
What is the only type of self-contained breathing apparatus that should be used at water plants? A. Negative-pressure B. Zero-pressure C. Positive-pressure D. Air-pressure
C. Positive-pressure
764
The use of ammonia solution on a chlorine gas leak from the disinfection assembly may cause which of the following? A. Explosion B. Hydrochloric acid C. Toxic gases D. Dense white smoke
D. Dense white smoke
765
Which of the following substances pose an immediate health threat whenever standards are exceeded? A. Benzene and mercury B. Coliform and nitrate C. Mercury and coliform D. Lead and nitrate
B. Coliform and nitrate
766
Ozone contractors must have a system to collect ozone off-gas because ozone is A. Toxic B. Explosive C. Mutagenic D. Magnetic
A. Toxic
767
What is the causative organism for cholera? A. Vibrio B. Shigella C. Yersinia D. Mycobacterium
A. Vibrio
768
Which health effect category refers to an organic chemical that is a known carcinogen? A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV
A. Category I
769
A room measures 12 ft high, 30 ft long, and 17 ft wide. How many cubic feet per minute of air must a blower in an air exchange unit move to completely change the air every 10 minutes? A. 102 B. 612 C. 1,020 D. 6,120
B. 612
770
One volume of liquid chlorine gas will expand, at room temperature and pressure, to occupy how many volumes of gas? A. 16 volumes B. 45 volumes C. 460 volumes D. 960 volumes
C. 460 volumes
771
What is the odor detection limit of chlorine gas? A. 0.1 ppm B. 0.3 ppm C. 0.5 ppm D. 1.0 ppm
B. 0.3 ppm
772
What is the maximum contaminant level for nitrate (as nitrogen) in drinking water? A. 0.1 mg/L B. 0.5 mg/L C. 1 mg/L D. 10 mg/L
D. 10 mg/L
773
Which of the following has both a primary and secondary standard? A. Iron B. Chromium C. Fluoride D. Manganese
C. Fluoride
774
What is the maximum contaminant level goal for known or suspected carcinogens? A. Zero B. 0.0001 to 0.001 C. Depends on the chemical D. Known or suspected carcinogens only have MCLs
A. Zero
775
Which of the following violations is considered the most serious? A. Tier I B. Tier II C. Tier I-A D. Tier II-A
A. Tier I
776
An employee receives an hourly wage of $13.25 plus overtime pay of 1.5 times the hourly wage. Overtime pay is given for each hour worked over 40 hours per week. If the employee works 48 hours during a week, what is the compensation before taxes? A. $159.00 B. $530.00 C. $689.00 D. $848.00
C. $689.00
777
What is the ratio of lime to copper sulfate for controlling algae growth on basin walls? A. 1 part lime to 1 part copper sulfate B. 1 part lime to 2 parts copper sulfate C. 1 part lime to 3 parts copper sulfate D. 2 parts lime to 3 parts copper sulfate
A. 1 part lime to 1 part copper sulfate
778
Copper sulfate is used in surface water reservoirs to control A. Emergent weeds B. algae C. Mosquito larve D. Snails
B. algae
779
What is the maximum level goal for lead? A. Zero B. 0.015 mg/L C. 0.05 mg/L D. 0.10 mg/L
A. Zero
780
Records of chemical analyses should be kept for a minimum of A. 5 years B. 7 years C. 10 years D. 20 years
C. 10 years
781
A water system collects 180 samples for coliform testing. What is the maximum number of samples that may test positive so that the system stays in compliance? A. 2 B. 4 C. 9 D. 12
C. 9
782
The treatment technique required by the US Environmental Protection Agency and used by a surface water system must ensure a log removal for Giardia cysts of A. 1 log B. 2 log C. 3 log D. 4 log
C. 3 log
783
Your department uses 80 units of an item per week. You are required to maintain a 10-week reserve of this item at all times and it requires 4 weeks to obtain a new supply. What is the minimum reorder point? A. 320 units B. 800 units C. 1,120 units D. 2,240 units
C. 1,120 units
784
Hypochlorous acid is A. A weak acid B. a strong acid C. Easily dissociatible D. Hydrophobic
A. A weak acid
785
Gaseous chlorine dioxide is generated from A. oxygen + chlorine gas + heat (energy) B. aqueous chlorine + oxygen + heat (energy) C. sodium chlorite + chlorine at low pH values D. Hypochlorous acid + oxygen + organic catalyst
C. sodium chlorite + chlorine at low pH values
786
First-draw water samples for the analysis of lead and copper must be collected from taps where the water has stood motionless in the plumbing for at least A. 4 hours B. 6 hours C. 8 hours D. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
787
The volume of a sample for coliform compliance is A. 100 mL B. 200 mL C. 300 mL D. 0; there is no volume compliance for coliforms
A. 100 mL
788
When measuring for free chlorine residual, which method is the quickest and simplest? A. DPD test kit B. Orthotolodine method C. Amperometric titration D. 1,2 nitrotoluene di-amine method
A. DPD test kit
789
Conventional sedimentation has (a) _____ removal of Crytosporidium oocysts A. Less than 0.5-log B. 0.5-log C. 1.0-log D. 2.0-log
A. Less than 0.5-log
790
Dissolved-air flotation is particularly good A. Sulfides B. inorganics C. Manganese and iron D. Algae
D. Algae
791
Reverse osmosis membranes will compact faster with A. Higher iron content B. higher chlorine contact C. Higher pressure D. Higher pH
C. Higher pressure
792
After a water storage tank has been chlorinated, which bacteriological test must prove negative before the tank is put back into service? A. Gram negative test B. HPC test C. Coliform test D. Chloramine test
C. Coliform test
793
When PVC pipe is stacked loose, it shouldn't be stacked more than A. 2 ft high B. 3 ft high C. 5 ft high D. 7.5 ft high
B. 3 ft high
794
In solids-contact basins, the weir loading normally shouldn't exceed _____ of weir length. a. 1 gpm/ft b. 2 gpm/ft c. 5 gpm/ft d. 10 gpm/ft
d. 10 gpm/ft
795
Which conventional treatment step is elminated by direct filtration? a. Oxidation b. Aeration c. Flocculation d. Sedimentation
d. Sedimentation
796
How are reverse osmosis membranes cleaned once they become fouled? a. They're soaked in high-purity industrial soap for at least 24 hours. b. They're cleaned with an acid wash c. They're cleaned with an acid, then with an industrial soap for 24 hours. d. They're cleaned first with a high-purity industrial soap in an acid solution for 3 days.
b. They're cleaned with an acid wash.
797
Although velocity head can usually be ignored, it should be considered when it's _____ percent of the pressure head. a. 1-2 b. 3-4 c. 5-8 d. 5-10
a. 1-2
798
What's the most common cause for pipe joint failure (leaking) in newly laid pipe? a. The use of a cracked gasket b. Not pushing the spigot end the full distance into the bell c. Not having the joint completely clean d. An incorrect trench bedding angle
c. Not having the joint completely clean
799
If sludge in a sedimentation basin becomes too thick, which of the following could happen? a. Gases from decomposition will rise through the settled sludge, accelerating normal floc settling. b. Abundant trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids will form. c. Solids can become resuspended or tastes and odors can develop. d. The sludge will compact at the bottom of the basin, making it difficult to remove.
c. Solids can become resuspended or tastes and odors can develop.
800
The turbidity of settled water before it's applied to the filters (post-sedimentation process) should always be kept below a. 1-2 ntu b. 2-4 ntu c. 5 ntu d. 8-10 ntu
a. 1-2 ntu
801
Water that's to be analyzed for inorganic metals should be acidified with a. dilute hydrochloric acid. b. concentrated hydrochloric acid. c. dilute nitric acid. d. concentrated nitric acid.
d. concentrated nitric acid.
802
What's the total concentration of dissolved solids in the wastewater from the regeneration of ion exchange units? a. 10,000-20,000 mg/L b. 20,000-30,000 mg/L c. 35,000-45,000 mg/L d. 45,000-60,000 mg/L
c. 35,000-45,000 mg/L
803
Water treatment operators must strike a balance between total organic carbon (TOC) removal and the a. Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection By-products Rule. b. Stage 2 Disinfectants/Disinfection By-products Rule. c. Filter Backwash Recycle Rule. d. Lead and Copper Rule.
d. Lead and Copper Rule.
804
At what temperature should the slaking process be maintained? a. 120°F b. 135°F c. 150°F d. 160°F or higher
d. 160°F or higher
805
A corporation stop is used for a a. service line. b. pump discharge line. c. tank inlet d. tank outlet
a. service line.
806
Which thrust control is easy to use, especially in locations where existing utilities or structures are numerous? a. Restraining fittings b. Tie rods c. Thrust anchors d. Thrust blocks
a. Restraining fittings
807
Gravel displacement in a filter bed from backwash rates with velocity too high could eventually cause a. compaction of the filter media. b. loss of media into the backwash troughs. c. a sand boil. d. bed shrinkage.
c. a sand boil.
808
In a precipitative softening plant, what percentage of solids sludge is produced? a. 1 percent b. 5 percent c. 10 percent d. 30 percent
b. 5 percent
809
Which method of generating chlorine dioxide is most likely to have substantial amounts of chlorine in solution? a. Adding chlorine to water, then this water to sodium citrate and sodium chlorate. b. Adding chlorine to water, then this water to hydrochloric acid and sodium chlorate. c. Injecting chlorine gas under vacuum into a stream of chlorite solution. d. Adding hydrochloric acid to a chlorite solution
b. Adding chlorine to water, then this water to hydrochloric acid and sodium chlorate.
810
Most telemetry equipment transmits information by a. digital signals. b. analog signals. c. audio signals. d. electrical pulses
a. digital signals
811
Which violations are the most serious? a. Tier I b. Tier II c. Tier III d. Tier IV
a. Tier I
812
At which minimum angle must self-cleaning tube settlers be placed? a. 50 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 65 degrees d. 70 degrees
a. 50 degrees
812
Which violations are the most serious? a. Tier I b. Tier II c. Tier III d. Tier IV
a. Tier I
813
At which minimum angle must self-cleaning tube settlers be placed? a. 50 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 65 degrees d. 70 degrees
a. 50 degrees
815
Approximately how much carbon is lost during the reactivation process for granular activated carbon? a. 5 percent b. 7 percent c. 10 percent d. 15 percent
a. 5 percent
816
Approximately how much carbon is lost during the reactivation process for granular activated carbon? a. 5 percent b. 7 percent c. 10 percent d. 15 percent
a. 5 percent
817
Backfill material for a pipe installation should contain enough ______ to allow for thorough compaction. a. Moisture b. Sand c. Gravel d. Mixed sizes
a. Moisture
818
Backfill material for a pipe installation should contain enough ______ to allow for thorough compaction. a. Moisture b. Sand c. Gravel d. Mixed sizes
a. Moisture
819
A bypass valve would be used with a a. gate valve b. butterfly valve c. needle valve d. diaphragm valve
a. gate valve
820
A bypass valve would be used with a a. gate valve b. butterfly valve c. needle valve d. diaphragm valve
a. gate valve
821
The percentage of solid material of alum sludge is typically a. 0.1-2 percent b. 2-5 percent c. 4-7 percent d. 5-15 percent
a. 0.1-2 percent
822
When should polyphosphates used for sequestration of iron and manganese from a well be injected into the process? a. Right after disinfection b. Immediately after aeration to remove unwanted gases c. Right after clarification d. Right after the water leaves the well
d. Right after the water leaves the well
823
Ion exchange processes can typically be used for direct groundwater treatment as long as turbidity and _____ levels aren't excessive. a. calcium carbonate b. iron c. carbon dioxide d. sodium sulfate
b. iron
824
Compression fittings used with copper or plastic tubing seal by means of a a. beveled sleeve b. compression ring c. compressed beveled gasket d. compressed O-rings located at either end of the fitting's beveled neck
c. compressed beveled gasket
825
If special bedding material is required because of poor soil, the material shouldn't contain granular material a. 1/4 in. b. 1/2 in c. 3/4 in. d. 1 in.
d. 1 in.